Exam I Flashcards
(86 cards)
1
Q
When should a child’s first visit to the dentist be? How is it performed?
A
- 6 months to a year
- With the baby’s head in the doctor’s lap and the parent at the baby’s feet.
2
Q
Is it better for teeth to erupt early or late? Timing isn’t very important with teeth eruption, but what is?
A
- Late
- Symmetrical (both come in at the same time)
3
Q
What is an inflammation/discoloration seen where newly erupting teeth are?
A
Erupting Hematoma
4
Q
What is the order or erupting teeth? *(Mandibular central erupt first)
A
Central Incisors Lateral Incisors First Molars Canines Second Molars
5
Q
How many high risk factors are required to put a child in the high carries risk? **(Be familiar with the chart)
A
Just one
6
Q
What are two scenarios where radiographs should be taken on an infant?
A
Trauma or Hypo/Hyperdontia
7
Q
When a tooth has been impacted or intruded into the bone due to a fall or accident, what is the range before it will not erupt on its own?
A
4-5 mm
8
Q
When a fracture occurs and the fragment piece can not be located or accounted for, what should be done?
A
Take a radiograph
9
Q
At what age should an orthodontic exam be done?
A
Age 7
10
Q
DNA is packaged into X looking things called? What make up Chromosomes? What proteins tightly coil Chromatin into Chromosomes? What is the middle point of a Chromosome called? What are the names of the short arms on a Chromosome called? Long arm? The nucleus of human cells contain how many chromosomes? What amount are autosomes and sex chromosomes? What are the male and female chromosomes?
A
- Chromosomes
- Chromatin
- Histones
- Centromere
- Short: P-Arm
- Long: Q-Arm
- 46 Chromosomes (23 from mom, 23 from dad)
- 22 autosomes, 1 pair sex chromosomes
- XX Female, XY Male
11
Q
Mitosis vs Meiosis?
A
http://www.diffen.com/difference/Meiosis_vs_Mitosis
12
Q
What are the names of the organelles that migrate to opposite ends of the cells? At the middle of Chromosomes are Centromeres, what do the microtubule fibers from the Centrosomes connect to at the Centromeres?
A
- Centrosomes
- Kinetochores
13
Q
In the cell cycle DNA duplication occurs during which phase? Mitosis occurs during which phase? The G1, G2 and S phase make up what?
A
- S Phase
- M Phase
- Interphase
14
Q
Phases of Mitosis and Meiosis?
A
- Picture online
15
Q
What are the differences between DNA and RNA?
A
• DNA: Deoxyribonucleic Acid
– Double Helix – 2 chains of
nucleotides.
– Four bases: Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Guanine
– A pairs with T and C pairs with G
• RNA: Ribonucleic Acid
– Is typically single stranded
– Is needed for protein
synthesis and DNA replication.
– Four bases: Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Uracil
– A pairs with U and G pairs with C
16
Q
What type of mutation has no impact on the DNA sequence? What type of mutation which change a DNA sequence and often impact the associated function?
A
- Silent mutations
- Missense mutations
17
Q
What is a type of cancer/tumor that has spread from the primary site of origin into different area(s) of the body? A mutation in ________ allows cancer cells to continue growing and accumulating, forming a tumor.
A
- Metastatic cancer/tumor.
- A mutation in a tumor suppressor gene
18
Q
What are some general signs and symptoms associated with, but not specific to, oral cancer? Most often these symptoms are caused by other, less serious medical problems, but if any symptoms last for _________ weeks or longer, you should begin to be suspicious?
A
A mouth sore that doesn’t heal, an area in your mouth that becomes discolored and stays that way, a lump or thickening in your cheek that doesn’t go away, a sore throat that doesn’t go away, voice changes, numbness in your tongue or another part of your mouth, pain or irritation in the mouth that doesn’t go away, unexplained weight loss, swelling in your jaw, the constant feeling that something is caught in your throat.
- Two weeks or longer
19
Q
What are the 6 stages of tumor portion of the (TNM) system? *(Chart)
A
• Primary Tumor (T):
– T 0 or T is: - Carcinoma in situ.
• An early stage cancer, meaning that the disease is still localized, or contained within the top layers of cells lining the oral cavity and oropharynx.
• Cancer cells have not invaded the deeper layers of oral or oropharyngeal tissue.
– T1: tumor is 2 cm across or
smaller.
