EXAM QS I GET WRONG Flashcards

1
Q

What do you do if a patient is on 500mg metformin 3x a day and complaining of diarrhoea?

A

GI side effects are common with metformin and can occur in up to 20% patients.
This patient is on immediate release as he takes it 3x a day
We can switch it to the modified release variant which is usually given once daily instead

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2
Q

How to differentiate the causes of primary hyperaldosteronism?

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism =Conns syndrome
caused by adrenal adenoma secreting aldosterone, this is the most common cause
Other causes are bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
To differentiate these two causes, imaging (CT) is used- if this doesn’t produce adequate results-perform adrenal venous sampling
If the cause is bilateral hyperplasia: you’d have bilaterally increased aldosterone in adrenal veins
If it’s an adrenal adenoma- unilateral increased aldosterone in adrenal vein

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3
Q

Endocrine parameters reduced in stress response- which hormones are reduced during major surgery?

A

Insulin
Testosterone
Oestrogen

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4
Q

In suspected cases of Graves disease what medication can be used to manage symptoms whilst patient is waiting to see endocrinologist?

A

Propanalol- non-selective BB, prevents the adrenergic effects of hyperthyroid
Works quickly to help control the symptoms

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5
Q

What drugs do you prescribe for controlling htn in pheochromocytoma?

A

Alpha and beta blockers

Remember labetalol blocks both alpha and beta

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6
Q

Female pt with hypothyroidism, treatment during pregnancy?

A

Women with hypothyroidism may need to increase their thyroid hormone replacement dose by up to 50% as early as 4-6 weeks of pregnancy

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7
Q

Is breast-feeding safe whilst on thyroxine?

A

Yes

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8
Q

Treatment of thyroid storm

A

Symptomatic- paracetamol
Treat cause
Beta blockers- IV propanolol
Anti-thyroid drugs- (thionamides)-methimazole or PTU
Lugol’s iodine
Dexamethasone- blocks conversion of T4 to T3

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9
Q

Role of steroids in thyrotoxic crisis

A

Blocks conversion T4 to T3

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10
Q

What is thyroid acropachy

A

Triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling hands & feet, periosteal new bone formation
Specific to Graves’

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11
Q

Side effects of metaclopramide

A

Very common- diarrhoea, drowsy, hypotension, menstrual cycle irregularities, parkinsonism
Uncommon- arrhythmias
Rare- galactorrhoea, confusion, seizure

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12
Q

T1DM blood glucose targets

A

5-7 mmol/l on waking and
4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day

under 4 you hit the floor, over 7 you may go to heaven

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13
Q

Addison’s patient unwell- what to do about their medications?

A

Double the glucocorticoids (hydrocortisone)

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14
Q

Child with palpable abdominal mass or unexplained enlarged abdominal organ- what to do

A

Refer very urgently <48 hrs for specialist assessment for neuroblastoma and Wilms’ tumour
Malignancy until proven otherwise

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15
Q

What is primigravid

A

Pregnant for first time

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16
Q

Most common cause of primary hypothyroidism

A

In UK- Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

In the developing world- iodine deficiency

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17
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis = ?

A

hypothyroidism + goitre + anti-TPO

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18
Q

What is sick euthyroid syndrome

A

Where TSH, thyroxine and T3 are all low
But most of the time TSH is normal
No treatment usually necessary-repeat TFTs in 6wks

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19
Q

What drug causes hyperCa

A

Thiazides- increase calcium reabsorption in DCT because they block NaCl on apical side, which reduces Na conc in DCT cells, which upregulates Na/Ca antiporter on basolat side, meaning more Na influx into the cells and calcium efflux into systemic circulation –> hyperCa and hypoNa

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20
Q

How to monitor recurrence in medullary thyroid cancers?

