Exam prep Flashcards

1
Q

Hypothesis

A

A supposition or proposed explanation made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Replicate

A

make an exact copy of; reproduce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Survey

A

Study in which a group of participants is selected from a population and data about or opinions from those participants are collected, measured, and analyzed
- Information is obtained by asking individuals a fixed set of questions
- Two types include interview and questionnaire
E.G. Questionnaire provided to new parents asking questions about their parenting practices and their child’s behaviour

Pros
- Practical
- Time efficient
- Can obtain uniform results
- Questionnaire limit researcher influence

Cons
- interviews can result in misleading answers
- must ensure that questionnaires accurately examine the intended subject
- requires trust of the participant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Target Population

A

The population that a study is intended to research and to which generalizations from samples are to be made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sample

A

A subset of a population of interest that is selected for study with the aim of making inferences to the population. It is important to ensure that a sample is representative of the larger population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Random Sample

A

selecting participants without any sort of characteristics, or qualifiers as criteria. All people in the population are equally as likely to be selected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Stratified Sample

A

purposely selecting participants that proportionately represent subgroups found within the population (age, location, gender, religion, education)

E.G. Total
School population
Grade 9s: 600/2121 = 28%
Grade 10s: 521/2121 = 25%
Grade 11s: 603/2121 = 28%
Grade 12s: 397/2121 = 19%

Data collected
Grade 9s: 28/100 = 28%
Grade 10s: 25/100 = 25%
Grade 11s: 28/100 = 28%
Grade 12s: 19/100 = 19%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Volunteer Bias

A

Volunteer bias (also called self-selection bias) arises in any research study in which participants choose if they want to be part of the sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Case study

A
  • intensive investigation of one or more participants (person, group, community)
  • a combination of methods is used including: long term observation, diaries etc
    E.G. Jeremy has a fear, psychologist has him keep a diary of his experiences, and collects a detailed account of his childhood
    Pros
  • can gather a full history of a person
  • serves as the basis for new hypothesis that could be tested in controlled situations

Cons
- cannot be used to make conclusions on its own
- results are individual and cannot be generalized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Longitudinal Method

A
  • Data collected about a group of participants over a long period of time, at regular intervals
  • Used to determine the progression or development of various characteristics
    E.G. Psychologist studying whether personality is fairly stable or unstable examines the same group of children from age 1-25

Pros
- Good format to study consistencies and inconsistencies in behaviour

Cons
- Time consuming
- Expensive
- May lose track of participants which can affect results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cross-sectional Method

A

Participants organized into groups based on age, and studied so that age related differences can be compared
E.G. psychologist wanting to study short term memory capacity provide children ages 5, 10, 15 with a series of words and ask them to recall the list

Pros
- less expensive than longitudinal
- no risk of losing participants
- shorter time span for results

Cons
- Results could be attributed to differences other than age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Naturalistic Observation

A

Researcher watches and records activity of subjects in their natural environment while avoiding interference
E.G. watch monkey learn to use rock

Pros
- Learns naturally thru watching
Cons
- Researcher’s presence could taint results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Correlation

A
  • Mutual relationship or connection between two or more things.
  • Just because there is a relationship between 2 things does not mean one thing CAUSES another to happen.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Positive correlation

A

On a graph, the line is going up(left to right)

In text, both factors increase or decrease.
E.G.
- As number of cats go up, happiness increases
- As number of legs goes down, ability to walk goes down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Negative correlation

A

On a graph, the line is going down (left to right)

In text, as one factor increases (free time) another factor decreases (stress)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Experiment

A
  • utilizes the scientific method to investigate a question and test a hypothesis
  • the hypothesis outlines the variables (conditions, behaviours subject to change)
    E.G. The ability for students to concentrate as the temperature increases

Pros
- High control over the situation
- Decrease interference from outside variables

Cons
- research questions require additional experiments in order for results to be replicated before conclusions/theories can be accepted
- can be difficult to limit the influence of hidden flaws
- can be difficult to decide on the best independent/dependent variables to answer a question

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Control variable

A

All other factors that are kept the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Independent variable

A

The condition that the experimenter changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dependent variable

A

Condition that varies as a function of the independent variable (dependent on the independent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Experimental group

