EXAM II (First impressions, Occlusion, Types of Clinical Examination, Dental materials & their uses) Flashcards

(263 cards)

1
Q

The communications skills needed for patient-centered care include:

  1. Eliciting the patients agenda with ______ (especially early on)
  2. Not _______ the patient
  3. Engaging in ________
A
  1. open-ended questions
  2. interuppting
  3. focused active listening
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2
Q

Learning how to improve communications skills will make you a better dentist enabling:

A

You to better understand the patients needs

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3
Q

As a provider, you need to try and minimizes _____ to mutual understanding

A

Barriers

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4
Q

As a dentist you treat _____ not ____

A

Patients; teeth

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5
Q

The most important tool in dentistry:

A

Communication

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6
Q

What are the five benefits of a good patient-doctor relationship:

A
  1. More likely to follow recommendations
  2. More likely to pay bills on time
  3. More likely to refer others to your practice
  4. Reduces anxiety- both patients and yours
  5. Less likely to sue
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7
Q

Often in dental school its taught that simply providing info is enough to change a patients behavior. Why is this not true?

A
  1. Need to motivate patient
  2. Need to teach/show a patient the VALUE of dentistry
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8
Q

68-70% of medical litigation cases cited ______ as the primary cause

A

communication

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9
Q

What are the outcomes of good communication between patient & dentist? (4)

A
  1. Build trust
  2. Reduces anxiety
  3. Pt & Dr are on same page
  4. Increase patient satisfaction (and therefore your satisfaction)
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10
Q

Having good communication with your patient means that, you have to ______ before you _____ and you pave your way with _____

A

inform; perform; words

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11
Q

Identify the seven tools to effectively communicate with your patient:

A
  1. Body language
  2. Interactions
  3. Proper respect
  4. Patience
  5. Mechanics
  6. Simple written instructions
  7. Ample time
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12
Q

How might you use body language as a tool to effectively communicate with your patient?

A
  1. Have body at same level as patients
  2. Eye contact
  3. Face them while speaking
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13
Q

How can you make your interactions easier as a tool for effectively communicating with a patient?

A
  1. Keep sentences/questions short
  2. Stay on one topic at a time
  3. Use clear terms
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14
Q

What are some ways to offer proper respect to your patient as a tool for effective communication with a patient?

A
  1. Accommodate their requests
  2. Offer them choices (rather than speaking in commands)
  3. Strive to help them maintain their dignity
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15
Q

What are some reasons that may require you to have extra patience with a patient?

A

Due to their age, physical or cognitive difficulties, they may move and speak more slowly

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16
Q

How might you use having patience with a patient as a tool of effective communication?

A

Give them time to speak and move at their own pace

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17
Q

Positive patient communication is NOT ______

A

Rushed

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18
Q

What are some ways to monitor your mechanics as a tool for effective communication?

A
  1. Speak clearly & slowly
  2. Speak louder than usual (w/o yelling)
  3. Enunciate complex words
  4. Use simple language as much as possible
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19
Q

Providing _______ when necessary (post-op instructions / treament plans) is a tool for effective communication

A

simple written instructions

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20
Q

What is a tool of effective communication that can help your patient to feel like a valued partner in the management of their care?

A

Giving your patient ample time to respond or ask questions

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21
Q

What is perceived, not necessarily what transpired:

A

Perception

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22
Q

What is one key to the patients perception of the situation.

A

Organization- remembering how it looks to the patient

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23
Q

_____, ______ & _____ all factor in to how a patients perception on the situation

A

Delivery, Emotion, Body language

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24
Q

What do we mean by “delivery” when talking about patients perception?

Provide some examples:

