Exam I Flashcards
(264 cards)
1
Q
What is a common normal finding of a vaginal wet prep
A
lactobacilli
considered normal vaginal flora, believed to create acidic environment
2
Q
[] are part of normal vaginal flora and are believed to create an acidic environment
A
lactobacilli
3
Q
an acidic vaginal pH is protective against what?
A
infection
4
Q
- fishy vaginal d/c
- milky, homogenous d/c
these are common findings with what d/o
A
Bacterial Vaginosis
5
Q
What does Vaginosis mean?
A
it means that there is NO inflammation, i.e. abnormal pathology WITHOUT inflammation
6
Q
Is there mucosal inflammation in BV?
A
NO! Vaginosis means pathology with NO inflammation
7
Q
Describe Amsel’s Criteria
What can it be helpful in diagnosing?
A
- Homogenous vaginal d/c
- amine odor when d/c mixed with KOA
- i.e. positive whiff test - Clue cell presence in >/= 20% epithelial cells
- vaginal pH > 4.5
Amsel’s can provide an accurate dx of BV 90% of the time
3/4 criteria must be met for dx
8
Q
Clue cells are assoc. with what d/o?
A
BV
9
Q
a stippled or granulated epithelial cell is also called what?
A
clue cells
10
Q
a vaginal pH of what can be diagnostic for BV
A
pH > 4.5
11
Q
describe the whiff test
A
KOH added to vaginal secretion
positive: amine, fishy odor
negative: no odor
12
Q
[] % clue cells can be diagnostic BV
A
20%
13
Q
clue cells are described as []
A
stippled, granulated epithelial cells
14
Q
- vulvar pruritis
- vulvovaginal erythema
- thick white d/c
can be diagnostic of what?
A
candidiasis
15
Q
Hyphae or buds on wet prep can be indicative of what
A
candidiasis
16
Q
[] is a unicellular protozoan
A
trichomonas vaginalis
17
Q
[] causes trichomonal vaginitis
A
trichomonas vaginalis
18
Q
Describe the size of trichomonas vaginalis
A
leukocytes < t. vaginalis < epithelial cells
19
Q
- profuse frothy, green, foul smelling discharge, pruritis
- significant erythema of vaginal mucosa
- petechia on cervix
these are indicative of what?
A
Trichomonas
20
Q
Strawberry Cervix is assoc with what d/o
A
trichomonas, AKA petechia on cervix
21
Q
how is trichomonas diagnosed
A
Wet prep, with unicellular protozoa spotting
DNA probe
22
Q
Tx trichomonas
A
2g metronidazole PO x1 dose
partner needs treated
23
Q
Is trichomonas reportable
A
no
24
Q
[] is a chromatographic assay for qualitative detection of strep A Ag from throat swab specimen
A
Moorebrand Strep A rapid test-dipstick
25
Moorebrand Strep A Rapid Test-Dipstick is a
a. qualitative
b. quantitative test
a. qualitative
26
describe the MOA of more brand Strep A Rapid Test
chromatographic immunoassay for qualitative detection of strep A Ag from specimens
27
Benefit of using strep A rapid test
it does not require growth of microorganisms like cultures, rapid
28
Moorebrand Strep A is a [] immunoassay to detect strep a
lateral flow
29
[] is coated on the test line region of the moorebrand dipstick
Ab specific to Strep A carbohydrate Ag
30
Strep A has a [] Ag
carbohydrate
31
[] indicates positive strep test result, what is happening on the strip?
red line = positive
throat swab specimen interacts with strep A antibody and will generate red line
*every test has one red "c" (control) line to ensure the test was done properly
32
Important findings on strep test package insert
1. what it is used for
2. how it works
3. precautions while using test
4. storage directions
5. specimen collection and prep
6. directions
7. interpretation of results
8. limitations of test
33
Where would you swab a patient for a strep test?
1. posterior pharynx
2. tonsils
3. other inflamed areas
34
Where should you avoid swabbing during the strep test?
tongue, cheeks, teeth
35
swab specimen can be stored up to [] hours room temp.
8 hours
36
swab specimen must be stored [] hours 2-8 degrees celsius
72 hours
37
[] is the larges endocrine gland
thyroid
38
the thyroid is enclosed by []
CT capsule
39
TRH full name, what secretes this hormone?
Thyroid Releasing Hormone
Hypothalamus
40
TSH full name and secreting organ
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
Pituitary (stimulated to release by TRH)
41
T4 full name and secreting organ
Thyroxine
secreted by thyroid gland (stimulated by TSH)
42
T3 full name and secreting organ
Triiodothyronine
secreted by thyroid (stimulated by TSH)
43
Describe T3 and its role
ACTIVE hormone, stimulates metabolism
44
Describe reverse T3
inactive hormone
45
[] is secreted from the thyroid and is converted to [] for activation
1. T4
| 2. T3
46
[] is converted into T3
T4
47
low concentration of [] in blood regulates release of TSH
T4, T3
48
T3, T4 are high
what does this mean for TSH?
low
49
T4 and T3 are low
what does this mean for TSH?
high
*unless secondary (pituitary) thyroid d/o, then it would be low as well*
50
Describe TBG and its role
Thyroxine Binding Globulin
Carrier protein for T4
51
[] forms of thyroid hormones are biologically active
free, i.e. not bound to carrier protein
52
[] thyroid hormone is transported more easily
T3
53
T4 and T3 circulate in [] and [] forms
1. free
| 2. bound
54
[] thyroid hormone has more metabolic activity
T3
55
80% T4-T3 conversion occurs in the []
liver and other organs
56
20% T4-T3 conversion occurs in the []
thyroid
57
only [] thyroid hormones have metabolic activity
free
58
Thyroid dysfunction usually occur as [] disorders of the []
1. primary
| 2. thyroid gland
59
[] is the most sensitive thyroid screening for thyroid abnormalities?
why?
TSH
because most problems arise from thyroid gland itself (primary [increase or decrease T4, T3]) both of which will have a direct impact on the secretion of TSH
60
what is the first-line thyroid abnormality test?
TSH
61
Free T4 measures what?
unbound T4 in serum
62
what is the most accurate reflection of functional state of thyroid?
serum free T4
63
What does total serum T4 measure
BOTH bound and free T4
64
most T3 is []
bound
65
[] is primarily used as an indicator of hyperthyroidism and its severity
T3
66
What thyroid test is generally not a reliable indicator of thyroid function on its own?
T3
67
[] is the last test to become abnormal
T3
68
Free T3 measures what
the fraction of T3 that is not bound and is circulating in blood stream
69
Free T3 is usually done to r/o what?
T3 thyrotoxicosis
70
What combination most accurately determines how the thyroid is functioning
TSH + T4
71
Elevates TSH, Low T4 is indicative of what?
primary hypothyroidism
72
Low TSH with Low T4 is indicative of what
secondary hypothyroidism, problem at level of pituitary
73
name some thyroid Ab
1. Thyroid Peroxidase AB
| 2. Thyroglobulin Ab
74
What diseases are thyroid Ab commonly found in?
1. Grave's
| 2. Hashimoto's
75
[] detects the ability of thyroid to trap iodine and produce thryroid hormone
RAIU I123
76
Describe RAIU I123
it detects the ability of thyroid to trap iodine and produce thyroid hormone
77
RAIU I123 tests for what?
intrinsic function of thyroid gland
78
Describe RAIU I123 test
1. patient swallows RAIU I123 in the form of capsule or fluid
2. absorption of thyroid is studied after 4-6 hours and after 24 hour with aid of scintillation counter
79
A scintillation counter is used in what test?
RAIU I123
80
What is a normal RAIU I!123 rest result
15-25%
81
a patients RAIU I123 test shows 15-25% uptake
what can you conclude about this patient
they are euthyroid, showing normal results
82
a low RAIU uptake suggests what
hypothyroidism, thyroiditis
83
high RAIU uptake suggests what
Grave's disease, thyrotoxicosis
84
[] secretes calcitonin
thyroid gland
85
What is the role of calcitonin
1. regulate osteoblast activity
2. lower serum calcium (trap in bone)
3. increase serum phospate
4. oppose PTH
86
[] is secreted when serum calcium is high
calcitonin
87
[] helps regulate water balance in the body by controlling the amount of water the kidneys reabsorb while filtering waste out of blood
ADH
88
ADH regulates water balance by what mechanism?
controlling the amount of water the kidneys reabsorb while filtering waste out of blood
89
low ADH is assoc with what disease
DI
90
High ADH is assoc with what diease
SIADH
91
[] works with GH to promote normal bone and tissue growth
IGF-1
92
[] is primarily produces in liver, skeletal muscle, and tissues in response to GH secretion
IGF-1
93
Where is IGF-1 produced?
liver, skeletal muscle, tissues
in response to GH
94
[] mediates the action of GH and stimulates growth of bones and other tissues, promotes production of muscle mass
IGF-1
95
Describe the role of IGF-1
Mediate the action of GH
stimulate growth of bones and other tissues, promote production of muscle mass
96
[] plays a role in non growth and lipid metabolism
IGF-1
97
[] has been implicated in metabolic syndrome
IGF-1
98
What can cause IGF-1 and GH deficiency
1. dysfunctional pituitary gland with decreased pituitary hormones
2. non-Gh producing pituitary adenoma due to damage or GH producing cells
3. lack of responsiveness to GH
99
IGF and GH excess is often due to []
pituitary adenoma, slow growing, benign tumor
100
[] can lead to enlarged organs, heart, liver, kidney, spleen, thyroid, parathyroid, pancrease
Gigantism/acromegaly
101
[] has an increased rx DM2, CVD, HTN, arthritis, cancer
giantism/acro
102
[] helps regulate blood levels of calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium
vitamin D
103
What is the role of vitamin D
regulate blood levels calcium, phosphorus, magnesium
influence growth and differentiation of many other tissues to help regulate immune system
104
rickets occurs in []
children, due to lack of vit D
105
osteomalacia occurs in []
adults due to lack vit dD
106
without [] bones will be soft, malformed, and unable to repair themselves normally
vitamin D
107
rickets and osteomalacia is caused from what?
lack vitamin D
rickets= children
osteomalacia=adults
108
[] influences growth and differentiation of many other tissues to help regulate immune system
vit D
109
What 2 body systems van be influenced by Vit D levels?
1. immune
| 2. musculoskeletal
110
Who is at risk for lack of vit d?
1. older adults
- institutionalized
- home-bound
- limited sun exposure
2. obese
3. s/p gastric bypass sx
4. fat malabsorption
5. darker skin
6. breast fed
111
25(OH)D is what
25- hydroxyvitamin D
major circulating form vitamin D
112
[] is the major form circulating vitamin D
25-hydroxyvitamin D
113
[] is the best indicator of vitamin D supply to body from cutaneous synthesis and nutritional intake
total serum 25(OH)D
114
what are two ways for patients to get vitamin D
1. cutaneous synthesis
| 2. nutritional intake
115
What is the reference range 25(0H)D
25-80 ng/mL
116
What hormones does the adrenal medulla secrete?
what are they for?
Catecholamines, epinephrine, norepinephrine
fight or flight
117
What three hormones does the adrenal cortex secrete
1. Glucocorticoids (cortisol)
2. Mineral corticoids (aldosterone)
3. Sex hormones (testosterone)
118
What are the most common causes Addison's
1. Autoimmune
most common in western world
2. infectious TB
more common world wide
119
what labs would you draw on a patient you suspect to have addison's
1. AM cortisol
| 2. ACTH stimulation test
120
< 10 mg/dL in an AM cortisol test suggests what?
cortisol deficiency
121
<3 mg/dL in an AM cortisol test suggests what
is DIAGNOSTIC of addison's
122
Decreased AM cortisol points to []
adrenal insufficiency
123
Describe an ACTH stimulation test
250 mg of ACTH is administered IV or IM
serum cortisol measured 30-60 minutes later
124
What is a normal ACTH stimulation test result
peak of 18-20mg/dL or more
125
after an ACTH stimulation test, the patients cortisol is
18-20 mg/dL
what does this indicate?
cortisol adequacy, normal
126
after an ACTH stimulation test, the patient's cortisol is < 18 mg/dL
what does this indicate
diagnostic of addisons, cortisol insufficiency
127
Hypersecretion of cortisol leads to []
high glucose
128
Cushing's is usually caused by
ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma
129
What labs would you draw if you suspect your patient has cushing's
1. late-night salivary cortisol
| 2. Dextromathason suppression test or 24 hour urinary free cortisol (to confirm salivary cortisol)
130
Describe the late-night salivary cortisol test
1. patient collects saliva with swab or drools into collection tube between 11-12am
131
What is a positive late-night salivary cortisol test?
value greater than upper limit of normal
normal results vary depending on assay and clinical lab used
132
A positive late-night salivary test needs to be confirmed with []
dexamethasone suppression test or 24 hours urinary free cortisol
133
[] is the easiest screening for Cushing's
Dexamethasone suppression test
134
Describe dexamethasone suppression tes
dexa. 1 mg given orally at 11 pm, serum collected for cortisol determination at 8 am next morning
135
[] regulates mineral balance of K and Na
How?
aldosterone
1. Na reabsorbtion
2. K excretion
by adding Na/K pumps in kidney (solon, sweat, and salivary glands)
136
[] plays a central role in regulating BP
aldosterone (ADH too)
137
What are some functions aldosterone
1. regulate mineral balance between K and Na
2. BP regulation
3. reduce loss Na when sweating
4. Increase sensitivity of tastebuds to Na
138
1. HTN
2. Hypokalemia
signs of what?
hyperaldosteronism
139
1. facial flushing
2. visual impairment
3. weakness
these are signs of what?
HTN
140
1. contipation
2. polyuria
3. polydipsia
4. weakness
these are signs of what?
Hypokalemia
141
1. facial flushing
2. visual impairment
3. weakness
4. polyuria
5. polydipsia
6. constipation
these are signs of what?
patient suffering from HTN and hypokalemia due to hyperaldosteronism
HTN: facial flushing, visual impairment, weakness
Hypokalemia: polyuria, polydipsia, weakness, constipation
142
How would you obtain accurate labs on a patient you suspect to have hyperaldosteronism
have patient consume diet high in NaCl (>6 g per day)
and hold certain medications
then test aldosterone levels in blood
143
high aldosterone to renin suggests []
primary hyperaldosteronism
144
if a patients blood work is showing high aldosterone to renin, what is the next step?
confirm diagnosis with 24-hour urine, aldosterone, cortisol, creatinine
145
In a patient you suspect hyperaldosteronism, what should you check for in their urine?
1. aldosterone
2. cortisol
3. creatinine
146
aldosterone > 20 mcg/24 h is indicative of what
it confirms hyperaldosteronism
147
Urine with 55nmol/24 h concentration of aldosterone suggests what
hyperaldosteronism
148
[] is the main function cortisol
controlling glucose homeostasis
149
cortisol does what in the liver
increase glucose production
150
cortisol does what in the muscle
break down
151
cortisol does what in the bone
inhibit bone formation and collagen synthesis
152
cortisol does what in the immune system
provide anti-inflammatory response
153
cortisol does what to the vasculature
modulate reactivity to vasoactive substances, like angiotensin II and norephinephrine
154
when are cortisol levels the highest
4-5 am, vial circadian rhythm from diurnal variation
155
[] is an effective way to measure glucose over long periods of time
HbA1c
156
A1c measures what
the amount of Hb that attached to blood glucose (glycosylated Hb)
157
[] measures the amount of glycosylated Hb (Hb attached to blood glucose)
A1C
158
[] is high when you blood sugar is high
HbA1c
159
How often do you check a HbA1c
3-4 months
160
What pathological states can cause glucose to rise?
1. diabetes (most common)
2. disease
- cushing's
- pancreatitis
3. severe illness
4. steroids/medication
161
[] is the most common cause of an increase in blood glucose
diabetes I and II
162
[] is the most common endocrine d/o
diabetes
163
[] is an endocrine d/o in which insulin does not appropriately regulate blood glucose levels
diabetes
164
[]% americans have DM, []% unaware
1. 13
| 2. 40
165
DM [] is where the body doesn't produce inulin
DM I
less common, more severe
166
DM [] is where the body becomes insensitive to insulin
DM II
167
[] diabetes appears after childbirth
gestational
168
describe oral glucose tolerance test
1. patient fasts 8-12 hours
2. blood drawn to establish fasting glucose
3. patient drinks 75g carb sugary drink
4. blood drawn at various intervals to measure glucose levels
- usually 1-2 hours after beverage is consumed
169
for 75 grams of glucose, normal values at 1 hr are (during OGTT)
less than 200 mg/dL
170
for 75 grams glucose, normal values after 2 hrs of OGTT are
140 mg/dL
171
for 75 grams glucose in OGTT
140-200 mg/dL indicates what
impaired glucose tolerance, pre-diabetes
172
for 75 grams glucose
>200 mg/dL indicates what
diabetes
173
pregnancy alters a women's ability to []
metabolize blood sugar
174
what is recommended for all expectant mothers?