A

Group of participants in a research study who are exposed to a particular manipulation of the independent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Control group

A

Not assigned any manipulatable conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Controlled experiment

A

A controlled experiment is an experiment in which all the variable factors in an experimental group and a comparison control group are kept the same, except for one variable factor in the experimental group that is changed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Placebo

A

refers to a treatment that appears real, but is designed to have no physical benefit but can alter brain thinking. A placebo can be a sugar pill, a water or salt water (saline) injection or even a fake surgical procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Single-blind study

A

the researcher is aware of who has the placebo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Double-blind study

A

the researcher is unaware of who has the placebo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ethics

A
  • Protecting the welfare and confidentiality of all participants
  • Obey provincial and federal laws
  • Participants must agree to be a part of the study (give their consent)
  • Deception should only be used if no alternative is possible (debriefing must occur after the deception)
  • Information or outcomes of the study must be made available to participants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Informed consent

A

The participant is aware of the experiment, what occurs, what will happen, and are allowed to back out at anytime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Critical Period

A

Idea that children can not learn language after puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Nature vs. Nurture

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

APGAR score

A

A quick test performed on a baby at 1 and 5 minutes after birth
- 1-minute score determines how well the baby tolerated the birthing process
- 5-minute score tells the health care provider how well the baby is doing outside the mother’s womb.

Breathing effort:
- If the infant is not breathing, the respiratory score is 0.
- If the respirations are slow or irregular, the infant scores 1 for respiratory effort.
- If the infant cries well, the respiratory score is 2.

Heart rate is evaluated by stethoscope:
- If there is no heartbeat, the infant scores 0 for heart rate.
- If heart rate is less than 100 beats per minute, the infant scores 1 for heart rate.
- If heart rate is greater than 100 beats per minute, the infant scores 2 for heart rate.

Muscle tone:
- If muscles are loose and floppy, the infant scores 0 for muscle tone.
- If there is some muscle tone, the infant scores 1.
- If there is active motion, the infant scores 2 for muscle tone.

Grimace response or reflex irritability, such as a mild pinch:
- If there is no reaction, the infant scores 0 for reflex irritability.
- If there is grimacing, the infant scores 1 for reflex irritability.
- If there is grimacing and a cough, sneeze, or vigorous cry, the infant scores 2 for reflex irritability.

Skin color:
- If the skin color is pale blue, the infant scores 0 for color.
- If the body is pink and the extremities are blue, the infant scores 1 for color.
- If the entire body is pink, the infant scores 2 for color.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Baby reflexes

A
  • Rooting: When the corner of a babys mouth is stroked they will turn their head and open their mouth.
  • Suck: When the roof of the baby’s mouth is touched, the baby will begin to suck.
  • Grasping
  • Moro: In response to sound, the baby throws back his or her head, extends out his or her arms and legs, cries, then pulls the arms and legs back in.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Parentese

A

High pitched way of speaking to a baby. Can help promote language development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Telegraphic Speech

A

Concise message characterized by the use of three-word short phrases or sentences made up of main content words - 11 to 12 Months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Psychosexual Development

A
  • personality develops through a series of childhood stages
  • pleasure seeking energies of kid becomes focused on certain erogenous areas
  • Psychoanalytic theory suggested that personality is mostly established by the age of 5
  • If these psychosexual stages are completed successfully, the result is a healthy personality
  • If certain issues are not resolved at the appropriate stage, fixation can occur

Stages:
Oral: 0-1 yr
Anal: 1-3 yr - Anus and bladder, potty training
Phallic: 3-6 yr - Genitals, Oedipus complex, Electra complex
Latent: 6-12 yr - Energy directed to physical and intellectual activities, sexual impulses repressed, relationships between peers of same sex
Genital: 12+ - Energy directed to full sexual maturation and function and development of secondary sex characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Superego, ego, id

A

According to Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, the id is the primitive and instinctual part of the mind that contains sexual and aggressive drives and hidden memories, the super-ego operates as a moral conscience, and the ego is the realistic part that mediates between the desires of the id and the super-ego

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Fixation

A

According to Freud, If certain issues are not resolved at the appropriate stage, stage fixations can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Erogenous zones