A

How words are spoken

  • vocal quality
  • tone
  • pitch
  • emphasis
  • volume
  • pause inflection
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25
What are some examples of aspects that contribute to body language?
Stance, posture, gesture, use of space
26
list the three aspects of perception:
1. delivery 2. emotion 3. body language
27
Nonverbal perception is:
Facial/emotional
28
A fake smile is considered a ___ smile A genuine smile is considered a _____ smile
Social; Duchenne
29
A genuine smile involves:
Eye muscles
30
Name of genuine smile person:
Duchenne Du Bolonge
31
- Uh - You know - Right - Okay - Clearing throat - Monotone
Unconscious personal habits: vocal/hearing include
32
Raising eyebrows, fiddling with glasses, hair, beard or earrings:
Unconscious personal habits: Facial/emotional
33
Spinning pen, foot-tapping, fingernail-tapping, rocking & hand gestures:
Unconscious personal habits
34
What should you do with your hands while speaking?
- folded - behind back - Akimbo (hands on hips & elbows out) - Fig leaf (placing hands infront of midsection)
35
Identify non-verbals that promote good conversation:
1. Appropriate space (arms length) 2. Eye contact 3. Eye level 4. smile
36
Office distractions including multi-tasking, chart-reviewing & staff interuptions are all examples of:
Roadblocks to good listneing
37
Identify the verbals that promote good conversation:
1. open-ended questions 2. use Mr. Mrs. or Ms. unless they ask you to do so otherwise 3. Don't rush 4. Give patient a chance to talk
38
Identify the verbals that inhibit good conversation:
1. Rushing to diagnose- let patient be a part in the decision making 2. Asking close-ended questions
39
Arrogance, sarcasm, high-pressure marketing can all be considered:
Negative dentist, attitudes
40
- Making sure the patient is comfortable - Being flexible to ensure patient acceptance - Leaving time for emergency visits These are all ways for a dentist to be:
Accomodating
41
Identify some reasons patients avoid dental care:
1. Previous dental experiences 2. Dental anxiety
42
When should you typically communicate with other faculty:
Usually away from the patient
43
Reasons for dental anxiety: (3)
1. Choking (gagging & suction) 2. Embarrassment (being judged, scared of lecture & feeling that teeth can't be saved) 3. Parents (bad experiences when young)
44
What are the three initial contact questions you should be asking:
1. How long since your last dental visit 2. What kind of past treatment? How was it? 3. Do you have any concerns about receiving dental treatment?
45
Physiological signs of dental anxiety: (3)
1. Perspiration (forehead, hands, palms, upper-lip, under-arms) 2. Cardiovascular (BP & HR) 3. Respiration (Rate & depth)
46
1. Explain procedures before starting 2. Give specific info during procedures 3. Give reassurance 4. Give the patient some control (such as raising hand if they feel pain) 5. Provide distraction 6. Build trust 7. Show personal warmth 8. Stress-reduction protocol These are all:
Ways to reduce anxiety
47
A condition in which there is a deflection from the normal relation of the teeth to other teeth in the same arch and/or to teeth in the opposing arch:
Malocclusion
48
Angles classification was developed in _____ by _____-
1899; Edward H. Angle
49
Angle's classification is based on the relationship of the _____
The MB CUSP of the maxillary 1st molar & the BUCCAL GROOVE of the mandibular first molar
50
Describe Angle's Class I:
MB cusp of maxillary 1st molar BISECTS buccal groove of mandibular 1st molar
51
MB cusp of maxillary 1st molar bissects buccal groove of mandibular 1st molar:
Angle's class I
52
Same as normal occlusion, but characterized by crowding, rotations, and other positional irregularities:
Class I- Malocclusion
53
A Class I- malocclusion is the same as normal occlusion but is characterized by _____, _____ & other ______
Crowding, rotations & other positional irregularities
54
This image shows:
Class I- with severe crowding & labially errupted canines
55
Describe Angle's Class II:
MB CUSP of maxillary 1st molar is MESIAL to mandibular 1st molar's BUCCAL GROOVE
56
Angle's class II in simple terms can be described as:
Overbite
57
MB cusp of maxillary 1st molar is MESIAL to mandibular 1st molars BUCCAL GROOVE
Angle's Class II
58
Diagnose this occlusion:
Angle's Class II
59
Diagnose this occlusion:
Top: Normal occlusion Bottom: Class I- malocclusion
60
Diagnose this occlusion:
Angle's Class II
61
Describe Angle's class III:
MB cusp of maxillary 1st molar is DISTAL to the BUCCAL GROOVE of mandibular 1st molar
62
Angle's class III in simple terms can be described as:
Underbite
63
Diagnose this occlusion:
Class III- malocclusion
64
The HORIZONTAL overlap of the maxillary central incisors over the mandibular central incisors:
Overjet
65
When discussing overjet & overbite, we are describing the relationships between what teeth?
Maxillary & mandibular central incisors
66
Overjet is measured using:
Periodontal probe
67
A typical measurement for overjet:
Usually 2-3 mm
68
The VERTICAL overlap of the maxillary central incisors over the mandibular central incisors:
Overbite
69
Overjet is describing a _____ overlap while overbite is describing a _______ overlap
Overjet= horizontal Overbite= vertical
70
How much of the maxillary teeth cover up the mandibular teeth would describe:
Overbite
71
The amount of overbite is measured using:
Periodontal probe vertically
72
A typical overbite measurement:
Usually 2-3 mm or approximately 20-30% of the heigh of the mandibular incisors
73
A is showing: B is showing:
A= Overbite B= Overjet
74
Diagnose this image:
Anterior crossbite
75
Diagnose this image:
Posterior crossbite
76
Diagnose this image:
Posterior crossbite
77
ETW:
Erosive tooth wear
78
Generally, ETW is classified according to the specific:
Mechanism that is responsible for the wear
79
Mechanisms of wear that are responsible for ETW:
1. Erosion 2. Abfraction 3. Abrasion 4. Attrition
80
The etiology of dental wear is multifactorial with complex relationships between three types of wear, including:
1. Attrition 2. Erosion 3. Abrasion
81
Evidence of occlusal wear/trauma include:
1. Wear facets 2. Broken restorations 3. Chipped teeth
82
List the evidence of Bruxism: (5)
1. Bony ridges-exostosis, tori 2. Recession 3. Abfraction 4. Broken teeth & restorations 5. Excessive attrition
83
Describe the abfraction seen in bruxism:
Loss in cervical area
84
This image shows evidence of:
Bruxism
85
Mechanical wear of the incisal or occlusal surface as a result of functional or para-functional movements of the mandible (tooth-to-tooth contact):
Attrition
86
Bruxism accelerates _______
Attrition
87
Attrition can be _______ related
Age
88
In attrition occlusal surface match _______ and usually have a similar degree of wear
Jaw movements
89
Diagnose this image:
Attrition
90
Cervical wedge-shaped defects in teeth:
Abfraction
91
Bruxism resulting in cervical loss of the cervical area of the tooth under the flexure load:
Abfraction
92
Abfraction can be described as:
Physical wear
93
Diagnose this image
Abfraction
94
A form of physical wear along the gingival margin that is not caused by bacterial acid activity
Abfraction
95
What is the shape of the defects in abfraction and where are they located?
Wedge-shaped; cervical portion of the tooth right by the gingiva
96
Diagnose this image:
Abfraction
97
Abnormal surface loss resulting from direct frictional forces between the teeth & external object or from frictional forces between contacting teeth in the presence of an abrasive medium:
Abrasion
98
Abrasion is abnormal surface loss, resulting from ______ between the teeth and external objects, or from _____ between contacting teeth in the presence of an ________
Direct frictional forces; frictional forces; abrasive medium
99
What may cause abrasion: (3)
1. improper brushing techniques 2. Habits 3. Vigorous use of toothpicks
100
What is the most common cause for abrasion?
Improper brushing techniques
101
Abrasion due to improper brushing techniques typically results in:
V-shaped notch in the gingival 1/3 of the tooth
102
What is an example of a habit that may lead to abrasion?
Holding a pipe stem between the teeth
103
Interproximal abrasion may be due to:
Toothpicks
104
Incisal notching abrasion may be due to:
Nails, pipe
105
Cervical abrasion may be due to:
Toothbrushing
106
What are three locations for abrasion?
1. Interproximal 2. Incisal notching 3. Cervical
107
Diagnose this image (be specific):
Interproximal abrasion
108
Wear or loss of tooth structure by chemicomechanical action:
Erosion
109
Erosion is wear or loss of tooth structure by:
Chemicomechanical action
110
Where is erosion seen on the tooth?
Facial & lingual
111
What are some causes of facial erosion of teeth?
Lemons, chlorine
112
What is the main cause of lingual erosion?
Bulimia
113
Diagnose this image (be specific):
Facial erosion
114
Diagnose tis image (be specific): What might this be caused by?
Lingual erosion; bulimia
115
What are oral signs of bulimia?
1. "Raised" amalgams 2. Thermal sensitivity
116
This image is showing a patient with potential:
Bulimia
117
Describe what might occur to the dentition of a bulimic patient: (3)
1. Thinning or chipping of incisal edges 2. Anterior open bite 3. Loss of vertical dimension
118
The foundation of any form of successful treatment is:
Accurate diagnosis
119
The bridge between the study of disease and the treatment of illness:
Diagnosis
120
You should always _____ before you perform
Inform
121
If it isnt written:
It didn't happen
122
Types of clinical examinations include: (5)
1. Comprehensive dental diagnosis 2. Periodic/recall diagnosis 3. Diagnosis of a specific problem 4. Emergency diagnosis 5. Screening diagnosis
123
The diagnostic method can modified to most effectively:
Address the needs of the patient
124
- Pain, acute infection, bleeding, or traumatic injury require immediate attention These are all:
Chief complaints that require immediate care
125
A chief complain can be something that requires immediate care or can also be:
a request for less urgent care
126
In the C.C., patients may report several complaints, which are listed in order of priority:
As stated by the patient
127
C.C.:
Chief complaint
128
What is the most extensive diagnostic treatment?
Comprehensive dental diagnosis
129
A comprehensive dental diagnosis may also be called:
Initial diagnosis or IOE
130
What would be the reasons to classify the appointment as a "Comprehensive Dental Diagnosis"
1. Patient who wants total dental care who has not previously been seen 2. Patient of record who has not been seen for 3-5 years 3. Patient of record who has had major change in medical/dental history
131
The part of the comprehensive dental diagnosis that starts the minute you see the patient:
Physical exam & assessment
132
In a comprehensive dental diagnosis, when you are asking the patient about systemic disease, surgeries, current medications, & allergies:
Detailed medical history
133
When taking a detailed medical history, it is important to ask about what types of medications:
Both RX & OTC
134
When you are taking a detailed medical history in a comprehensive dental diagnosis, this is when you establish:
ASA class
135
After getting the detailed medical history in a comprehensive dental diagnosis, it is now time for:
Intra/extra oral evaluation & Perioral conditions
136
Following the intra/extra oral evaluation & noting perioral condition, what is the next step of a comprehensive dental diagnosis?
Dental radiographs
137
What dental radiographs are obtained during a comprehensive dental diagnosis?
FMXR vs. Pano & BWX
138
Following taking radiographs in a comprehensive dental diagnosis, the next step is to:
Making diagnostic casts
139
The data obtained in a comprehensive dental diagnosis is of value because:
It serves as the patients initial status which serve for comparison later in assessing treatment effectiveness
140
Comprehensive dental diagnosis require _______ but it reliably provides a _______ for comprehensive dental care
Considerable time; sound diagnostic foundation
141
A comprehensive dental diagnosis can _______ by documentation of the patients initial status if treatment complications occur & lead to accusations of sub-standard care
Protect the clinician
142
Periodic diagnosis may also be referred to as a:
Recall diagnosis
143
This type of appointment is appropriate for a patient who requests total dental care when the results of a prior comprehensive dental diagnosis are available:
Periodic diagnosis
144
What is the assumption regarding the prior comprehensive exam when seeing a patient for a periodic diagnosis:
The assumption is that a portion of past information in still accurate, but other aspects of the patients medical/dental history may have changed
145
A periodic recall diagnosis ususally is a ______ interval
6-month
146
What is the goal of a periodic diagnosis:
Goal is to identify conditions that have changed & supplement the prior database so that it reflects the patients current status
147
A periodic diagnosis can be as simple as _______ or as complex as ______
Simple as asking patient if there has been any changes since the last appointment or as complex as repeating most of the comprehensive dental diagnosis
148
What is ALWAYS a good practice regardless of the time interval between appointments with a patient:
Asking if there has been any changes since the last appointment
149
In a periodic diagnosis examination, if a different clinician conducted the original diagnosis, the current dentist must:
Must confirm the accuracy of prior data & record current findings prior to diagnostic decisions
150
If someone comes in with a specific problem, this appointment type would be considered:
Diagnosis of a specific problem (or limited exam)
151
The diagnosis of a specific problem (limited exam) is _____ focused:
problem
152
For a recently evaluated patient, a diagnosis of a specific problem/limited exam serves as a:
Second opinion
153
The ______ is an effective approach to such situations if the available diagnostic database is current & accurate (during diagnosis of a specific problem/limited exam)
SOAP evaluation
154
