Exam II Study Flashcards
(156 cards)
1
Q
Virus is contained both DNA and RNA. True or false.
A
True
2
Q
Viruses are incapable of independent reproduction and cannot be killed by antimicrobials true or false
A
True
3
Q
Disease caused by fungi are called
A
Mycoses
4
Q
Are mycoses treatable with penicillin?
A
No, they occur with other infections that are not treatable with penicillin. They can be opportunistic.
5
Q
What is a live diverse that is weakened
A
Attenuated
6
Q
Antibiotic resistance is usually a result of genetic mutations that can be transmitted directly to a neighboring microorganism by what type of exchange
A
Plasma exchange
7
Q
What is a clinical hallmark of immuno deficiency?
A
A propensity to unusual or recurrent severe infections
8
Q
The ability to spread from one individual to another and cause disease
A
Communication
9
Q
The ability of pathogens to induce an immune response
A
Immunogenicity
10
Q
Damaging tissues is the pathogens mechanism of action true or false?
A
True
11
Q
Measles virus is a low virulence, true or false
A
True. Virulence is the capacity of a pathogen to cause severe disease.
12
Q
True or false rabies is of high virulence?
A
True. Violence is the capacity of a pathogen to cause severe disease.
13
Q
What enzymes can damage the plasma membrane of whales or can an activate enzymes critical to protein synthesis?
A
Exotoxins
14
Q
What type of enzyme activates the inflammatory response and produce fever
A
Endotoxins
15
Q
____________ released by blood-borne bacteria caused the release of vasoactive enzymes that increase the permeability of blood vessels.
A
Endotoxins
16
Q
The breakdown of red blood cells is called
A
Hemolysis
17
Q
The growth of bacteria in the blood is called
A
Septicemia
18
Q
Decreased BP, decrease O2 delivery, cardiovascular shock, and subsequent death are complication of what type of shock?
A
Symptoms of gram-negative septic shock are produced by endotoxins
19
Q
Once in the blood _____ toxins caused the release of vasoactive peptides and pens that affect blood vessels, producing bases dilation which reduces blood pressure causes, decreased oxygen and produces subsequent cardiovascular shock
A
That’s an endotoxin
20
Q
What are the four stages of infection?
A
- Incubation
- Prodromal Stage
- Invasion or Acute illness stage
- Convalescence
21
Q
Bacteria have ________ factors that promote their ability to cause infection and cell injury, including pili, flagella capsules enzymes competition for iron and toxin
A
Virulence factors
22
Q
__________ results from the proliferation of bacteria into the blood
A
Septicemia
23
Q
What happens when toxins are released by blood-borne bacteria?
A
They release vasoactive enzymes that increase the permeability of blood vessels. This leakage causes hypotension then the results in septic shock.
24
Q
True or false viruses are intracellular parasites?
A
True, they invade hotels, and use their medical processes to proliferate cause disease
25
What are diseases called caused by fungi called?
Mycoses - Either a yeast or a mold
26
What is the most common cause of fungal infection in humans?
Candida Alacan
27
Pathogens can use various mechanisms to resist the effects of antibiotics, including what?
1. Transmission of resistance jeans to new generations of bacteria.
2. Enzyme degradation of the antibiotic.
3. Ejection of the antibiotic from the pathogen.
4. Modification of the cell wall to prevent binding or uptake of the antibiotic.
5. modification of the target of the antibiotic
28
Explain vaccines
They are a biological preparation of an antigen that stimulates production of antibodies or cellular immunity against a specific pathogen
29
Explain passive immunotherapy
Administration of performed antibodies for protection against specific pathogen, such as hepatitis A or B and rabies 
30
____________ is an immune response misdirected against the host owned tissues
Hypersensitivity
31
When a hypersensitivity immune response is misdirected against the host on tissue, it is known as
Auto immunity
32
When a hypersensitivity is an immune response or directed against the beneficial, foreign tissues, such as transfusions or transplants, it is known as
Alloimmunity (iso)
33
Hypersensitivity is a immune response that can be exaggerated against environmental antigens is known as
Allergy
34
Mechanisms of hypersensitivity are classified as what?
1. Type I (Immunoglobulin E [IgE] mediated reactions
2. Type II (tissues specific) reactions
3. Type III (Immune complex mediated.) reactions.
4. Type IV (Cell mediating.) reactions.
35
Explain type one hypersensitivity
IGE mediated reactions occur after an antigen reacts with IGE on a mass cell. This leads to mast Cell degranulation, and then the release of histamine and other inflammatory substances.