A

Erogenous zones are parts of the body that excite sexual feelings when touched or stimulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cognitive development

A

Piaget theory of development

Sensorimotor: 0 - 2
Object permanence, discover relationship between body and environment

Preoperational: 2 - 7
Egocentrism, symbolic thought, role play and pretend

Concrete Operational: 7 - 11
Conservation, development of logical thought

Formal Operational: 11 +
Abstract thinking (manipulate concepts in head)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Assimilation

A

Assimilation describes how we interpret new experiences in terms of our current understanding, so in terms of our current schemas
- When a child learns the word for dog, they start to call all four-legged animals dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Accommodation

A

term developed by psychologist Jean Piaget to describe what occurs when new information or experiences cause you to modify your existing schemas. Rather than make the new information fit into an existing schema, you change the schema in order to accommodate the new information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Psychosocial development

A
  • Theory that there is a crisis at each stage of life

0 - 1: Basic trust vs. mistrust
Fix: Hope
Result: Appreciation of interdependence

1 - 3: Autonomy vs. shame
Fix: Will
Result: Acceptance of the cycle of life

3 - 6: Initiative vs. guilt
Fix: Purpose
Result: Humour, empathy, resilience

6 - 12: Industry vs. inferiority
Fix: Competence
Result: Humility, acceptance of the course of life

12 - 19: Identity vs. confusion
Fix: Fidelity
Result: Sense of complexity of life

20 - 25: Intimacy vs. isolation
Fix: Love
Result: Sense of complexity of relationships

26 - 64: Generativity vs. stagnation
Fix: Care
Result: Caring for others, empathy and concern

65 +: Integrity vs. despair
Fix: Wisdom
Result: Existential identity, sense of integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Epigenetic Principle

A

Erikson maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and build upon each previous stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Moral development

A

Stage 1: Obedience and Punishment Orientation. The child/individual is good in order to avoid being punished. If a person is punished they must have done wrong.

Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange. At this stage children recognize that there is not just one right view that is handed down by the authorities. Different individuals have different viewpoints.

Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships. The child/individual is good in order to be seen as being a good person by others. Therefore, answers are related to the approval of others.

Stage 4: Maintaining the Social Order. The child/individual becomes aware of the wider rules of society so judgments concern obeying rules in order to uphold the law and to avoid guilt.

Stage 5: Social Contract and Individual Rights. The child/individual becomes aware that while rules/laws might exist for the good of the greatest number, there are times when they will work against the interest of particular individuals.

Stage 6: Universal Principles. People at this stage have developed their own set of moral guidelines which may or may not fit the law. The principles apply to everyone. E.g. human rights, justice and equality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Attachment styles

A

Some babies could form more secure attachments than others, according to the caregiver’s sensitivity to the infant’s signals
- Securely attached infants: move freely away from mother, ‘checking in’ now & then. Doesn’t mind being picked up by others
- Insecurely attached infants: avoid mother, feel indifferent toward mother, fear strangers, upset by minor, everyday separations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Two types of insecure attachment styles

A

Anxious Ambivalent:
- Anxious to explore or interact with strangers even when caregiver is present
- Child is extremely distressed when caregiver departs
- Child ambivalent when caregiver returns
- Child will remain close to caregiver but acts resistant and resentful

Anxious Avoidant:
- Ignores caregiver and does not display emotion when caregiver leaves or returns
- Child does not explore, regardless of who is present
- Strangers are treated similarly to caregiver
- Very little display of emotion occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Imprinting

A

inherited tendency of some newborn animals to follow the first moving object they see.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Stranger anxiety

A

Appears at 6-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Parenting styles

A
  1. Permissive parenting
  2. Authoritarian
  3. Authoritative
  4. Uninvolved
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Uninvolved parenting

A

Parents are undemanding and unresponsive
- Parents’ main focus is not on children
- In extreme cases, this parenting style may encompass both rejecting-neglecting and neglectful parents

Effects on children:
- Increased risk of depression / mental health problems.
- more impulsive and less self-control.
- increased tendency for self-isolation.
- difficulty forming lasting bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Authoritative parenting

A

Parents are demanding and emotionally responsive
- Monitor and impart clear standards for their children’s conduct
- Disciplinary methods are supportive, rather than punitive i.e: they will explain reasons for consequences
- Goals to raise children to be assertive, socially responsible, self-regulated and cooperative

Effects on children:
- Happy disposition
- Self-confident, follow through to master tasks
- Developed emotion regulation
- Developed social skills
- Less rigid about gender stereotypes (sensitivity in boys and independence in girls)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Authoritarian parenting

A

Parents are demanding emotinally unresponsive
- Obedience-oriented and expect orders to be obeyed without explanation
- These parents provide well-ordered and structured environments with clearly stated rules.