– T2: tumor is larger than 2 cm
across, but smaller than 4 cm.
– T3: tumor is larger than 4 cm
across.
– T4 is divided into two subgroups
• T4a: the tumor is growing into nearby structures. At this stage, the oral cancer is called a moderately advanced local disease. – The areas to which cells have spread vary according to the type of oral cancer.
• T4b: the tumor has grown through nearby structures and into deeper areas or tissues. – At this stage, the cancer is called very advanced local disease.
20
Q
What are the 5 stages of regional lymph node portion of the (TNM) system? *(Chart)
A
– N1: the cancer has spread to one lymph
node on the same side of the head or neck
as the primary tumor. – This lymph node is smaller than 3 cm.
• N2a: the oral cancer has spread to one
lymph node on the same side as the primary
tumor, and the lymph node measures 3–6
cm across.
• N2b: the oral cancer has spread to 2 or
more lymph nodes on the same side as the
primary tumor. No lymph nodes are larger
than 6 cm across.
• N2c: the oral cancer has spread to one or
more lymph nodes on both sides of the neck
or on the side opposite the primary tumor.
No lymph nodes are larger than 6 cm
across.
- N3: the cancer has spread to a lymph node
that measures more than 6 cm across.
across.
21
Q
What are the 2 stages of the distant metastasis portion of the (TNM) system? *(Chart)
A
– M0 – No metastasis
– M1 – The oral cancer has spread to distant sites outside the head and neck region (for example, the lungs, liver or bones).
22
Q
What is the difference between ‘n’ and ‘N’ in genetics?
A
- Ploidy (n): Refers to the number of full, single set(s) of chromosomes in a cells
nucleus, not including duplicated DNA set(s) in the nucleus. - N number: Refers to the number of full, single set(s) of chromosomes including duplicated DNA sets in the nucleus.
23
Q
Immature gametes are produced from the _______ _____ cells, and are _______ _____, and are called what?
A
- Primordial germ
- Diploid 2N
- Spermatogonia (males) and Oogonia (females)
24
Q
What is the is the development and production of male and female mature gametes?
A
- Gametogenesis
25
How does Down Syndrome occur? What are some side effects from Down Syndrome? This can also happen on chromosome 14 attachment, if this happens it's called what?
- If a gamete with two copies of chromosome
21 fuses with a normal gamete, the
resulting trisomy 21 embryo may survive
and this condition is referred to as Down
syndrome. (Also known as Nondisjunction)
- Hypodontia, Tongue appears large due to midface deficiency (Not true macroglossia), Small stature, hyper flexibility of joints, mouth breathing, Fissured tongue, Angular Cheilitis, Delayed tooth eruption and abnormal eruption patterns are common, Class III occlusion, severe periodontal disease and cardiac abnormalities.
- Robertsonian Translocation
26
What is it is called when a cell contains an incorrect number of chromosomes? What is a condition in which cells within the same person have a different genetic makeup? What does it mean when the gene for a trait are expressed in all the population who have the gene? What does it mean when the genetic trait is expressed in only part of the population, and that appears to be what happens in the variability with trisomy 21? What is it when males have an extra X chromosome in most of their cells? What results when one normal X chromosome is present in a female's cells and the other sex chromosome is missing or structurally altered?
- Aneuploidy
- Mosaicism
- Complete Penetrance
- Incomplete penetrance
- Klinefelter syndrome (Possible crowding, Growth abnormalities, and Taurodaontism)
- Turner syndrome (extra folds of skin on the
neck, early loss of ovarian function, heart
defect, normal intelligence, SHOX gene)
27
A man by the name Buonocore created the first type of etch, what did he use for this? Currently ________ resins are the most popular, they were developed by a man named Bowen.
- 85% phosphoric acid
| - Bis-GMA Resins
28
Why are sealants generally not done on pediatric patients? If a sealant is needed but there are signs of slight decay, what technique can be used? ________ have been shown to be ineffective as a sealant?
- Too small of pits/fissures.
- Minimal-Enameloplasty technique
- Glass-Ionomer
29
What are the 8 steps to applying a sealant? Applying a resin?
1. Identify tooth
2. Clean with rotary brush
3. Etch
4. Clean/Dry
5. Apply bond
6. Apply sealant
7. Polymerize
8. Check occlusion
- Basically the same just use resin instead of sealant.