A

Medullary thyroid cancers often secrete calcitonin and monitoring the serum levels of this hormone is useful in detecting sub clinical recurrence.
They are a part of MEN-2

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21
Q

How to differentiate causes of diabetes insipidus

A

Water deprivation test: cranial DI
urine osmolality after fluid deprivation: low
urine osmolality after desmopressin: high

Nephrogenic DI;
Osmolality remains low

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22
Q

2 main causes of high calcium

A

malignancy and primary hyperPTH account for 90% cases

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23
Q

Treating thyrotoxic storm (3)

A

1- BB
2- PTU
3- hydrocortisone

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24
Q

Graves’ disease antibodies

A

TSH receptor stimulating antibodies

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25
Most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism
Bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia 70% cases
26
Anti coagulant of choice in AKI
Warfarin- generally safe to continue
27
Renal transplant complications
Early e.g. infection, urinary leak, haemorrhage, impaired graft function. Late e.g. lymphocele, ureteric stenosis, renal artery thrombosis.
28
Key blood test for rhabdomyolysis
creatine kinase - elevates in first 12 hrs and remains high for 1-3 days
29
Complications AKI
Metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia, uraemia, pulmonary oedema
30
What is the cause of renal artery stenosis in young pts
Fibromuscular dysplasia
31
Causes to remember of sterile pyuria
renal TB, partially treated UTI, drug causes (antibiotics, NSAIDs, PPI, cyclophosphamide), urinary tract stones, and papillary necrosis.
32
Assessment of sleepiness (OSA)
Epworth sleepiness scale- done by patient +/- partner
33
Pigmented gallstones are associated with...
Sickle cell anaemia
34
Drugs causing pancreatitis
azathioprine, mesalazine, didanosine, bendroflumethiazide, furosemide, pentamidine, steroids, sodium valproate
35
Where does breast cancer metastasise...
Lungs, Liver, Bones, Brain
36
Gastric MALT lymphoma...
H Pylori eradication
37
Sudden onset abdominal pain, very intense and severe- out of proportion with clinical findings... has AF and htn
Mesenteric ischaemia
38
Who gets urgent colorectal 2WW referral
patients >= 40 years with unexplained weight loss AND abdominal pain patients >= 50 years with unexplained rectal bleeding patients >= 60 years with iron deficiency anaemia OR change in bowel habit tests show occult blood in their faeces (see below)
39
Caecal volvulus associations
all ages adhesions pregnancy
40
Duke staging
A- mucosa B- bowel wall C- lymph node mets D- distant mets
41
Acute limb ischaemia in age <50 what ix to do
Thrombophilia screen
42
Gynaecomastia- which lung cancer
Adenocarcinoma
43
Features of Addisonian crisis
Hyponatraemia Hyperkalaemia Hypoglycaemia
44
Galactorrhoea drugs
Metaclopramide, domperidone | Haloperidol
45
Painful shin rash + cough → ?
sarcoidosis
46
NIV for COPD pts when?
NIV should be considered in all patients with an acute exacerbation of COPD in whom a respiratory acidosis (PaCO2>6kPa, pH <7.35 ≥7.26) persists despite immediate maximum standard medical treatment
47
Facial rash plus lymphadenopathy think?
Sarcoidosis
48
Can alpha1 anti trypsin deficiency be diagnosed prenatally?
Yes | via Amniocentesis
49
bronchiectasis and eosinophilia...?
Allergic bronchopulmonary asperigillosis
50
Vaccinations for COPD pt?
Annual influenza + one-off pneumococcal
51
Where is the triangle of safety?
The triangle of safety for chest drain insertion involves the base of the axilla, lateral edge pectoralis major, 5th intercostal space and the anterior border of latissimus dorsi
52
Causes of ILD
Drugs- methotrexate, amiodarone, nitrofurantoin, cyclophosphamide Other causes- idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, sarcoidosis, systemic sclerosis, asbestosis
53
Gold standard ix for ILD
High resolution CT scan- ground glass appearance
54
Kartagener's syndrome
triad of bronchiectasis, sinusitis (Primary ciliary dyskinesia), and situs inversus (all organs are on opposite side- heart on R, stomach bubble seen on R) + subfertility
55
Young's syndrome
triad of bronchiectasis, sinusitis, and reduced | fertility
56
Bronchiectasis- who gets pulm rehab