Effects on children:
- Anxious, withdrawn, and unhappy disposition
- Poor reactions to frustration (girls are particularly likely to give up and boys become especially hostile)
- Do well in school (High performing anxiety)
- Not likely to engage in antisocial activities such as drug and alcohol abuse, vandalism, gangs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Permissive parenting

A

Parents are undemanding and emotionally responsive (Also referred to as ‘laissez-faire’ or ‘indulgent’)
- Set few rules or expectations regarding behaviour
- Allow considerable self-regulation and avoid confrontation
- Children tend to have final say

Effects on children:
- Poor emotion regulation (under regulated)
- Rebellious and defiant when desires are challenged.
- Low persistence to challenging tasks
- Anti-social behaviours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Refusenik

A

Give children time to play, develop a sense of self, listen to experts, and aim to aid their child into becoming fully functioning.
(The name refers to “refuse”ing to hyper-parent)

  • Children end up normal, healthy, and well rounded
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hyperparenting

A

Hyper-parenting is overscheduling and being over-involved in your child’s life and schedule, hoping to turn them into geniuses

Kids end up
- Anxiety
- Stress
- Over-obedient
- Lack independence and freethinking
- May not be able to develop talents or potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Synapse, dendrite, exuberant period, pruning

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Male puberty

A

Begins at 9-16 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Female puberty

A

Begins at 8-10 years. Female puberty onset is linked to weight, so the heavier she is the earlier the onset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Sexual maturation

A

Means the body is preparing itself/ready to make babies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Endocrine system

A

The endocrine system consists of: Glands located throughout the body; Hormones made by the glands and released into the bloodstream or the fluid surrounding cells; and. Receptors in various organs and tissues that recognize and respond to the hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Target hormones

A

Hormones that affect specific cells in the body (e.g. Gastrin stimulates stomach cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Nontarget hormones

A

Hormones that have broad effects on the body (e.g. Growth hormone - Affects the growth of long bones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Hormones

A

One of many substances made by glands. They circulate in the bloodstream and control the actions of certain cells and organs. Also known as chemical messengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)?

A
  • A hormone released by the hypothalamus in both male and female puberty.
  • GnRH acts on the anterior pituitary gland causing it to release Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH).
64
Q

What does Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) do in male puberty?

A

FSH regulates the function of the testes so that sperm production can begin

65
Q

What does Luteinizing Hormone (LH) do in male puberty?

A

LH promotes testosterone production in the testes

66
Q

What is testosterone responsible for?

A
  • Maturation of the sperm
    Secondary sex characteristics and sex drive
  • This includes muscle growth,
  • hair development,
  • lowering of voice (growth of larynx)
  • oil secretion (acne).
67
Q

What is estrogen?

A

Estrogen is responsible for the menstrual cycle, including ovulation, as well as secondary sex characteristics.
Secondary sex development in females includes
- distribution of fat
- development of breasts
- widening of hips

68
Q

What is menrache?

A
  • first menstrual period
  • occurs between 10 and 17
  • usually takes a year for the menstrual cycle to follow a pattern and for the female to be considered fertile
69
Q

What is Spermarche and when does it occur?

A
  • Spermarche (first ejactulation)
  • typically occurs between the ages of 12 and 13
70
Q

Male secondary sex characteristics

A
  • muscle growth,
  • hair development,
  • lowering of voice (growth of larynx)
  • oil secretion (acne).
71
Q

Female secondary sex characteristics

A
  • distribution of fat
  • development of breasts
  • widening of hips
72
Q

Gender, sex, intersex

A
  • Sex is assigned based on appearance of a person’s external anatomy at birth (penis or vagina)
  • Gender is an identity that the person senses internally - non-biological
  • People who are intersex have genitals, chromosomes or reproductive organs that don’t fit into a male/female sex binary.
  • Their genitals might not match their reproductive organs, or they may have traits of both.
  • Being intersex may be evident at birth, childhood, later in adulthood or never.
73
Q

What are gender stereotypes?