30
What are the 6 classes of carries restorations? **(If tooth has 3+ surfaces, should consider a full coverage)
```
Class 1: Occlusal surface
Class 2: Inter-proximal (Posterior teeth)
Class 3: Inter-proximal (Anterior teeth)
Class 4: Tip of anterior teeth
Class 5: Cervical
Class 6: Cusp
```
31
Pediatric full coverage crowns are custom fitted?
- False, they are pre-made and then conformed to the patients mouth.
32
Starting at the ___ cell stage, the zygote subdivides without increasing its size (cleavage). How does it do this? At this stage, a blastomere can be removed for patients with _______ age and a high risk of transmitting a ________/_______ in patients interested in In-Vitro Fertilization. What is this process called?
- 8 Cell Stage
- Blastomeres flaten, the outer surfaced cells become convex and the inner surfaced cells become concave.
- Increased Age
- Disease/Mutation
- Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis.
33
After cleavage of the Zygote, what happens next? What are the two layers of the bilaminar disc called? This blastocyst then becomes a _________ and implants the blastocyst into the uterine wall? This then begins to form what? As cells continue to proliferate in the amniotic cavity, what is formed? What cells are found within this sac? It is at this point that the Primitive Streak appears in the ________?
- Becomes a blastocyst which splits into two layers forming a bilaminar disc.
- Epiblast (Ectoderm), Hypoblast (Endoderm)
- Syncytiotrophoblast
- The Amniotic Cavity
- Definitive Yolk Sac
- Primordial Germ Cells
- Epiblast (Ectoderm)
34
After the Primitive Streak forms, flattened cells begin to migrate into the space between the Epiblast and the Hypoblast in a process called what? This migration at the primitive streak then gives rise to the Intraembryonic Mesoderm. What does the Intraembryonic Mesoderm give rise to? These cells then migrate more and give rise to the Prechordal Plate, what does this give rise to? As this continues to progress it forms the Neural Plate, what forms from here? Neuroepithelium also forms here which leads to what?
- Gastrulation
- Somitomeres: Vertebral column, skeletal musculature, tendons, bone, cartilage and dermis.
- Forms the mouth opening.
- Broad portion: The brain and Narrow portion: The spinal chord.
- Central Nervous System
35
What are the defects of closure of the vertebral arches and neural tubes, and what does each mean?
- Brain: Anencephaly (Neural Tube failure to close) and Encephalocele (Skull doesn't close completely)
- Spinal Cord: Spina Bifida (Neural tube failure to close and lack of fusion in the vertebral arches)
36
There are 3 types of Spina Bifida (Myelomeningocele, Meningocele, and Occulta), what makes these different?
- Myelomeningocele: Most serious type, involves a sac of fluid through the opening where spinal cord and nerves are damaged. Causes moderate to severe disabilities.
- Meningocele: Sac of fluid once again, but the spinal cord is not in the sac and so little/no nerve damage occurs. Causes minor disabilities.
- Occulta: Mildest type with a small gap but no opening or sac. Spinal cord and nerves are usually normal and does not cause any disabilities.
37
How many pharyngeal paired arches are there? The pharyngeal arches have ___________ _____________epithelium around the outside of the arches, while the interior of the arches is _________ _________ __________. What do each of these produce?
- 5 (1,2,3,4,6) *5 short lived
- Somatic Mesoderm Epithelium
- Neural Crest Mesenchyme
- Somatic Mesoderm: Aortic Arch (Arch Artery) in each arch.
- Neural Crest Mesenchyme: Bone, nervous tissue, cartilage and connective tissue in each arch.
38
What does the 1st pharyngeal arch divide into? Where does Maxillary Cartilage, Alisphenoid and the Incus come from? Where does mandibular cartilage (Meckel's) and the Malleus come from?
- 1st: Maxillary Process and Mandibular Process
- Neural Crest Cells: Max. Cartilage, Incus and Alisphenoid (orbital wall bone).
- Neural Crest Cells: Meckel's Cartilage and Malleus.
39
What gives rise to the muscles of mastication (Mass., Tempo., Petery.,Tensor, Mylo., Digastric)? Tympanic Membrane? Maxilla, Mandible, Zygomatic Arch? Innervation of the Maxillary and Mandibular Arch (Trigeminal Nerve)?
- Somatic Mesoderm of the 1st Pharyngeal arch.
- First Pharyngeal Membrane
- Neural Crest Mesenchyme of the 1st Pharyngeal arch.
- Neural Plate/Neural Crest Cells
40
What gives rise to the Stapes, Styloid Process, Styloid Hyoid, Lesser horn of the hyoid and upper rim of hyoid? Muscles of Facial Expression? Facial Nerve?
- 2nd Pharyngeal Arch
- Somatic Mesoderm of 2nd Arch
- Neural Plate/Neural Crest Cells of the 2nd Arch
41
What gives rise to the Larynx? What gives rise to the Laryngeal branches/nerves and the Vagus nerve? Heart?
- Mesoderm of the 4th and 6th Arch.
- 4th and 6th
- 4th and 6th
42
What cranial nerves are associated with which Pharyngeal Arch?
- 1st Arch: Trigeminal (CN V)
- 2nd Arch: Facial (CN VII)
- 3rd Arch: Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
- 4th Arch: Superior Vagus (CN X)
- 6th Arch: Recurrent Vagus (CN X)
43
What develops into the Eustacian Tube and Middle ear cavity? Palatine Tonsil? Inferior Parathyroid Glands? Thymus? Thyroid Gland? What do the Thyroid glands secrete?
- 1st Pharyngeal Pouch
- 2nd Pharyngeal Pouch
- Dorsal 3rd Pouch
- Ventral 3rd Pouch
- Midline Thyroid Diverticulum Endoderm (NOT a pharyngeal pouch)
- Calcitonin (Inhibits osteoclasts, increases bone and lowers blood Ca levels)
44
What Thyroid disease involves deficient mental/physical development, short/wide face, underdeveloped mandible, overdeveloped maxilla, large tongue, delayed tooth eruption and short/thickened bones?
What Thyroid disease involves weight loss, anxiety/irritability, heat problems (sweating), chest pain, short of breath, muscle weakness, goiter, bulging eyes?
What Thyroid disease involves enlargement of the thyroid gland usually due to iodine efficiency and hyper/hypo thyroid problems?
- Creatinism (Hypothyroidism)
- Graves Disease (Hyperthyroidism)
- Goiters
45
What is due to abnormal development of the 3rd and 4th brachial pouches, can result in ectopic or absent parathyroid (Decreased PTH which disrupts Calcium, Phosphorus and Vitamin D)/Thyroid tissue (Bone/Kidney problems), causes learning/mental problems, causes autoimmune disorders, cleft palate/cleft lip and is caused by deletion in the long arm of chromosome 22? This also can cause a major heart problem called what?
- DiGeorge Syndrome
| - Tetralogy of Fallot (Stenosis, hypertrophy, overriding and septal defects)
46
What are the 4 main stages of the Life Cycle of the tooth and what do they do?
- Bud Stage: Initiation, occurs at 6th week. Epithelial thickening that becomes the Dental Lamina at 10 locations per arch.
- Cap Stage: Proliferation of cells, it is during this stage when cysts, odontomas and supernumerary teeth are caused.
- Bell Stage: Histodifferention and Morphodifferentiation, Enamel Organ begins to take shape. Odontoblasts and Ameloblasts form.
- Apposition and Calcification: Enamel and Dentin matrix are deposited. Growth centers have formative cells. Enamel Hypoplasia occurs here.
47
Where do permanent molars an primary teeth arise from? Where do permanent incisors, canines and premolars arise from? If there is congenital a sense of a tooth, at what stage was the development did not occur? What is supernumerary teeth a result of?
- Molars and Primary Teeth: Dental Lamina
- All other permanent: Buds of the primary predecessor (so if predecessor is missing, following tooth will not develop.)
- Bud Stage (Initiation)
- Continual budding of the Enamel Organ
48
Calcification begins with a small ________. These 5 areas of enamel on the teeth then begin to fuse together.
- Nidus or Calcospherites
49
Where does the tongue develop from? The anterior 2/3 of the tongue is developed from which arch, and from what structure? The posterior 1/3 of the tongue is developed from which arch and which structure? What does motor innervation of the tongue come from? What about taste and sensory?
- The Endodermal covering of the floor of the Pharynx
- 1st Pharyngeal Arch, Distal Tongue Buds
- 3rd and 4th Pharyngeal Arch, Hypopharyngeal Eminence. **(The Hypopharyngeal Eminence comes from the Copula which comes from the 2nd arch)
- Hypoglossal Nerve (CN 12)
- Post. 1/3: Glossopharyngeal (CN 9)
- Ant. 2/3:
- Sensory: Trigeminal Nerve (CN 5)
- Taste: Facial Nerve (CN 7)
50
What are 4 important functions of saliva? What is dry mouth? When does tooth damage begin (pH)? At what pH does demineralization start to occur *(this is also called the critical pH)? What are the 2 main things that control the stability of enamel?
- 1. Buffering, 2. Cleansing, 3. Antibacterial, 4. Maintenance of the oral environment (Ca and Phosphate)
- Xerostomia
- 4.5 pH or lower
- 5.5 or greater
- Hydroxyapatite and Fluroapatite
51
What can be used to cause increase release in calcium phosphate and is useful in patients with impaired salivary slow?
- Amorphous Calcium Phosphate (ACP)
52
What does the Parotid Gland develop from? What does Submandibular and Sublingual Glands develop from? What nerve passes through the Parotid gland but does not innervate it, but does innervate the muscles of facial expression? What does innervate the sensory of the parotid gland? Parasympathetic innervation of parotid gland? Sympathetic innervation of parotid gland? Small glands above the oral fissure (lip, checks, hard palate)? Small salivary glands below the oral fissure (lip, checks, tongue, floor of mouth) and sublingual/submandibular glands?
- Ectoderm
- Endoderm
- Facial Nerve: CN 7 (Temporal, Zygomatic, Buccal, Marginal Mandibular and Cervical branches)
- Auriculotemporal nerve of the Mandibular Trigeminal Nerve (CN 5 -V3)
- Parasympathetic: Glossopharyngeal (CN 9)
- Sympathetic: Superior Cervical Sympathetic Ganglion
- Greater Petrosal branch of CN 7 (Facial nerve)
- Chorda Tympani branch of CN 7 (Facial nerve)
53
What is the purpose of the Alveolar Bone? What happens if teeth fail to erupt? What if a tooth is extracted?
- Only to support teeth
- Bone never forms
- Alveolus bone resorbs
54
Tooth development steps: Slides 21-40
- Just read and review
| - Microbiology II study guide
55
What is a relatively rare group of inherited disorders characterized by abnormal enamel formation? Genetically what kind of disease is this? What genes are responsible for this lack of protein tooth development in enamel? This disorder can cause a defect in the amount of enamel or pitted enamel called? Defect in final growth and maturation of enamel crystallites and hypomineralization? Defect in the initial crystallite formation followed by defective growth and hypomineralization?
- Amelogenesis Imperfecta (Soft/Thin and yellow/brown colored enamel)
- X linked autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant condition.
- AMELX, ENAM, MMP20
- Hypoplastic (Pitted/Generalized)
- Hypomaturation
- Hypocalcified
56
What represents a group of hereditary conditions that are characterized by abnormal dentin formation? Genetically, what type of disease is this? Mutations in what gene cause this? What two proteins are effected by this?
- Dentinogenesis Imperfecta
- Autosomal Dominant
- DSPP (Dentin Sialophosphoprotein)
- Dentin Sialoprotien and Dentin Phosphoprotein
57
What is characterized by bones that break for little to no cause and may be seen in conjunction with Dentinogenesis Imperfect? What genes are affected by this and cause a loss in the production of collagen? Clinically how do these teeth appear?
- Osteogenesis Imperfecta
- COL1A1 and COL1A2
- Bulbous crowns, small pulp chambers and shearing of overlying enamel.
58
Vitamin A deficiency, measles, discoloration due to tetracycline's and discoloration due to fluorosis are all examples of what?
- Enamel Defects
59
What are inherited disorders that involve defects in the hair (lack of hair), nails, sweat gland sand teeth (shark-like teeth) *(must have two abnormal features)? **(Although this is genetic, a mutation can cause this in some individuals)
- Ectodermal Dysplasia
60
What are dangerous chemicals and other agents capable of producing embryologic defects if given at a critical time? What are examples of these?
- Teratogens
- Alcohol, Hydantoin, Accutane, Toluene, Cigarettes, Ionizing radiation, Aminopterin, Aspirin, Cytomegalovirus, Dilantin, Rubella virus, Thalidomide, Valium and Vitamin D excess.
61
What are the 5 stages of craniofacial development? What is the most critical period for normal embryological development?
- Germ layer formation.
- Neural tube and oropharynx formation.
- Origins and migration of neural crest cells.
