Exam One Flashcards

1
Q

What is ideology?

A

a system of ideas and ideals, especially one which forms the basis of economic or political theory and policy.

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2
Q

What do conservatives tend to believe?

A

belief in limited government, individualism, traditionalism, republicanism, and limited federal governmental power in relation to U.S. states.

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3
Q

What do liberals tend to believe?

A

belief in the rights of the individual, liberty, consent of the governed, political equality and equality before the law.

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4
Q

What are some of the explanations for low voter turnout?

A
  • cognitive limitations
  • indirect measure of satisfaction
  • media
  • cynicism
  • time
  • the electoral system
  • complacency
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5
Q

What is an incumbent?

A

someone who has already held office.

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6
Q

What is a constituent?

A

being a voting member of a community or organization and having the power to appoint or elect.

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7
Q

What does pork barrel mean?

A

spending that is intended to benefit constituents of a politician in return for their political support.

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8
Q

What is the franking privilege?

A

the ability of members of Congress to mail letters to their constituents free of charge by substituting their facsimile signature (frank) for postage.

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9
Q

What is constituency service?

A

assistance to constituents by congressional members.

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10
Q

In most states, which entity is responsible for the drawing (and the periodic redrawing) of congressional districts?

A

the state legislature.

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11
Q

What is gerrymandering?

A

manipulate the boundaries of (an electoral constituency) so as to favor one party or class.

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12
Q

What are some reasons for decreasing competitiveness in US elections?

A

1) Lack of responsive
- A Representative as a trustee vs. delegate
- Bailout example
2) Increased partisanship
- Good and Bad
3) Lack of civil discourse
- Political middle has disappeared
- incumbency decreases competition

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13
Q

What are some of the consequences of this decreasing competitiveness in US elections?

A

Some view low voter participation as a threat to representative democratic government. Low voter participation presumably signals apathy or cynicism about the political system in general. also may signal potential voters simply do not want to take the time to learn about the issues or that issues are too complicated. More satisfaction with the status quo.

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14
Q

About what percent of House incumbents win re-elections?

A

In recent years this rate has been well over 90 percent, with rarely more than 5-10 incumbents losing their House seats every election cycle.

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15
Q

How was government under the Articles of Confederation structured?

A

under the Articles, the national government consisted of a unicameral (one-house) legislature (often called the Confederation Congress); there was no national executive or judiciary.

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16
Q

What does it mean to have a confederal system of government?

A

the confederal form of government is an association of independent states.

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17
Q

How was the vote in the legislature apportioned under the Articles of Confederation?

A

each state would appoint between two and seven delegates to the congress, and each state delegation would have one vote.

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18
Q

How many votes did it take to get legislation passed under the Articles?

A

9 of 13 states had to approve of or ratify a law under the Articles of Confederation in order for that law to be passed.

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19
Q

What was the amendment process for the Articles?

A

The Articles required unanimous consent to any amendment, so all 13 states would need to agree on a change.

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20
Q

What was Shays’ Rebellion?

A

Shays’ Rebellion was a series of violent attacks on courthouses and other government properties in Massachusetts that began in 1786 and led to a full-blown military confrontation in 1787.

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21
Q

What were the principle weaknesses under the Articles of Confederation?

A

Congress commanded little respect and no support from state governments anxious to maintain their power. Congress could not raise funds, regulate trade, or conduct foreign policy without the voluntary agreement of the states.

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22
Q

Why were farmers mad during the time of Shays’ Rebellion?

A

High taxes in Massachusetts led to many farmers being unable to pay off their debts and therefore losing their property.

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23
Q

What was the role of the Confederation Congress in handling Shays’ Rebellion?

A
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24
Q

What was the unique experience of Rhode Island as the call for a constitutional convention came about?

A

Rhode Island was the only state not to send delegates to the Constitutional Convention in 1787.

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25
Q

What were the formal instructions given to the delegates at the constitutional convention?

A

Not to tell anyone anthing.

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26
Q

What was the New Jersey Plan?

A

The plan was created in response to the Virginia Plan, which called for two houses of Congress, both elected with apportionment according to population

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27
Q

What was the Virginia Plan?

A

The Virginia Plan proposed a legislative branch consisting of two chambers (bicameral legislature), with the dual principles of rotation in office and recall applied to the lower house of the national legislature. States with a large population, like Virginia (which was the most populous state at the time), would thus have more representatives than smaller states.