oral glucose tolerance test
check for gestational diabetes, recommended by american diabetes assoc
175
When is the OGTT done during pregnancy
24th- 28th week
176
for a 50g OGTT, [] is a normal value after 1 hr
1 hour < 140 mg/dL
pregnant mothers start with 50 g
177
what happens if a pregnant patient fails the 50g OGTT
she will take a 100g OGTT
178
[] is a normal value of fasting before OGTT
< 95 mg/dL
*anything above indicated gestational diabetes
179
[] is a normal value after 1 hr of 100 g OGTT
< 180 mg/dL
| *anything above indicates GD
180
[] is a normal value after 2 hours of 100g OGTT
< 155 mg/dL
| *anything above indicates GD
181
[] is a normal value after 2 h of 100g OGTT
< 140 mg/dL
*anything above indicated GD
182
[] is used to describe patients who do not meet the criteria for diabetes but have a fasting plasma glucose levels in excess of normal
prediabetic patients
183
pre diabetic patients have one of 2 things
1. impaired fasting glucose
| 2. impaired glucose tolerance
184
what is IFG
impaired fasting glucose
185
what is IGT
impaired glucose tolerance
186
FPG [] is normooglycemic
< 100 mg/dL
187
2hr GTT [] is normoglycemic
< 140 mg/dL
188
< 100 mg/dl FPG indicates what
normoglycemia
189
< 140 mg/dL in 2 hr GTT indicates what
normoglycemia
190
[] used for intermediated stage between normoglycemia and DM, included IFG and IGT
prediabetes
191
100 < FPG < 126 indicates
prediabetes
192
140 < GTT < 200 indicates
prediabetes
193
[] represents any level of glucose intolerance initially recognized during pregnancy
gestational diabetes
194
what are some complications of GD
1. Macrosomia
2. intrauterine fetal demise
3. pulmonary immaturity
195
macrosomia means what? What d/o is this assoc with this
birth weight > 9 lbs ( 4,000 g)
| assoc. with GD
196
[] weeks after the end of a pregnancy complicated with GD, the provider should do what?
1. 6 weeks
| 2. bring patient back to be re-tested
197
[]% chance of a mother with GD developing diabetes in []yrs
1. 50%
| 2. 7-10 years
198
What is diagnostic criteria for DM2
1. Fasting plasma glucose >/= 126
2. 2 hr PP >/= 200
3. HbA1C >/= 6.5%
4. symptoms and random glucose level >/= 200
199
a FPG >/= 126 indicates what
DM 2
200
a 2 hr PP >/=200 indicates what
DM2
201
a HB1AC >=/ 6.5% indicates what
DM2
202
symptoms + RGL >/= 200 indicates
DM2
203
2 hr pp after glucose load < 140 indicates what
euglycemia, normal
204
Hb1ac < 5.7 indicates
euglycemia, normal
205
HB1AC 5.7-6.4%
pre diabetes
206
FPG < 100 indicates
euglycemia, normal
207
2 h PP after glucose load >/= 140-199 indicates
impaired glucose tolerance, prediabetes
208
FPG 100-125 is indicative of
prediabetes
209
What produces insulin
beta cells of islets of langerhands in pancreas
210
what prompts insulin to be produces
presence of glucose in blood
211
[] is a gateway transporter of glucose from blood into cells
insulin
212
What can insulin levels be used to dx
1. insulinoma
2. undiagnosed/untreated DM2
3. other endocrine disease with high glucose content
213
[] is produced with proinsulin senses glucose and breaks down
c peptide
proinsulin breaks down into c peptide and insulin
214
what does proinsulin breakdown into?
C peptide and insulin
215
describe c peptide
it is a byproduct of the breakdown on endogenous proinsulin into
insulin
and c peptide
216
when proinsulin senses [] it breaks down into [] and []
1. glucose
2. insulin
3. c peptide
217
What is the main use of C peptide
evaluate hypoglycemia
218
in [] there is minimal c peptide
DM1, may not be any at all because almost no endogenous insulin/proinsulin is being made
219
in [] c peptide may be high
DM2
220
a blood sugar of 70-140 indicates what?