A
  • Gender Stereotypes: an oversimplified or distorted generalization about the characteristics of men and women
  • When gender roles become so rigid and engrained they become stereotypes
  • Ex. Pink for girls, blue for boys. Kitchen toys for girls, car toys for boys.
74
Q

What are gender roles?

A
  • The pattern of masculine or feminine behaviour of an individual that is
    defined by a particular culture and that is largely determined by a person’s upbringing
  • Gender roles give meaning to sexual gendered identity
75
Q

What is gender intensification hypothesis?

A
  • Idea that pressures to behave in sex-appropriate ways intensify during adolescence
  • The intensification is believed to be temporary and more influential for females
  • This could result from social pressure
76
Q

Sex role inventory, androgeneous, undifferentiated

A
  • Traits such as ambition, self-reliance, independence, and assertiveness were considered desirable for men
  • Traits such as affectionate, gentle, understanding, and sensitive to the needs of others were desirable for women
  • Out of 1500 students samples, 50% adhered to traditional sex or gender roles, 15% were cross typed, and 36% were considered androgynous
77
Q

What is androgyny to Sandra Bem?

A

Bem argued that people should accept androgynous roles: roles that involve a flexible combination of traditionally male and female characteristics - High feminine score and high masculine score

78
Q

What is undifferentiated gender to Sandra Bem?

A

Low feminine score and low masculine score

79
Q

Socialization, agents

A

Socialization he process by which people learn what they need to know to become a member of society
Allows new members to learn the accepted ways of behaving within a specific culture:
- How to act
- What to think
- How to present themselves

Social contacts or influences that ‘socialize’ us:
- Media
- Family
- School
- Technology
- Workplace
- Neighbourhood

80
Q

What is resocialisation?

A

Adults are resocialized every time they get a new job, a new home, have their first child, etc.
Resocialization is adapting to a new culture and environment

81
Q

What is anticipatory socialization?

A

Occurs when we start learning new norms and values in anticipation of a role we will occupy in the future

Examples:
Living together before marrying someone, basic training

82
Q

What is identity diffusion?

A

the state of having no clear idea of one’s identity and making no attempt to find that identity. These adolescents may have struggled to find their identity, but they never resolved it, and they seem to have stopped trying. There is no commitment and no searching.

83
Q

What is identity foreclosure?

A

the adolescent blindly accepts the identity and values that were given in childhood by families and significant others. The adolescent’s identity is foreclosed until they determine for themselves their true identity. The adolescent in this state is committed to an identity but not as a result of their own searching or crisis.

84
Q

What is identity moratorium?

A

adolescent has acquired vague or ill-formed ideological and occupational commitments; he/she is still undergoing the identity search (crisis). They are beginning to commit to an identity but are still developing it.

85
Q

What is identity achievement?

A

the state of having developed well-defined personal values and self-concepts. Their identities may be expanded and further defined in adulthood, but the basics are there. They are committed to an ideology and have a strong sense of ego identity.

86
Q

What are the identity states?

A
  • Diffusion
  • Moratorium
  • Foreclosure
  • Achievement
87
Q

Predictors of friends/types of friendship

A
  • Physical appearance
  • Proximity
  • Rewards
  • Approval
  • Similarity
  • Complimentary
88
Q

What is a neuron?

A

Thin cells of nerve tissue that messages to and from the brain travel on

89
Q

What is a dendrite?

A
  • The arms of a neuron
  • Protrude from the cell body
  • Receive impulses/messages and send them to the cell body
90
Q

What is the cell body?

A
  • A roundish main part of the neuron
  • Receives messages from the dendrites
  • Sends the message to the axon
91
Q

What is the nucleus?

A
  • Powers the neuron/keep sit alive
92
Q

What is the axon?