- Formation of organ systems (pharyngeal arches, primary and secondary palate)
- Final differential of tissues.
- First Trimester (12 weeks)
62
What is a birth defect of the brain that effects the development of midline facial features? This is caused by failure of the _________ to divide? What does this cause? In severe cases of Holoprosencephaly Cebocephaly, Hypotelorism, Cyclopia, and Trigonocephally are seen, what do these mean? What is thought to be the cause for this disfunction?
- Holoprosencephaly (HPE)
*(Closely spaced eyes, microcephaly, cleft lip and cleft palate)
- Prosencephalon
- Single-lobed brain structure
– Cebocephaly: Single nostril.
– Hypotelorism: Close-set eyes.
– Cyclopia: Single eye.
– Trigonocephaly: Triangular shaped skull due to Synostosis/Metopic Synostosis.
- Mutations in the Sonic Hedgehog Protein, can also be caused by Alcohol consumption.
63
What is the most common cause of congenital mental retardation in the western world?
- Alcohol
64
What is a mild form of Holoprosencephaly? *(This is the most common cause of preventable mental retardation) What does this effect?
- Fetal Alcohol Synderome (FAS)
- Causes deficiencies in the Neural Plate in midline tissues causing slower growth development, facial abnormalities (small eyes, small nose, small jaw, thin lips) and Central Nervous system problems.
65
Problems with Neural Crest Cell cell origin and migration causes many of the craniofacial abnormalities. Which things specifically cause problems with Crest Cell origin and migration?
- Alcohol
- Thalidomide
- Accutane
- Retinoid Acid
66
What is altered development of neural crest cells and is characterized by a generalized lack of Mesenchymal tissues in the lateral face, which prevents the skull, cheek, jawbones, and ears from developing properly. Can also be born with a cleft palate, potentially life-threatening respiratory problems but have normal intelligence? What is the notch in the lower eyelids that is common with this syndrome? What two dental procedures can be used to help these patients?
- Treacher Collins Syndrome
- Coloboma
- Orthognathic Surgery or Distraction Osteogenesis
67
What typically occur during the final stage of facial development and in the early fetal periods? What are examples of this?
- Craniosynostosis Syndromes
| - Synostosis, Craniosynostosis, Cleidocranial Dysplasia, Apert's Syndrome, Carpenter Syndrome, and Crouzon's Syndrome.
68
What is growth of the cranial vault in response to growth of the brain? What is a form of this that forms a trigonal shaped skull? What form of this results in a prominent frontal bone? What form of this causes bitemporal narrowing and frontal/occipital bossing? What is a type of of this where there is premature closure of the Lambdoid and Coronal Sutures resulting in a high cranium?
- Craniosynostosis
- Metopic Synostosis
- Bilateral Coronal Synostosis
- Sagittal Synostosis
- Acrocephaly
69
What is a syndrome where supernumerary teeth are common, short stature, primary and adult teeth erupt and fall out in unexpected times, does not effect intelligence, and lack of a clavicle? What type of genetic disease is this?
- Cleidocranial Dysplasia
| - Autosomal Dominant
70
What is a syndrome that is caused by Nucleotide alterations that causes amino-acid substitutions, involves Craniosynostosis, Symmetric Syndactyly, wide-set eyes, delayed tooth eruption, and bifid uvula in 30% of individuals? This is a mutation in what receptor and chromosome?
- Apert's Syndrome
| - Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptor 2 (FGFR2) on Chromosome 10
71
What is a rare condition that affects the skull, facial, hands and feet bones? What gene and chromosome are mutated in order to cause this? What type of genetic type mutation is this?
- Carpenter Syndrome
- RAB 23 Gene on chromosome 6
- Autosomal recessive
72
What is premature closure of the lambdoid and coronal sutures, can have extra and short fingers and toes, metal retardation and heart disease? What syndrome is this associated with?
- Acrocephaly
| - Carpenter Syndrome
73
What is the Most frequently occurring member of the Craniosynostosis syndromes, is characterized by underdevelopment of the midface and eyes that bulge from their sockets, is due to prenatal fusion of the superior and posterior sutures of the maxilla, and this fusion continues into the cranium frequently, eyes do not point in the same direction (Strabismus), underdeveloped upper jaw, hearing loss, cleft lip and cleft palate are seen in some, and usually normal intelligence? What gene is effected? What type of genetic disease is this?