MRC >3 (breathless walking flat, has to walk slower than everyone else)
57
Causes of upper zone lung fibrosis
CHARTS Coal workers’ pneumoconiosis Histiocytosis Ankylosing spondylitis/Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis Radiation Tuberculosis Silicosis (progressive massive fibrosis), sarcoidosis
58
Treatment of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
First line is prednisolone | Second line is itraconazole
59
How is asthma diagnosed?
An exhaled FeNO of 40 parts per billion or greater A post-bronchodilator improvement in lung volume of 200 ml A post-bronchodilator improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more A peak expiratory flow rate variability of 20% or more An FEV1/FVC ratio <70% (it is an obstructive lung disease)
60
Contraindications to lung cancer surgery
SVC obstruction, FEV < 1.5, MALIGNANT pleural effusion, and vocal cord paralysis
61
Acute respiratory distress syndrome is a complication of what?
Acute pancreatitis
62
Does biliary colic radiate?
Yes interscapular region
63
Fluctuating cognition- which dementia?
Lewy Bodies
64
Differentiating LB dementia from Parkinson dementia?
Lewy body dementia can be differentiated from idiopathic Parkinson's disease dementia by the time of onset of the dementia compared to the motor symptoms- LB 1year before parkinsonian symptoms
65
How is orthostatic hypotension diagnosed
a. A drop in systolic BP of 20mmHg or more (with or without symptoms) b. A drop to below 90mmHg on standing even if the drop is less than 20mmHg (with or without symptoms) c. A drop in diastolic BP of 10mmHg with symptoms (although clinically much less significant than a drop in systolic BP).
66
Causes of delirium
``` PINCH ME Pain Infection Nutrition Constipation Hydration ``` Medications Environment/ Electrolytes
67
When is S3 normal
<30years
68
Causes of S3
Diastolic filling of ventricle Normal < 30 (can persist up to age 50 in female) heard in LV failure (eg dilated cardiomyopathy), constrictive pericarditis (pericardial knock) and MR
69
Causes of S4
Aortic stenosis, HOCM, htn | Caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle therefore coincides with P wave on ECG
70
What valvular pathology is associated with PCKD
Mitral valve prolapse
71
Most common ECG sign for PE
Sinus tachycardia
72
Less common ECG signs for PE
RBBB T wave inversion and ST depression in V1 and V2 S1Q3T3- indicating right heart strain- it is the ECG pattern that most likely suggests PE but it is not the most common its quite rare
73
Causes of VT
HypoK is the most important clinical cause | hypoMg next
74
DVLA advice post MI
cannot drive for 4 weeks
75
First line gout
NAPROXEN- NSAIDs
76
Second line gout
COLCHICINE
77
Prophylaxis gout
ALLOPURINOL- URATE LOWERING THERAPY
78
Name some vaccines you shouldn't give to immunocompromised
LIVE VACCINES AKA ****MI BOOTY**** MMR Intranasal Influenza ``` BCG Oral Rotavirus Oral polio (double check this one) Typhoid Yellow Fever ```
79
Maintaining remission for Crohns
Azathioprine or mercaptopurine first line
80
Mx of C diff
Oral metronidazole 10-14 days | stop opioids
81
Severe flare UC
IV corticosteroids - hydrocortisone or methylprednisolone
82
Diagnosis of SBP
Paracentesis | Confirmed by neutrophil count >250 cells /ul
83
side effects PPI
Hyponatraemia hypoMg osteoporosis C diff infections
84
Gold standard diagnosis of Coeliac disease
Endoscopic intestinal biopsy | Perform in all pts if suspecting following pathology
85
Ankylosing spondylitis X-ray
Sacroiliitis-Subchondral erosions, sclerosis Squaring lumbar vertebrae Bamboo sign- late, uncommon syndesmophytes CXR- apical fibrosis
86
Which antibodies to test to rule out SLE
ANA
87
which RA drug can cause reactivation of TB
Etanercept
88
Features of PM
Age 60+ rapid onset <1mnth Aching, morning stiffness proximal limb muscles Raised inflamamtory markers Normal CK
89
Tennis elbow
Lateral epicondylitis | Worse on resisted wrist extension/suppination when elbow extended
90
Which immunoglobulin is passed to baby in breast milk
IgA
91
Septic arthritis abx
IV flucloxacillin
92
Pt about to be put on long term steroid, what is your approach to bone protection
Oral alendronate ensure calcium and vit D supplements immediately
93
Imaging for alkylosing spondylitis
Sacro-ilitis on pelvix X ray
94
Which TB drug causes drug-induced lupus
isoniazid