A
  • Sausage link lookin ass
  • Receives messages from cell body and send it to axon terminals
93
Q

What are axon terminals?

A
  • Protrude from end of axon
  • Connects to dendrites of the next neuron
  • Sends message to the next neuron
94
Q

What is the myelin sheath?

A
  • Fatty layer that insulates/protects the axon
  • Speeds message transmission
95
Q

What is a synapse?

A

A gap between individual nerve cells
- Moves messages from one neuron to another through chemicals known as neurotransmitters, a chemical that opens up receptors
- Only dendrites have receptors, so it (The synapse) keeps the message going in one direction

96
Q

What is the node of Ranvier

A

Nodes of Ranvier are gaps in the myelin sheath coating on the neural axon. The myelin allows the electrical impulse to move quickly down the axon. The nodes of Ranvier allow for ions to diffuse in and out of the neuron, propagating the electrical signal down the axon

97
Q

What is a sensory neuron?

A

Sensory neurons are the nerve cells that are activated by sensory input from the environment

98
Q

What is a motor neuron?

A

Motor neurons are cells in the brain and spinal cord that allow us to move, speak, swallow and breathe by sending commands from the brain to the muscles that carry out these functions.

99
Q

What is an interneuron?

A

a neuron that conveys impulses from one neuron to another

100
Q

Action potential

A

The action potential is an explosion of electrical activity that is created by a depolarizing current. This means that some event (a stimulus) causes the resting potential to move toward 0 mV. When the depolarization reaches about -55 mV a neuron will fire an action potential.

101
Q

Neurotransmitter

A

a chemical that opens up receptors

102
Q

All or nothing

A

The synapse- how neurons communicate- that are not used are removed from the brain

103
Q

Saltatory Conduction

A

Saltatory conduction describes the way an electrical impulse skips from node to node down the full length of an axon, speeding the arrival of the impulse at the nerve terminal in comparison with the slower continuous progression of depolarization spreading down an unmyelinated axon.
- Myelin sheath make things go zoom

104
Q

Hindbrain location and structures

A
  • Located at the rear base of the skull
  • Cerebellum
  • Pons
  • Medulla
  • Spinal cord
105
Q

Midbrain location and structures

A
  • Located superior to the pons at at the topmost part of the brain stem
  • Pons
  • Medulla
  • Reticular activating system (RAS)
  • Colliculi
  • Tegmentum
  • Cerebral peduncle
106
Q

Forebrain location and structures

A
  • Located all around the central core
    Cerebrum
  • Cortex

Limbic system
- Thalamus
- Hypothalamus
- Amygdala
- Hippocampus

107
Q

What are the parts of the central nervous system?

A

Brain and spinal cord

108
Q

What are the two parts of the peripheral nervous system?

A

Somatic and autonomic

109
Q

Reflex

A

Coordinated by the spinal cord

110
Q

Cerebral spinal fluid

A
  • Fills the ventricles in the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord
  • It functions in circulation of hormones, nutrients and white blood cells and in absorption of shock
111
Q

Lobes of cerebrum

A
  • Frontal
  • Parietal
  • Occipital
  • Temporal
112
Q

Corpus callosum

A

The two hemispheres are connected by a thick fibrous band called the corpus callosum

113
Q

Genetic programming theory

A
  • A normal developmental timetable is built into our genes
  • Caused by a pre-set biological clock that limits the number of times cells can divide and multiply
  • Environmental influences play little to no role in the aging process
  • Programmed Senescence: specific genes shut off
  • Hormonal Changes: clock acts through hormones that control aging
  • Immune System: a decline in the immune system that causes the body to be susceptible to aging
114
Q

Variable rate theory

A
  • Aging is the result of processes that vary from person to person
  • Aging is the process influenced by the internal and external environment
  • Aging is the result of the breakdown in our bodies’ cells, or unexpected damage to our biological systems
  • Wear and Tear: the body system accumulates damage through use, which can be accelerated by stress
  • Somatic Mutation: genetic mutations occur and accumulate with increasing age, causing cells to deteriorate and malfunction
115
Q

What are the four factors that define learning?