- Crouzon's Syndrome
- FGFR2 Gene
- Autosomal Dominant Pattern but can be caused due to a new mutation.
74
When does the first macroscopic morphological development of primary teeth occur? When does calcification of the first permanent molars begin?
- ~11 weeks in Utero
| - ~ 28 weeks in Utero
75
- The ___________ width of the crown of a maxillary central incisor is ___________ then the cervico-Incisal length.
- The length of the from from the cervical to the incisal edge is ________ than the __________ width with a maxillary lateral incisor.
- The canine has a long/slender tapering tooth that is more than ________ the length of the crown.
- The mandibular central incisor is ________ than the maxillary central incisor, but it's ____________ measurement is usually only 1 mm less.
- The outline of the mandibular lateral incisor is similar to that of the central incisor but is somewhat ____________ in all dimensions except _____________.
- In a mandibular canine the crown is slightly ___________ than that of a maxillary canine, and the root may be as much as _______ ___________.
- The greatest dimension of the crown of a maxillary 1st molar is at the _____________ contact areas.
- There is considerable resemblance between the maxillary _____ PRIMARY molar and the maxillary ______ PERMANENT molar.
- What PRIMARY tooth doesn't resemble any of the Permanent teeth?
- The Mandibular second primary molar resembles the _________ just smaller.
- Mesiodistal width, Greater
- Greater, Mesiodistal width
- Twice
- Smaller, Labiolingual
- Larger, Labiolingually
- Shorter, 2 mm shorter
- Mesiodistal
- 2nd, 1st
- Mandibular 1st Primary Molar (L,S)
- First permanent mandibular molar
76
How does numbering work for pediatric teeth?
- 20 teeth, A-J Maxillary and K-T Mandibular
| - 2 molars, 1 canine, 2 incisors per quadrant
77
Characteristics of Teeth in Primary Dentition Crowns (9):
1. The crowns in the primary dentition are shorter relative to the length of the root (i.e., smaller crown: root ratio).
2. The occlusal tables of primary molars are constricted buccolingually and much narrower mesiodistally when compared with those of the permanent molars.
3. Enamel and dentin are thinner compared with permanent teeth.
4. The thickness of the enamel and dentin of primary teeth is approximately half that of permanent teeth.
5. The enamel rod direction in the cervical area is angled occlusally compared with the apical direction in permanent teeth.
6. Crowns of primary teeth are characterized by significant cervical constriction in both the mesiodistal and faciolingual dimensions.
7. The primary molars have a pronounced buccal cervical bulge.
8. The contact areas of primary molars are flat and very broad buccolingually compared with the permanent molars.
9. The crown color of the primary teeth is whiter and a lighter shade.
78
Characteristics of Teeth in Primary Dentition Roots (3):
1. The roots of the primary molars have a greater flare, which accommodates the developing crowns of the succedaneous permanent premolars of the permanent dentition.
2. The mesiodistal width of the roots of primary anterior teeth is much narrower than the crown when compared with those of the permanent anterior teeth.
3. The primary molar roots are relatively longer and more slender, i.e., mandibular molar roots are narrower mesiodistally, maxillary MB and DB roots are narrower mesiodistally, and maxillary palatal roots are narrower buccolingually.
79
Review last few slides for differentiation and sizing for Development of Primary Teeth Lecture
- Slides 47 - END
80
Even the youngest child normally has ____ contradictions for the use of local anesthetic. Strong topical can cause death (T/F)?
- NO
| - True
81
What color is Lidocaine with 1:100,000 Epi? What color is Articaine with 1:100,000 Epi?
- Lido: Red
| - Arti: Gold
82
What is the most conservative guideline that can be applied to all anesthetic formulas in dentistry?
- The rule of 25: 1 cartridge for every 25 lbs of patient weight. *(Very safe would be 1 per every 20 lbs.)
83
To aid children in experiencing less pain during injections, which process should be used and how is it done?
- The 2-stage process: Includes placing a topical gel anesthetic at the injection site for 1 minute, administering 0.5 milliliters of anesthetic solution, waiting 5 minutes, and reinserting the needle at the same location to administer an additional 2.0 mL of the anesthetic over 1 minute.
84
With injections in children it is important to remember what possible post traumatic possibilities?
- Lip/Cheek chewing
- Scratching
- Hematomas
85
Babies should not have fluoride up until what age?
- six months
86
What is the most common chronic childhood disease?
- Tooth Decay