_____ form is in Axium
SOAP
155
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as: The reason for the evaluation:
CC (Chief complaint)
156
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as: Information or symptoms of the condition as supply by the patient. Patient's chief concern or complaint. It is recorded in the PATIENTS OWN WORDS
S: Subjective
157
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as: Physical findings of the clinician. Includes visual finding, periodontal assessment, clinical tests (percussion, palpations, vitality tests.)
O: Objective
158
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as: Clinical impression of the condition by the clinician. THIS IS THE DIAGNOSIS
A: Analysis
159
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as: Recommended management of the problem. May be specific treatment, referral, or dismissal of the condition as clinically insignificant
P: Plan
160
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as: "Tootheach on the upper right for the last 2 weeks- getting worse." Patient reports pain to cold & hot, duration 5-10 minutes, loss of sleep & requires Motrin 3-4x day.
S: Subjective
161
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as: Grossly decayed #3 (+) response to percussion & palpation, (-) swelling, mobility.
O: Objective
162
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as: Caries, necrotic pulp, - tooth is restorable
A: Analysis
163
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as: Discussed treatment options including RCT and crown vs. extraction. Risk/benefits of each procedure explained. Patient refers RCT & understands that the tooth may need crown lengthening procedure
P: Plan
164
A SOAP note would be used in what type of examination:
Diagnosis of specific problem/limited exam
165
Type of appointment that is designed to manage a chief complaint such as pain, bleeding, or acute infection that required immediate attention:
Emergency diagnosis
166
In an emergency diagnosis, the ________ is sacrificed in the interest of providing attention to the ______
Comprehensive diagnostic evaluation; urgent problem
167
In an emergency diagnosis appointment, the physical examination is limited to:
The chief complaint
168
In an emergency diagnosis, the patients CC can be demanding & interfere with:
Obtaining an adequate patient history
169
Type of appointment in which specific questions about the patient are answered:
Screening diagnosis
170
In this type of appointment, the evaluation is limited to obtaining the information needed to answer the question without accepting comprehensive diagnosis or treatment responsibility for the patient:
Screening diagnosis
171
Institutions often rely on a screening diagnosis to determine:
The patient's general dental treatment needs
172
_____ is the most common symptom arising in the mouth, face & neck area
Pain
173
Most common reasons for emergency appointements:
Pain
174
Pain is ______ & unlike an ulcer, there may be nothing to assess ______
Subjecive; Visually
175
In order to diagnose pain, you need to be _____ and have _____
A good listener; have good follow-up questions
176
What questions would you as a provider would you as a provider ask a patient regarding their pain? (7)
1. How would you describe the pain? 2. When did you first notice the pain? 3. Is the pain continuous or does it go away? 4. Does it wake you up at night? 5. Has it gotten better, worse or stayed the same? 6. Have you taken anything for the pain? 7. Anything make it worse? Anything make it better?
177
Descriptive words for pain:
- Dull/throbbing - Sharp/stabbing - Burning
178
Pain arising from pathology is usually:
Unilateral
179
Other symptoms related to pain that may indicate an infective origin: (7)
1. Swelling 2. Discharge 3. Bad taste 4. Bad breath 5. Elevated temperature 6. Malaise 7. Cervical lymphadenopathy
180
Dental biocompatibility works both ways meaning:
The material may affect the environment and/or the environment may affect the material
181
The material must be of benefit to the patient and above all, the patient must be:
Safe from any adverse reactions
182
The biological reaction can take place at either:
1. At the local level 2. Far removed from the contact site
183
What is an example of a biological reaction taking place at a local level:
Injection site rxn
184
What is an example of a biological reaction that occurs far removed from the site of contact:
Systemically-adverse Rx
185
Adverse reaction from acrylic monomer in denture:
Denture stomatitis (a systemic reaction)
186
Systemic reactions to a biocompatibility reaction may not always be:
readily apparent
187
What are some examples of systemically-adverse reactions that may not always be readily apparent:
1. Dermatological 2. Immune-mediated 3. Neural reactions
188
What is the most common reaction to dental staff:
Hand/facial dermatitis or respiratory symptoms
189
List the possible interactions between dental restorative material and the biological environment: (4)
1. Postoperative sensitivity 2. Toxicity 3. Corrosion 4. Hypersensitivity/allergy
190
What interaction between dental material & the biological environment is being described below: Nanomaterial (size of 1-100nm) growing concern about their biosecurity & crossing the blood-brain barrier & going to the central nervous system
Toxicity
191
What interaction between dental material & the biological environment is being described below: Amalgam or its components may cause type IV (usually 24-48 hours after exposure) on the oral mucosa
Hypersensitivity/Allergy
192
If amalgam causes a hypersensitivity reaction: 1. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is this 2. When will it likely occur 3. Where does it likely occur
1. Type IV 2. 24-48 hours after exposure 3. Oral mucosa
193
In the study regarding contact allergies to dental materials: 1. What were the most common allergies to? 2. What were the most common allergens 3. What did denture resins show?
1. metals 2. nickel & cobalt 3. Mucosal changes, contact stomatitis & burning sensations in the mouth
194
Some patients can develop allergic/hypersensitivity reactions to even very small quantities of:
Metals
195
Even in very small quanities, some patients will develop an allergic/hypersensitivity reactions to the following metals: (3)
1. Mercury 2. Nickel 3. Cobalt
196
Direct contact of oral mucosa to this material can cause oral lichenoid lesions (OLL):
Mercury
197
Chronic inflammatory lesion on the oral mucosa, can be caused by exposure to mercury:
OLL (Oral Lichenoid Lesion)
198
In order to determine if a patient can tolerate ______ we should ask if they can wear costume jewelry:
Nickel
199
What is the diagnosis of the following image?
Oral lichen planus
200
What can be seen in the following image?
Amalgam tattoo
201
What is the diagnosis of the following image?
Mucosal Melanoma
202
A rare but highly aggressive neoplasma of the oral cavity
Mucosal melanoma
203
One of the most common causes of allergic contact dermatitis & produces ore allergic reactions than all other metals combined:
Nickel hypersensitivity
204
Several brands of orthodontic wires are made of:
Nickel titanium alloy
205
Non-precious metal crowns contain high levels of ______. Some as high as 55%
Nickel
206
The following image is a reaction to:
Nickel
207
Some people with _____ allergies have allergic symptoms around & in the mouth & throat after eating raw fresh fruits, vegetables, nuts or seeds which contain cross-reactive proteins to this.
Pollen allergies
208
Diagnose what is seen in the following image:
Oral hypersensitivity reaction
209
What metal is commonly found in dental implants?
Titanium
210
Dental practicioners are _______ for the materials to which a patient will be exposed
ultimately responsible
211
Sargenti paste for root canals:
Paraformaldehyde
212
Dentists must have a knowledge & understanding of the ______ of materials to be used and how these might affect the patient
composition
213
Materials that cause destruction of connective tissue, bone, nerves, chronic infection & pain would be materials that cause ______ damage What is one material that might cause this:
Irreversible; Paraformaldehyde-containing endodontic filling materials
214
A concern of paraformaldehyde-containing endodontic materials is that they can through the:
1. Body-blood 2. Lymph nodes 3. Adrenal glands 4. Kidney 5.Brain
215
Leaders in science-based biological dentistry:
IAOMT (International academy of oral medicine & toxicology)
216
If you wish to remove mercury amalgams, fillings or metal-based crowns it is recommended to use an IAOMT dentist certified in the:
SMART (Safe Mercury Amalgam Technique)
217
HAD- improving overall health through dentistry
Holistic Dental Association
218
Some materials have a distinctly _____ effect on the pulp
Positive
219
A material that has a positive effect on the dental pulp by stimulating tertiary dentin formation:
Calcium hydroxide
220
Since a restoration may have an adverse effect on the pulp, a range of materials termed _______ have been developed to be applied to the dentin, prior to the placement of the final restoration:
Intermediate restorative materials (IRMs)
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When are IRMs placed, where are they placed?
Prior to the placement to the final restoration & applied to the dentin
222
Cavity varnishes, bases & liners are all examples of:
Intermediate restorative materials