normal range
221
BG =/< 70 indicates
hypoglycemia alert (level 1)
low for treatment with fast acting carb. and dose adjustment for glucose lowering therapy
222
BG < 54 indicates
clinically significant hypoglycemia (level 2)
hypoglycemia, sufficiently low to indicate serious, clinically important hypoglycemia
223
[] assoc with severe cognitive impairment requiring external assistance for recovery
severe hypoglycemia level 3
224
Describe level 1 hypoglycemia
=/< 70
| low for treatment with fast acting carb. and dose adjustment for glucose lowering therapy
225
Describe level 2 hypoglycemia
/=< 54
hypoglycemia, sufficiently low to indicate serious, clinically important hypoglycemia
clinically significant
226
Describe level 3 hypoglycemia
NOS glucose threshold
| severe cognitive impairment requiring external assistance for recovery
227
[] is the main cause of hypoglycemia
diabetic treatment
228
1. intermittent episodes of sweating
2. tachycardia
3. anxiety
4. dizziness
5. slurred speech
6. double vision
7. confusion
signs hypoglycemia
229
name some signs hypoglycemia
1. intermittent episodes of sweating
2. tachycardia
3. anxiety
4. dizziness
5. slurred speech
6. double vision
7. confusion
230
transient rise in blood glucose during acute illness is called
stress hyperglycemia
231
name 2 reasons why hyperglycemia is commonly seen in hospitalized patients
1. stress hyperglycemia
| 2. undiagnosed diabetes
232
increase in blood glucose in hospitalized patients is assoc with [] and []
1. increased morbidities
| 2. poorer prognosis
233
all hospitals now have policies to monitor [] in all patient population
blood glucose i.e. tight glycemic control
234
How do hospitals maintain tight glycemic control?
1. check BG upon admission
2. inpatient hyperglycemia = RBG >200 and fasting >126
3. manage with IV or SQ insulin algorithm
4. have diabetic patients (type II) d/c oral anti diabetic drugs
235
what is considered hyperglycemic in a hospital patient?
x> 200 RBG
| x > 126 FBG
236
in a patient who is critically ill and a surgical patient, what is the BG goal
110
237
in a patient who is critically ill non surgical what is the BG goal
< 126
238
in a patient who is non critally ill in the hospital, what is the BG goal (fasting and random)
fasting < 126
| random < 180-200
239
[] is a syndrome where insulin deficiency and glucagon excess combine to yield dehydration, acidosis, elevated blood glucose and electrolyte abnormalities
DKA
240
What is assoc with DKA
1. dehydration
2. acidosis
3. elevated blood glucose electrolyte abnormalities
241
What is a DKA triad?
1. Hyperglycemia > 250
2. ketosis
3. metabolic acidosis pH<7.3
242
a patient presents with BG > 250, what should be on your radar?
DKA
243
What pH is assoc with DKA
pH < 7.3
244
What bicarb would you expect to see in a DKA patient
< 15
245
What would be present in a DKA patient's urine
glucose, ketones
246
What is the elctorlye situation with a DKA patient
Na LOW
K High
(follows sugar and sugar is in blood)
247
why is serum K high in a DKA patient
because K follows sugar and sugar is in blood
248
how is a DKA patient treated
1. ICU admission
2. Hourly: blood glucose, K, EKG, urine output, ABG
3. fluid! NS then change to D5 to prevent hypoglycemia once K is normal
4. INSULIN
249
What needs checked hourly in a DKA patient
1. blood glucose
2. K
3. EKG
4. urine output
5. ABG
250
describe Hyperosmolar/Hyperglycemic syndrome
severe dehydration form sustained hyperglycemic diuresis
251
[] severe dehydration from sustained hyperglycemic diuresis
hyperosmolar/hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS)
252
What usually causes HHS
diabetic patients who are not able to drink enough
253
BUN and serum creatinine are markedly increased in what?
HHS
254
a glucose of 600+ indicates what?
HHS
255
High serum osmolality indicates what?
HHS (hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome)
256
what labs would you expect to see in a HHS patient
1. increased BUN and creatinine
2. Glucose 600+
3. high serum osmolality
257
how is serum osmolality calculated
(2Na + glucose)/18
258
what are some other names for HHS
1. HONC
hyperosmolar non-ketonic syndrome
2. HHNS
hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome
2. HHNC
hyperglycemic hyperosmolar non ketotic coma
259
random plasma glucose is commonly measured from
venipuncture
260
[] a measure of glucose in blood at any given time, usually from fingerstick
what is a normal range
RBG/BG/BD
72-140 mg/dL
261
[] is a measure of glucose in the blood in a patient who has not eaten in the last 8 hours, commonly from fingersitck
what is a normal range
FBG
70-100
262
[] is a measure of glucose in the plasma at any given time, commonly from venupuncture
what is a normal range?
random plasma glucose
72-140
263
[] is the measure of glucose in the plasma in a patient who has been fasting in the last 8 hours, commonly from a venipuncture
what is a normal range?
FPG
70-100
264
[] is the average glucose levels in a patient for the last 90 days
what is a normal range?
Hb1AC
=/<5.7%