36
Explain typeII hypersensitivity
Type II our tissue specific reactions caused by four possible mechanisms:
1. Complement mediated lysis.
2. Oposonization and phagocytosis.
3. Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity.
4. Modulation of cellular function.
37
Explain type III hypersensitivity reactions
These are immune complex mediated. They are caused by the formation of immune complexes that are deposited in target tissues. They complement cascade generating fragments that attract neutrophils into the inflammatory site.
38
Give an example of an immune complex disease that can be systemic
Serum sickness, Reynard phenomenon
39
Give an example of an immune complex disease that is localized
Arthus reaction
40
Explain type IV hypersensitivity reactions
They are caused by specifically sensitized. He sells which either killed target sells directly or release limpkin that activate other cells, such as macrophages
41
_________ disease is a lot of tolerance of self antigens.
Auto immune
42
An autoimmune disease can there be a genetic predisposition?
Yes
43
What type of hypersensitivity can an autoimmune disease be?
Type II or type III hypersensitivity
44
Explain aloe immunity
Systems reaction against antigens on the tissue of other members of the same species
45
Give examples of allo immune disorders
1. Transient neonatal disease where the mom’s immune system becomes sensitized against antigens in the fetus.
2. Transplant rejection and transfusion reactions.
46
Explain immuno deficiency
It’s basically the failure of mechanisms of self-defense to function in their normal capacity
47
Immuno deficiencies are either primary or secondary true or false
True
48
Explain, congenital immuno deficiencies
They are caused by genetic deficits that disrupt lymphocyte development
49
Explain acquired him you know deficiencies for secondary
Please, our secondary disease or other physiologic alteration
50
The most common infections in individuals with defects of cell mediated immune responses
Fungal and viral
51
The most common infections and individuals with defects of the humoral immune response or compliment, function, or primarily what
Bacterial
52
A total lack of T cell function, and a severe either partial or total lack of cell function is known as what
Severe combined immuno deficiency (SCID)
53
Wiskott- Aldririch (WAS) syndrome is caused by an increased production of which antibody
IgM
54
Cancer Tx: Surgery
To prevent cancer
Biopsy’s for Dax and staging
Lymph node sampling
Palliative surgery
55
Cancer Tx: Radiation
Goal is to stop cancer without excessive toxicity
Avoid damage to normal structures
++++Ionizing radiation damages the cancers cell’s DNA
56
Cancer Tx: Chemotherapy
-Takes advantage of specific vulnerability in target cancer cells
-It’s cool - give in many different combos that are designed to fight the cancer from many different weaknesses at the same time
- A complication is death though due to rapidly dividing cells that are not cancerous
57
Cancer Tx: Induction chemotherapy
For shrinkage of disappearance of tumors
58
Cancer Tx: neoadjuvant therapy
-Given before localized treatment to shrink the tumor
59
Immunotherapy
Tumor cell vaccines effective in protecting against infective agents
60
Immunotherapy for metastatic ________ cancer has been approved by FDA
Prostatic
61
What is targeted disruption in Cancer Tx?
- It is used in combination with chemotherapy
- HIghly specific making them less toxic than conventional chemotherapy
62
Lipomas
Benign growths
63
Meningioma
Benign tumor
64
Cancers arising in eptithelial tissues are called
Carcinomas
65
Cancers arising in eptithelial tissues are called
Carcinomas
66
Lymphatic tissues are called
Lymphomas
67
Pleomorphic
Marked variability of size and shape
68
What do tumors markers include
Hormones, enzymes, genes, antigens and antibodies
69
Kapoks sarcoma is associated with
HIV
70
Adjuvant (given after surgery) is indicated in the tax of individuals with
Metasis
71
Should you use Bracyhtherapy in the tx of lung cancer?
Nope
72
What cancer is brachytherapy useful in the tx of?
Cervical, prostate and head and neck cancers
73
True or false patterns of cancer are influenced by environmental, not lifestyle factors?
True
74
True or false patterns of cancer are influenced by environmental, not lifestyle factors?
True
75
_______ tissue immune cells promote chronic inflammation
Stromal. They can precede AAANd initiate cancer changes
76
Major causes of morbidity and mortality worldwide
Incidence trends.
