Exam I Flashcards

(99 cards)

1
Q

What is the technical definition of a drug?

A

any substance that produces a change in function in a living organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is toxicology?

A

study of adverse effects of chemical, physical or biological agents on living organisms and ecosystem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the generic name of Tylenol?

A

Acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the chemical name of Tylenol?

A

N-acetyl-p-aminophenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Therapeutic effect

A

intended physiological effect of the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Indication

A

medical conditions or diseases for which the drug is meant to be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Contraindication

A

conditions for which the drug should NOT be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Caution

A

conditions or types of patients that warrant closer observation for specific side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Side effect

A

unintended effects other than therapeutic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Adverse effect

A

a side effect that is negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Toxic effect/toxicity

A

adverse effect of a drug resulting in drug poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Interaction

A

Drugs, supplements or foods that may alter the effect of the drug, and should not be given at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Site of action

A

where the drug exerts its effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mechanism of action

A

how a drug produces its effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Agonists

A

drugs that bind to a specific receptor and produce an action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antagonists

A

drugs that bind to specific receptors, prohibiting an effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Competitive antagonism

A

when both agonist and antagonist drugs bind to the same receptor and re administered together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is an example of competitive antagonism?

A

treating drug overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the drug action determined by?

A

dose and frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the ceiling effect?

A

maximal response reached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Effective Dose 50 (ED50)?

A

dose necessary to produce half of the maximum response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is ED50 used for?

A

to compare potency of drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Minimum dose

A

smallest amount of a drug that will produce a therapeutic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Maximum dose

A

largest amount of a drug that will produce a desired effect WITHOUT toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Loading Dose
initial high dose used to quickly elevate blood levels of the drug
26
Maintenance dose
dose required to keep the drug blood levels steady in order to maintain desired effect
27
What was the first attempt to protect consumors?
1906 Pure Food and Drug Act
28
1938 Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act
authorized the FDA to demand evidence of safety for new drugs, issue standars for food, and conduct factory inspections
29
1951 FD&C Durham-Humphrey Amendment
defined drugs that could only be purchased with the prescription from a licensed practitioner
30
1958 FD&C Food Additives Amendment
approval of new food additives was required & safety determined by manufacturer before they could be marketed
31
What are exceptions to the food additives amendment?
- substances classified as "generally recognized as safe" | - substances previously approved for use in other food
32
1960 FD&C Color Additives Amendment
all colors must be approved
33
1962 FD&C Kefauver-Harris Amendment
required the use of standard labeling listing adverse reactions and contraindications -also required to prove their drugs' safety and effectiveness
34
1970 Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevent and Control Act
regulate dispensing of drugs that have the potential for abuse ==>5 schedules
35
1994 Dietary Supplements Health & Edu Act
FDA is responsible for taking action against any unsafe dietary supplement product after it reaches the market
36
1996 Food Quality Protection Act
- reinvestigated pesticide tolerance levels | - developed stricter pesticide safety standards
37
What are the 2 requirements every drug must fulfill prior to FDA approval?
1. efficacy | 2. safety
38
Tegretol
- carbamazepine | - causes craniofacial and fingernail deformities
39
Diethylstilbestrol
- synthetic estrogen | - causes vaginal tumors and genital malformations in offspring
40
Phenytoin
- Dilantin | - craniofacial and limb deformities, growth retardation
41
Thalidomide
phocomelia (limb deformities)
42
Warfarin
- coumadin | - facial, cartilage and CNS defects
43
Depakote
heart problems, spina bifida, facial and limb deformities, cleft palate/lip
44
Idiosyncrasy
unique, unusual or unexpected response | ex: sedative causes pt to sleep well into next day
45
Tolerance
decreased response that develops after repeated use
46
Paradoxical
opposite effect from what is expected
47
Dependence
acquired need for a drug
48
What organs are the most susceptible to direct toxicity?
liver kidney lungs
49
What are the two things that are elevated in the blood due to liver damage?
- aspartate transaminase (AST) | - alanine transaminase (ALT)
50
What is elevated in the blood if the there is kidney damage?
blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
51
When is the baby most susceptible to anatomical abnormalities during pregnancy?
during organogenesis | ==>18-55 days
52
Mutagenesis
-drug interacts with DNA ==> damage
53
Clastogenesis
chromosomal damage
54
Aneugenesis
acquisition or loss of complete chromosomes
55
Carcinogenesis
unrestrained cell replication
56
What are the 3 phases of drug activity?
1. pharmaceutic 2. pharmacokinetic 3. pharmacodynamic
57
Pharmaceutic phase
after drug is given and involves disintegration and dissolution of dosage form
58
What affects the pharmaceutic phase?
form of drug | route of administration
59
Pharmacokinetic phase
what happens to the drug as it moves through the body | ==>ADME
60
What does ADME mean?
absorption distribution metabolism excretion
61
What is the most common type of drug absorption method?
passive diffusion
62
What needs to happen to the drug in order to be absorbed?
it needs to be un-ionized | -like dissolves like
63
How does lipid solubility affect absorption?
the more lipid soluble the easier to pass through the cell membranes ==>most are water soluble
64
How does food affect absorption?
food slows absorption
65
Chemical alteration of a drug so that they can be excreted.
detoxification or biotransformation
66
What enzyme is needed for drug metabolism?
cytochrome P450
67
What is done in drug metabolism?
transform drugs from lipid-soluble to water soluble so that it can be excreted in urine
68
Enzyme induction
increase enzymes causing a faster rate of drug metabolism decreasing the duration of drug action
69
Enzyme inhibition
inhibit DMMS enzymes increasing the duration and intensity of the drugs
70
What are common causes of adverse drug interactions?
enzyme induction and enzyme inhibition
71
How does acidic urine alter excretion/resorption of different drugs?
acidic drugs reabsorbed | basic drugs excreted
72
How does alkaline urine alter excretion/resorption of different drugs?
alkaline drugs reabsorbed | acidic drugs excreted
73
Pharmacodynamic phase
action of drugs on living tissue
74
What affects the pharmacodynamic phase?
form of drug and route of administration
75
What are the main types of drug interactions?
1. drugs with other drugs 2. drugs with supplements 3. drugs with food/drinks 4. nutrient depletions
76
What are some examples of drugs that interact with other drugs?
warfarin ACE inhibitors antihistamines
77
How many American adults use dietary supplements on a regular basis?
50%
78
St John's Wort induces what?
inducer of CyP450 | reduce concentration of medications
79
Vitamin K affects which drug?
counteracts coumadin
80
How can you reduce drug-food interactions?
taking medication 1 hour before or 2 hours after eating
81
What should patients taking MAOIs need to avoid?
foods high in tyramine
82
What is St John's Wort used to treat?
anxiety and depression
83
Which drugs induce CYP?
alcohol caffeine St. John's Wort
84
Which drugs inhibit CYP?
echinacea grapfruit peppermint
85
Antibiotics may cause depletion of what nutrient?
vitamin K
86
Poison
substance taken into the body that interferes with normal physiological functions and causes harm
87
Antidote
substance that neutralizes poisons or toxic substances
88
Emetic
agent that induces vomiting
89
Adsorbent
substance that absorbs another substance
90
Gastric lavage
pumping the stomach
91
What is the #1 poisonous killer?
carbon monoxide
92
Which methylxanthine is most toxic?
theophylline
93
Antidote for opiods?
naloxone
94
Antidote for lead?
EDTA
95
Antidote for organophosphates?
atropine and pralidoxime
96
Antidote for warfarin?
vitamin K
97
Antidote for tylenol?
N-acetylcysteine
98
Antidote for benzodiazepines?
flumazenil
99
Antidote for carbamate insecticides
atropine