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28
Q

What was the Connecticut Compromise?

A

an agreement that large and small states reached during the Constitutional Convention of 1787 that in part defined the legislative structure and representation that each state would have under the United States Constitution. It retained the bicameral legislature as proposed by James Madison, along with proportional representation in the lower house, but required the upper house to be weighted equally between the states. Each state would have two representatives in the upper house.

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29
Q

What was the 3/5 Compromise?

A

a compromise between Southern and Northern states reached during the Philadelphia convention of 1787 in which three-fifths of the enumerated population of slaves would be counted for representation purposes regarding both the distribution of taxes and the apportionment of the members of the United States House of Representatives.

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30
Q

Which governmental institution is described in Article I of the Constitution?

A

the Legislative Branch - consisting of the House of Representatives and the Senate, which together form the United States Congress.

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31
Q

Which governmental institution is described in Article II of the Constitution?

A

the executive branch of the federal government, which carries out and enforces federal laws.

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32
Q

Which governmental institution is described in Article III of the Constitution?

A

Judicial Branch - vested in one supreme Court, and in such inferior Courts as the Congress may from time to time ordain and establish.

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33
Q

What is the process by which the Constitution may be amended?

A

Amendments may be proposed either by the Congress, through a joint resolution passed by a two-thirds vote, or by a convention called by Congress in response to applications from two-thirds of the state legislatures.

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34
Q

What is the most common method by which the constitution may be amended?

A

proposal by congress

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35
Q

What is the Supremacy Clause?

A

the Constitution and federal laws take priority over any conflicting rules of state law.

36
Q

What was established in McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)?

A

The court decided that the Federal Government had the right and power to set up a Federal bank and that states did not have the power to tax the Federal Government.

37
Q

Who wrote the federalist papers?

A

Alexander Hamilton, John Jay, and James Madison

38
Q

What were the motives of the Framers in casting the Constitution?

A

They sought not only to address the specific challenges facing the nation during their lifetimes, but to establish the foundational principles that would sustain and guide the new nation into an uncertain future.

39
Q

Why did the Framers, such as Madison, want to guard against faction?

A

Limit factions and human nature. Madison wanted to guard against it because there is danger in the majority.

40
Q

Who wrote An Economic Interpretation of the Constitution of the United States?

A

Charles A. Beard

41
Q

What is An Economic Interpretation of the Constitution of the United States about?

A

argues that the structure of the Constitution of the United States was motivated primarily by the personal financial interests of the Founding Fathers. Beard contends that the authors of The Federalist Papers represented an interest group themselves.

42
Q

with which Amendment did African-American males gain the right to vote?

A

the 15th amendment

43
Q

With which Amendment did women gain the right to vote?

A

the 19th amendment

44
Q

To whom did the Bill of Rights originally apply? Why?

A

Bill of Rights initially only applied to the federal government

45
Q

By what process was the Bill of Rights made applicable to state action?

A

was made applicable to the states through the Due Process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.

46
Q

What is meant by selective incorporation?

A

the Court has held on a case-by-case basis that many of the provisions of the Bill of Rights limit state government action.

47
Q

What was established in Barron v. Baltimore (1833)?

A

ruled that the Constitution’s Bill of Rights restricts only the powers of the federal government and not those of the state governments.

48
Q

Which part of the Constitution describes the powers of the legislative branch?

A

article one

49
Q

Which part of the Constitution describes the powers of the Executive branch?

A

article two

50
Q

Which part of the Constitution describes the powers of the Judicial branch?

A

article three

51
Q

What was established in Gitlow v. New York (1925)?

A

which prohibited advocating violent overthrow of the government.

52
Q

What was established in McDonald v. City of Chicago (2012)?

A

the Second Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, which guarantees “the right of the people to keep and bear Arms,” applies to state and local governments as well as to the federal government.

53
Q

What was established in Mapp v. Ohio (1961)?

A

evidence seized unlawfully, without a search warrant, could not be used in criminal prosecutions in state courts.

54
Q

What was established in Miranda v. Arizona (1966)?

A

an arrested individual is entitled to rights against self-discrimination and to an attorney under the 5th and 6th Amendments of the United States Constitution.

55
Q

What was established in Gideon v. Wainwright (1963)?

A

guaranteeing the right to legal counsel for criminal defendants in federal and state courts.

56
Q

What was established in United States v. E.C. Knight Co. (1895)?