A
  1. Learning is inferred from a change in behaviour/performance
  2. Learning results in an inferred change in memory
  3. Learning is the result of experience
  4. Learning is relatively permanent
116
Q

Behaviour potential

A

Behavior potential is the likelihood of engaging in a particular behavior in a specific situation - a sign of learning

117
Q

Classical conditioning

A

Conditioning an involuntary response to a stimulus

118
Q

Operant conditioning, reinforcement

A
  • Conditioning a voluntary response to a stimulus
  • in Operant Conditioning, the controlling stimulus comes after the behaviour
  • Ex. Making a dog sit to get a treat
119
Q

What are the four reinforcement schedules?

A

Fixed ratio
- A reward is received after a fixed number of times a behaviour is performed
Variable ratio
- A reward is received after a variable/random amount of times a behaviour is performed
Fixed interval
- A reward is received after a fixed period of time which they had to perform the desired behaviour
(Working hard for 5 mins)
Variable interval
- A reward is received after a variable/random period of time which they had to perform the desired behaviour

120
Q

What are types of social learning?

A
  • Modeling: learning by imitating others
  • Observational Learning: learning and doing something that you didn’t know before - learned by watching
  • Disinhibition: watching activity ‘misbehaving’ without punishment, subject is more likely to misbehave
121
Q

What are the two different kinds of intelligences?

A

Fluid
- Ability to solve abstract relational problems and to generate new hypothesis
- Capacity to process novel information
- Requires the ability to understand relationships and make inferences
- Ability improves as nervous system matures
- As nervous system declines, so does ability to solve these problems - due to difficulty in generating new ideas
- Not related to education

  • solving puzzles
  • constructing strategies to deal with new problems
  • seeing patterns in statistical data
  • engaging in speculative philosophical reasoning

Crystalized
- Consists of learned information and experience
- Ability to use accumulated knowledge and learning in appropriate situations
- Acquired over a lifetime and increases with age and experience
- Dependent on education, cultural background and memory
language comprehension and mathematical reasoning

122
Q

IQ (intelligence quotient)

A
  • evaluate intellectual and emotional temperament for job classification
  • the military and police to screen potential applicants. Admission requirements were based on IQ results
  • North American education systems identify “gifted and talented” students as well as those with “special needs”

Cons
- Intelligence tests are culture specific. For example a wide knowledge of medicinal herbs would be considered highly intelligent in one culture but not necessarily in a western one. IQ tests can not objectively measure intelligence in culturally diverse settings.
- IQ test questions all have one right answer. They ignore other factors such as creativity, emotion, social skills, motivation or even morality.

123
Q

Multiple intelligence

A
  • The theory of multiple intelligences differentiates human intelligence into specific ‘modalities’, rather than seeing intelligence as dominated by a single general ability.
  • Howard Gardner proposed this model in 1983

The different intelligences are
- Verbal
- Logical/mathematical
- Naturalist
- Bodily/Kinesthetic
- Musical
- Interpersonal (Social)
- Intrapersonal (Independence)
- Visual/Spatial

124
Q

Memory, encoding, storage, retrieval

A

Encoding
- The processing of information into the memory system.
Storage
- The retention of encoded material over time.
Retrieval
- The process of getting the information out of memory storage.

125
Q

What are the three stages of memory?

A

Sensory
- Visual, auditory, and olfactory information
- Transfers to short-term memory

short-term
- Stores seven single or chunked items for 30 seconds without repetition
- Solves problems through reasoning process (example: organizing facts into coherent essay)

long term memory
- Information and associations between information stored indefinitely

The ability to transfer information from short term to long term memory is relevant to the learning process:
- People use attention, repetition and association with past learning to encode information
- Neurologically, encoding happens when information is repeatedly processed in the hippocampus

126
Q

What are the types of long term memory?

A

Declarative memory
- memories that can be consciously recalled like facts & knowledge
- thought to be stored in the temporal cortex

Non-declarative memory
-encoded by cerebellum independent of the hippocampus regulation, involves use of objects and movements, considered to be unconscious memory

Episodic
- specific personal experiences are stored
- events that occurred at a specific time and place, such as your 6th birthday party.

Semantic
-Stored factual information

127
Q

Recency Effect

A

a bias that results in a subject recalling most recent information presented better than information presented earlier on.

128
Q

Primacy Effect

A

a cognitive bias that results in a subject recalling primary information presented better than information presented later on.

129
Q

Amnesias

A

Retrograde amnesia
- Head trauma or other temporary disruption of normal brain functioning interrupts storage of memories of events just BEFORE the trauma

Anterograde amnesia
- Damage to memory system impairs ability to store new memories AFTER the damage

Repression
- Cases of memory loss support the proposal that we have different types of memory (STM vs LTM; declarative vs nondeclarative)

130
Q

Incontinence

A

the involuntary passing of urine or stool may occur as health deteriorates

131
Q

Presbyopia

A

A slow decrease in the ability to focus on nearby objects

132
Q

Macular Degeneration

A

Is an eye disease that cause the people to have difficulty seeing object inside the center of the field of vision

133
Q

Cataracts

A

As people age the lens of the eye thickens causing cloudy or distorted vision

134
Q

Glaucoma

A
  • Is an eye condition that involves damage to the optic nerve
  • This is caused by fluid build up that puts pressure on the nerve
135
Q

Tinnitus

A

Ringing sound in ears

136
Q

Osteoporosis

A
  • Causes brittle less dense bones
  • It can cause some adults to be hunched over and standing up straight is difficult
  • Bones break more easily
137
Q

Sarcopenia

A

The loss of muscle mass and strength, continues to decrease

138
Q

Lenneberg

A

Critical period guy

139
Q

Freud

A
  • Psychosexual development fucko
  • Founding father of psychoanalysis
140
Q

Erikson

A
  • Freuds bitch
  • known for his theory of psychosocial development
  • He may be most famous for coining the phrase identity crisis.
141
Q

Piaget

A
  • known for his work on child development
  • He is known for his theory of cognitive development
  • Placed great importance on the education of children
142
Q

Kohlberg

A
  • known for his theory of stages of moral development
143
Q

Lorenz

A
  • Imprinting theory guy
  • imprinting occurs when an animal forms an attachment to the first thing it sees upon hatching
144
Q

Harlow and Zimmermen

A
  • attachment develops as a result of needing tactile comfort, such as wanting to touch and cling to something or someone for emotional support
145
Q

Bowlby

A

Bowlby believed that the earliest bonds formed by children with their caregivers have a tremendous impact that continues throughout life. He suggested that attachment also serves to keep the infant close to the mother, thus improving the child’s chances of survival

146
Q

Ainsworth

A

Ainsworth’s maternal sensitivity hypothesis argues that a child’s attachment style depends on their mother’s behavior towards them. ‘Sensitive’ mothers are responsive to the child’s needs and respond to their moods and feelings correctly. Sensitive mothers are more likely to have securely attached children.

147
Q

Kagan

A

Kagan has shown that an infant’s “temperament” is quite stable over time, in that certain behaviors in infancy are predictive of certain other behavior patterns in adolescence

148
Q

Baumrind

A

Parenting styles guy

149
Q

Bem

A
  • Sandra Bem is an American psychologist known for her work in gender studies
  • Responsible for the sex role inventory
150
Q

Marcia

A

James Marcia’s theory of development states that identity results from a series of choices made by people, usually in adolescence. These choices, regarding which ideologies, occupations, relationships, hobbies, and genders a person has incorporated into their identity, are affected by conflict and commitment

151
Q

Bandura

A

Albert Bandura’s social learning theory suggests that observation and modeling play a primary role in how and why people learn. Bandura’s theory goes beyond the perception of learning being the result of direct experience with the environment.

152
Q

Kubler-Ross

A

she proposed the patient-focused, death-adjustment pattern, the “Five Stages of Grief.” Those stages are denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance

153
Q

Pavlov

A

Classical conditioning with the dog

154
Q

Skinner

A

Skinner’s learning theory states that a person is exposed to a stimulus, which evokes a response, and then the response is reinforced (stimulus creates response, and then reinforcement). This finally leads to the human behavior conditioning.

155
Q

Developmental milestones of old age

A
  • Muscles and fat breakdown
  • Loss of up to 80% visual acuity
156
Q

Developmental milestones of adulthood

A
  • Menopause/climacteric
  • Joints deteriorate