exam 5 need to knows Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

how do you diagnose cancer?

A

biopsy

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2
Q

what are the side effects of chemotherapy?

A

mucositosis and alopecia

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3
Q

a pt can get ______ from radiation therapy

A

skin burns

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4
Q

what does each letter in CAUTION stand for?

A

C= change in bowel or bladder habits,
A= a sore throat that does not heal
U=unusual bleeding or discharge
T= thickening of lump in the breast or any other part of the body
I=indigestion or difficulty swallowing
O=obvious changes in wart or mole
N= nagging or hoarseness

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5
Q

once you have HIV it can go away, true or false?

A

false once you have it you always have it

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6
Q

what cd4+ count is considered aids?

A

less than 200

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7
Q

if a pt has a cd4+ count less than 200 they have (greater/less) chance of developing OIs?

A

greater

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8
Q

what are some signs and symptoms indicating a dteriorating status in a HIV patient requiring immediate attention?

A

anything new

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9
Q

if the viral load of HIV is undetectable does this mean they are negative for the virus?

A

no

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10
Q

there is a _______ window after infection

A

72 hour

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11
Q

PrEP medicine is used inc ombination of other preventative measures such as….

A

condoms, risk reduction counseling, regular HIV testing, see HCP after every 3 months

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12
Q

what are the known genetic mutations for female breast cancer?

A

BRCA 1 or BRCA 2

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13
Q

what should you know for a pt following a mastectomy?

A

do range of motion exercises and no bp/iv sticks in the same arm

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14
Q

what are the neutropenia precautions?

A

avoid crowds, no raw fruits and vegetables, monitor temp daily, no plants for flowers, private room if hospitalized

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15
Q

what are some things to know about bleeding precautions?

A

use a electric razor, use stool softener, keep injections and sticks to a minimum, apply direct pressure for no less than 5 minutes if laceration occurs

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16
Q

reed-sternberg cells belong to what disease?

A

hodgkin’s lymphoma

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17
Q

how are reed-sternberg cells defined?

A

by biopsy

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18
Q

what are b symptoms of hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

fever, night sweats, weight loss

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19
Q

what can cause multiple myeloma?

A

hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, bone disease

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20
Q

what can diagnose multiple myeloma?

A

CRAB criterion

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21
Q

what is the crab criterion?

A

c- hyperCalcemia
R- renal insufficiency
A- anemia
B- bone disease

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22
Q

what is an example of an type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A

immediate and rapid suchs as allergies, anaphylaxis, and asthma

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23
Q

what is an example of a type ii reaction?

A

cytotoxic- transfusion reaction

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24
Q

what is an example of type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A

immune complex such as lupus or rheumatoid arthritis

25
what is type 4 hypersensitivity?
delayer hypersenstitivty, contact dermatitis to poision ivy, positive TB test, latex allergy
26
how do you treat type I hypersensitivity reaction?
o2 100% nonrebreather
27
what is the number one thing to do for a pt experiencing a hypersensitivty reaction type I?
Epipen IM, call 911 after giving and can repeat every 5-15 min
28
what are things that could trigger a latex allergy?
medical gloves
29
rheumatoid arthritis joints are affected....
symetrically
30
when is rheumatoid worse? why?
in the morning because of lack of mobility
31
what medicine is given for rheumatoid arthritis?
methotrexate
32
when taking methotrexate, what should you also take? why?
folic acid to prevent mouth sores
33
scleroderma can cause...
raynaunds's phenomenon
34
what is raynaunds phenomemnon?
caused by exposure to cold, fingers become to blanch white and become blue and then red from reactice hyperemia
35
what is the treatment for scleroderma?
wear gloves and dress warmly
36
lupus affects the kidneys which means you should watch..
urinary output
37
what are the symptoms of lupus?
butterfly rash, lupus nephritis, neuropathy
38
what is the treatment for lupus?
avoid prolonged sun exposure and wear 50 SPF or higher on daily basis
39
what are the risk factors for gout?
obesity, hypertension, eating large amount of meat and seafood, using thiazide diruetics, and consuming large amounts of alcohol
40
what medicine may you use for gout?
nsaids such as indomethacin and colchine
41
what is acute gout NEVER treated with first?
uric acid lowering agents such as allopurinol
42
what should you teach your patients with gout?
avoid alcohol (beer) and avoid high purine foods
43
what should you get before initiating therapy for RA pateints?
baseline renal and hepatic functions
44
before the initation of biological therapies, what is needed?
a TB test and hepatitis
45
what should you monitor for with DMARDS?
CBC and liver enzymes
46
what do DMARDS do?
cause immunosuppresion
47
biological therapy dmards increase the risk for
infections such as tb and fungal infections and cancer
48
what are some examples of biological therapy DMARDS?
infliximad and etanercept
49
what should you be cautious of if your patient is on methotrexate?
lab enzymes, take folic acid to prevent ulcers, avoid alcohol, proper birth control measures, patients with renal insufficiency require lower doses
50
scleroderma causes the accumulation of ______ resulting in
collagen; damage and hardened skin
51
what are three important manifestations of scleroderma?
raynounds, scleroderma renal crisis, and hypertension
52
what are triggering factors for lupus?
pregnancy, exercise, sunlight, illness, major surgery, silica dust, medication allergies
53
what are risk factors for developing gout?
obesity, hypertension, eating large amounts of meat and seafood, using thiazide diuretics, consuming alcohol
54
what is the nonpharmalogical treatment of gout?
weight management
55
what NSAIDS can you give pts with gout?
indomethacin and colchicine
56
acute gout is never treated with
allopurinol
57
what medicine should be avoided in gout treatment? why?
aspirin because it can increase uric acid levels by causing retention of uric acid
58