A

which was designed to limit the dangerous growth of corporate monopoly in the last quarter of the 19th century.

57
Q

What was established in Lochner v. New York (1905)?

A

The Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment protects the individual right to freedom of contract.

58
Q

What is the ‘switch in time that saved nine’?

A

refers to when Justice Roberts did an unexpected change and voted to support one of FDR’s new deal pieces of legislation even though he had consistently been against New Deal legislation.

59
Q

What was established in United States v. Darby Lumber Company (1941)?

A

The Fair Labor Standards Act is constitutional - the federal government’s power to regular interstate commerce and provides uniform labor standards across the states.

60
Q

What was established in Wickard v. Filburn (1942)?

A

Congress could regulate activity within a single state under the Commerce Clause, even if each individual activity had a trivial effect on interstate commerce, as long as the intrastate activity viewed in the aggregate would have a substantial effect on interstate commerce.

61
Q

What was established in United States v. Lopez (1995)?

A

Gun possession is not an economic activity that has any impact on interstate commerce, whether direct or indirect, so the federal government cannot base a law prohibiting gun possession near schools on the Commerce Clause.

62
Q

What was National Federation of Independent Business v. Sebelius (2010) and the power to tax?

A

the Affordable Care Act’s individual mandate violated the Commerce Clause but upheld the mandate under the Taxing Power.

63
Q

What are block grants?

A

a grant from central government which a local authority can allocate to a wide range of services.

64
Q

What is TANF?

A

block grant provides federal funding to states for a wide range of benefits and activities.

65
Q

What are categorial grants?

A

federal grants are given to state and local governments to encourage their cooperation in implementing specific purposes and programs.

66
Q

What is common core?

A

a set of educational standards for teaching and testing English and mathematics between kindergarten and 12th grade.

67
Q

Which political party currently controls the House?

A

Democrats

68
Q

Which political party currently controls the Senate?

A

Republicans

69
Q

What are some of the demographic characteristics of the members of Congress?

A

Members of Congress are typically wealthier than the average citizen.

70
Q

What is the most under-represented group in Congress?

A

Women

71
Q

What are some of the main powers of Congress under Article I, Section 8?

A

To declare War, grant Letters of Marque and Reprisal, and make Rules concerning Captures on Land and Water

72
Q

What are some generalizations that can be made about the legislative process?

A

annoyingly slow.

73
Q

What percent of proposed bills become law?

A

less that 10%

74
Q

Why is majority control of Congress so important?

A

the majority party is generally able to control the legislative agenda.

75
Q

What is mark-up?

A

is the process by which a U.S. congressional committee or state legislative session debates, amends, and rewrites proposed legislation.

76
Q

Where is most work done on legislation in Congress?

A

the legislative committees of the House and Senate. The chairmanships of those committees hold the most power.

77
Q

What is the House Rules Committee?

A

a standing committee of the House of Representatives that provides special rules under which specific bills can be debated, amended, and considered by the house.

78
Q

Why is there a Rules Committee in the House and not the Senate?

A

to set limits on bill debate while the Senate has no time limits for debate.

79
Q

What is a filibuster?

A

an action such as a prolonged speech that obstructs progress in a legislative assembly while not technically contravening the required procedures.

80
Q

What is a vote of cloture?

A

A parliamentary procedure used to close debate. Cloture is used in the Senate to cut off filibusters.

81
Q

How many votes does it take to stop a filibuster?

A

Under the current Senate rules, three-fifths of senators, or sixty, must vote for cloture to halt a filibuster except on presidential nominations to offices other than Supreme Court Justice.

82
Q

What is a conference committee?

A

a temporary, ad hoc panel composed of House and Senate conferees formed for the purpose of reconciling differences in legislation that has passed both chambers. Conference committees are usually convened to resolve bicameral differences on major or controversial legislation.

83
Q

What are the four options that a President has when Congress passes a law?

A

1) To sign it - becomes a law
2) To veto it - refuse to sign it, must be returned to original house with a veto message
3) To allow the bill to become a law without signing - not acting on it for 10 days
4) Pocket Veto - If congress adjours its session within 10 days of submitting and the president does not act, the measure dies.

84
Q

What is a pocket veto?

A

an indirect veto of a legislative bill by the president or a governor by retaining the bill unsigned until it is too late for it to be dealt with during the legislative session.

85
Q

What does it take to override a presidential veto?

A

by a two-thirds vote in both the Senate and the House.