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Intermediate restorative materials are intended to remain ______ & should not be confused with _____
permanently; temporary restorative materials
224
The role of IRMs may be: (3)
1. protective 2. palliative 3. therapeutic
225
The goal of this material is to protect the pulp from chemical, electrical & thermal reactions:
IRMs
226
What is an example of an electrical reaction that IRMs protect against:
Galvanic-shock-dissimilar metals
227
IRMs protect the pulp from: (3)
1. Chemical 2. Electrical 3. Thermal
228
Give an example of a specific IRM and the qualities it posseses:
Zinc oxide-eugenol (ZOE) Sedative like qualities on hypersensitive pulp & is a good thermal insulator as well
229
Intermediate restorative material: 1. acts as a _____ 2. Excellent ______ resistance 3. Good _____ properties 4. Low ______ 5. May be used under cements & restorative materials that DO NOT contain resin components such as: ____,____ & _____
1. Thermal insulator 2. Abrasion 3. Sealing 4. Solubility 5. Amalgams, inlays & onlays
230
What can intermediate restorative materials NOT be placed under:
amalgams, inlays & onlays
231
This material should NOT discolor a tooth or the restoration:
Intermediate restorative materials
232
A ______ should harden quick enough to allow subsequent insertion of the restoration:
Intermediate restorative materials
233
An IRM should be able to withstand the _______ of the over laying restoration
condensation
234
An IRM should be easily ________
manipulated
235
IRMs are liners and bases are materials placed between dentin (and sometimes pulp) and the restoration to provide: (2)
1. Pulpal protection 2. Pulpal response
236
As far as use of an IRM, protective needs for a restoration vary depending on: (3)
1. Location of the restoration 2. Extent of the restoration 3. Restorative material being used
237
How is the characteristic of the liner to or base to be used as the IRM selected?
largely by the purpose its expected to serve
238
Because they share similar objectives/properties liners and bases are not:
Fully distinguishable
239
The IRM that is a thick mix of material which is placed in bulk; used as dentin replacement to minimize final restorative material:
Bases
240
What IRM serves to block out undercuts?
Bases
241
The type of IRM that is only applied as a thin coating over exposed dentin:
Liners
242
What type of IRM is placed less than 0.5mm thick and is able to promote health of the pulp by adhesion or antibacterial action?
Liners
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A liner should be less than 0.5mm thick and is able to promote health of the pulp by: (2)
1. adhesion 2. antibacterial action
244
Primary role is to protect the pulp:
Liner
245
Liners form a strong bond to _____ and prevent _____
Dentin; fluid movement down the dentin tubules
246
Functions to provide a bacterial barrier
Liner
247
Liners cause sustained _____ release:
Fluoride
248
Give an example of an intermediate restorative material that may be used as a liner or base:
Vitrebond
249
Light Cure Resin- modified glass ionomer that can be used under composite, amalgam, metal and ceramic restorations
Vitrebond
250
What can Vitrebond be used under? What is Vitrebond NOT indicated for?
Composite, amalgam, metal, ceramic restorations Direct pulp capping
251
Calcium Hydroxide - Ca(OH)2 that is highly alkaline with a pH of 11-12.5
Liner
252
Liners are highly _____ with a pH of _____
alkaline 11-12.5
253
Liners contain ______ activity which retains its anti-bacterial properties for about ______
Bactericidal activity 2 months
254
Liners cause the formation of ______
Tertiary dentin
255
Liners can be used for _____ & ______ pulp capping
direct & indirect
256
Calcium hydroxide liner that can be self curing OR light cured
Dycal
257
A natural gum (copal), resin, or synthetic resin dissolved in organic solvent
Varnish
258
Varnishes: 1. Has some _____ & ____ properties 2. Easily seeps into open ______ 3. Prevents transfer of ________ to ______ 4. We use _____ instead of varnishes at SOD
1. Antiviral & antimicrobial 2. Dentin tubules 3. Heat & cold to dentin & pulp 4. Vitrebond
259
Varnishes are not to be used under ________ Why?
composite restorations; because they interfere with the setting reaction Glass ionomers; prevents fluoride release
260
A varnish used as an insulating layer under gold & amalgam restorations
Copalite
261
In a shallow tooth prep what should be placed:
Nothing, vitrebond or varnish
262
In a moderate depth tooth prep what should be placed:
Liners ma be placed (for thermal protection & pulpal medication) along with varnish
263
In a very deep tooth prep what should be placed:
Liner (may be calcium hydroxide) then the base Vitrebond or IRM