Decreasing for men
Staying the same for women
Increased in people 0-19
Liver much higher in men
77
Mortality Trends
- Death rates in the US decreasing for men, women and children
-Death rates for liver cancers increased at highest rate of all cancer types. Men more than double
78
Degree to which an organism’s development is contingent on its environment
Developmental plasticity
79
Most important cause of preventable cancers
Tobaccco use - Lung, lower up tract, so teach, kidneys, pancreas, cervices, uterus - affects pretty much every organ
80
Name 2 defense systems for countering effects of xenobiotics (toxic chemical in food)
Detoxification enzymes
And
Antioxidant systems
81
Three factors r/t obesity and cancer
-Insulin -IGF-1 Axis
-Sex hormones
-Adipokines or adipocyte-derived cytokines
82
Name some ways physical activity can reduce cancer risk
- Decreased insulin
-IGF
- Increases free radicals scavenger systems
- Alters inflammatory mediators
-Improves immune function
83
What is the leading environmental cause of death worldwide?
Air pollution
84
Whats worse indoor or outdoor pollution?
Indoor
85
True or false. Tobacco smoke (passive) causes formation of reactive oxygen free radicals and DNA damage
That’s true mofo
86
_______ gas trapped in houses forms decay products that are carcinogenic
Radon
87
Ionizing Radiations
- Increase risk for leukemias, multiple myeloma and thyroid, breast , lung
- Age at time of exposure is a factor in cancer - early ages and older age at highest risk
88
Ionizing radiation - mutations in germ cells are hereditable?
True
89
What are the non-targeted effects of ionizing radiation?
- Cells not directly touches by radiation, but nearby cells or ones in communication with irratidates cells
- Genomic instability
-By stander effects
90
Effects to cells that received no direct radiation exposure
Bystander effects
91
Does radiation-induces cancer have latent period and if so how long?
5-10 years
92
________ cell carcinoma: Lower epidermis or outer layer of skin
Basal cell carcninoma
93
________ cell carcinoma: surface of skin, sun exposed areas
Squamous cell carcinoma
94
Electromagnetic radiation
-energy in form of magnetic or electric waves like from phone, wireless devices
-Who know if they are carcinogenic the jury is still out
95
Which viruses account for a majority of liver cancers
Hep B and C viruses
96
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, various lymphomas and gastric adeneocarcinom ,
Epstein-Barr Virus (or mono) brought on by kissing
97
S/s of Epstein Bar or Mono
Swollen cervical lymph nodes
98
Most common STD in US
HPV
99
Which 2 types of HPV are responsible for the majority of cance3rs
16 and 18
100
____________ inheritance is the heritable transmission to future generations of environmentally caused phenotypes
Trans generational inheritances
101
______ is the role of genes in the development and disease
Epigentsics
102
What 3 types of cancers are linked to consumption of water with high levels of arsenic?
1. Bladder
2. Skin
3. Lung caners
103
What is the leading cause of death from disease in children?
Cancer
104
Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer. T/f?
True
105
The mesodermal germ layer gives rise to what?
- Connective tissue
- Bone cartilage
- Muscle
- blood vessels
- gonads
- kidneys
- lymphatic system
106
What are the most common childhood cancers?
1. Leukemias
2. Sarcomas
Tumors of the nervous system - primarily the brain or head
107
T/f - Most childhood cancers do not have predisposing environmental factors?
True - they’re too young
- Also CC have short latency period - less chance of early warning signs
- happens super fast
108
What is chromosome amplification?
Duplication of a small piece of chromosome over and over.
Results in increased expression of an oncogene
EG neuroblastoma
109
Neuroblastoma
- 50 percent in kids under 2
- Extra cranial - outside the brain - easily can metastasize
110
2 types of chromosome instibility
1 loss of heterozygosity
2. “Two hit hypothesis” - you get a bad gene from mom or dada then something somatic happens
111
2 types of chromosome instibility
1 loss of heterozygosity
2. “Two hit hypothesis” - you get a bad gene from mom or dada then something somatic happens
112
What is the most prominent childhood cancer?
Reterinoblastoma. Can be passed on from parents
113
What is caretaker genes
- Encode for proteins that are involved in repairing DNA
114
Congenital syndromes and cancers occur together like Down syndrome and ?
Leukemias
115
Environmental factors that can contribute to CC?
Prenatal exposure like drugs or ionizing radiation -
116
Epstein-Barr viruses and AIDS have a strong association with cancer development ?
T
117
What is the prognosis of CC/
1 more than 80% cured
2. Survival rates higher in kids under 15
3. Younger kids are in clinical trials
4. BUT they’re at risk for cancer later in life
5. They can expect to see residual effects of treatment
118
What residual and late effects can kids show after Cancer treatment
1 physical impairments
2. Reproduction dysfunction ion
3. Soft tissue and bone atrophy
4. Learning disability
119
Osteosarcoma is associated with what syndrome?
Li-Fraumeni
120
What is Li-Fraumeni?
1. Autosomal dominant disorder involving:
2. TP53 tumor suppressor gene
121
True or false Heart has three layers enclosed in the pericardium?
True
1. Epicardium outer
2. Myocardium
3. Endocardium
ALL INSIDE THE PERICARDIUM
122
True or false Heart has three layers enclosed in the pericardium?
True
1. Epicardium outer
2. Myocardium
3. Endocardium
ALL INSIDE THE PERICARDIUM
123
What are the two atrioventricular valves
Tricuspid (Remember right)
Mitral or big upside (left)
124
What are the two atrioventricular valves
Tricuspid (Remember right)
125
What is the correct blood flow
1. Blood from the right atrium through tricuspid valve to the right ventricle
2. Blood then travels from right ventricle through t the pulmonic semilunar valve to the pulmonary circulation (getting oxygenated)
3. Blood then travels to the left atrium, through the BICUSPID valve and to the left ventricle
4. Blood leaves the left ventricle through t the aortic valve and enters the systemic circulation
126
Correct conduction system of heart
1. SA
2. AV
3. Bundle of HIS
4. Right and left bundle branches
5. Purkinje fibers
127
Which wave shows atrial depolarization?
P wave. Opening of sodium plus, allowing more sodium to come into the cell and potassium out
128
What is refractory period
After a delay
129
What does the autonomic nervous system do for the heart innervation?
Responsible for fate of impulse generation, depolarization and depolarization
130
Role of sympathetic nerves in cardiac innervation
Increases conductivity and strength of contraction
131
What is a contractile unite of cell?
Sarcomere
132
How many nucleus do cardiac fibers have?
Only unoooo
133
How many nucleus do cardiac fibers have?
Only unoooo and they are Branched
134
Heart rate x stroke volume =
Cadiac output - normal for adults is 5: per minute
135
Stroke volume/End-disatolic volume
Ejection fraction AKA Frank Starling Law of the Heart
136
Volume/pressure inside ventricle at end of diastole
Preload
137
Resistance to ejection of blood from left ventricle
After load
138
Which vessels carry oxygenated blood away from heart
Arterial Vessels - Arteries, arterials, capillaries, metarterioles
139
Carry deoxygenated blood toward heart
Venous Vessels
Veins, venules
140
Factors affecting blood flow
1. Pressure - force exerted on a liquid per unit
2. Resistance - Opposition to force
3. Velocity - Speed of blood
4. Vascular compliance
5. Laminar Vs turbulent flow
141
Regulation of blood pressure with arterial pressure
Systolic and diastolic blood pressure
MAP
142
How does venous pressure affect blood pressure
Volume of fluid in veins and compliance of vessels walls
143
A client is do with increased systemic vascular resistance. What will be the effect on the heart?
Left ventricle will be required to pump harder
144
The ______ ventricle pumps blood to the pulmonary system
Right.
145
What would happen to the right ventricle if there was an increase in pulmonary vascular system
It would become ineffective
146
Special vascular system that picks up excess fluid and returns it to the bloodstream
Lymphatic system
147
True or false the mesothelium is part of the pericardial cavity
True
148
The papillary muscles are extensions of the myocardium that pull the cusps together and downward at the onset of ventricular contraction, true or false
True
149
The __________ are openings in the aorta for the coronary arteries
Coronary Ostia
150
The ________ conducts the potential along the atria
SA node
151
The ________ conducts the potential along the atria
SA node
152
The AV node conducts impulses to the _______
Ventricles
153
The QRS complex represents the sum of all ___________ muscle cell DEPOLIRZATIONS
verntricular
154
Threshold is related to
Depolarization
155
The P wave represents
Atrial depolarization
156
The QT interval reprsents “____________” of the ventricles
Electrical systole
