Exam prep Flashcards

1
Q

How do you determine control of a subsidiary?

A

The parent must have all of the following:

  • Power over the investee
  • Exposure to or rights to variable returns from its involvement with the investee
  • Ability to affect those returns through its power over the investee
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do you determine significant influence over a subsidiary?

A

Presumed if 20% of more voting power is achieved. However, can be evidenced in other ways, eg:

  • Representation on the board
  • Participation in policy making
  • Material transactions between the two parties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the different types of control for a parent and subsidiary?

A

Control
Significant Influence
Joint Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When may a company be exempt from preparing group accounts?

A

If all of the following are true:

  • If it is a subsidiary or partially owned subsidiary and its owners do not object to the parent not presenting consolidated statements
  • Not publically traded (or in process of being traded)
  • The ultimate owner publishes consolidated accounts that comply with IFRS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is done when a subsidiary has a different reporting date from the parent?

A
  • they may prepare additional statements to the reporting date of the group
  • if this is not possible, their accounts may still be used for consolidation if the gap is less than 3 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the protocol for adjustments to provisional fair values of a subsidiaries net assets?

A
  • if the adjustment is within the measurement period (<12 mnths from acquisition), an adjustment is made retrospectively and goodwill is recalculated
  • if not within the measurement period, they are treated as a change in accounting estimate and adjusted for prospectively
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which share price date is used when valuing deferred share consideration?

A

Date of acquisition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a joint arrangement and what are the two main types?

A

Where two or more parties have joint control

  • Joint Operations (no separate entity, parties have rights to assets and obligations for liabilities)
  • Joint Ventures (separate legal entity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the characteristics of an intangible asset?

A
  • Has no physical substance
  • It is identifiable
  • Probable economic benefit flowing to the entity as a result and cost can be measured reliably
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are intangibles amortised/impaired?

A
  • If there is a UEL, amortise
  • If there is no UEL, perform impairment review each year
  • If it is being amortised, impairment reviews should only be conducted if there is some indication of impairment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should development costs be capitalised?

A
Profit made on project
Intention to use/sell product
Resources available to complete project
Ability to use/sell the product
Technically feasible
Expenditure is identifiable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the two types of events after the reporting period?

A
  • Adjusting events - evidence of conditions which existed at the reporting date
  • Non-adjusting events
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When should a provision be recognised?

A
  • An entity has a present obligation arising from a past event
  • It is probable that there will be an outflow of economic benefit
  • A reasonable estimate can be made of the amount
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a contingent liability and how should it be disclosed?

A
  • It is a possible obligation of a present obligation that is not probable or cannot be measured reliably
  • It should be disclosed in the statements unless the outflow of benefits is deemed remote
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What changes in use may mean an investment property ceases to be recognised as such?

A
  • Commencement of owner occupation
  • Commencement of development with a view to resale
  • Development with a view to continue letting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly