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Pathogenic Microbiology > Exam questions > Flashcards

Exam questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Factor D protein is a part of the?

A

Alternate complement activation pathway

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2
Q

This antibody is produced by the adaptive immune system and is secreted in mucous

A

IgA

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3
Q

What are exotoxins?

A

Proteins that are secreted by bacteria that cause damage to the host

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4
Q

Which gram stain has a thick cell wall?

A

Gram positive

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5
Q

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is ___ found in ___

A

A PAMP, the outer membranes of gram negative bacteria

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6
Q

Which complement protein acts as an opsonin (promotes phagocytosis by macrophages, dendritic cells and neutrophils?)

A

C3b

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7
Q

Virulence is…

A

The measure of the severity of a disease caused by an organism

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8
Q

The process where an activated T or B cell is stimulated to grow and divide

A

Clonal expansion

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9
Q

_____ antigens acquired through phagocytosis are presented to the adaptive immune system via ____

A

Exogenous, MHC class II

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10
Q

This protein binds antigen on the surfaces of microorganisms and promotes phagocytosis

A

IgG antibody

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11
Q

During an inflammatory response _____ activates _____ which results in the release of _____ from mast ells and dilation of capillaries at infection

A

Kallikrein, Bradykinin, Histamine

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12
Q

______ are adaptive immune cells that recognize cells infected by virus

A

CD8 T-cells

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13
Q

A vaccine composed of viral proteins linked to a carrier protein which is given intramuscularly every year.
Immunization type and vaccine type

A

Active immunization, subunit vaccine

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14
Q

What are lipopolysaccharide, lipoteichoic acid and peptidoglycan?

A

PAMPs that stimulate an innate immune response

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15
Q

In general, ____ are the best immunogens, _____ are weaker immunogens and _____ are poor immunogens

A

Proteins, carbohydrates and lipids

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16
Q

What is not a mechanism of antibiotic activity?

A

Inhibition of glucose import

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17
Q

What is a mechanism of antibiotic activity?

A

Inhibition of cell wall biosynthesis, translation and DNA replication

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18
Q

Transfer of genetic material with cell-cell contact is _______

A

Conjugation

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19
Q

Transfer of genetic material via bacteriophage is ______

A

Transduction

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20
Q

Higher phenol coefficient means

A

It is more effective at killing a bacteria

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21
Q

What does the lymphatic system do

A

The lymphatic system pumps lymph fluid through a system of vessels and ducts using smooth muscle contraction

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22
Q

What chemicals from invading microorganism cause fever?

A

Exogenous pyrogens

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23
Q

What is V, D and J recombination referring to?

A

Antibody gene coding regions are combined to produce antibody that responds to different antigens

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24
Q

The primary function of ______ is to modulate the immune response by secreting cytokines and interacting with B cells

A

CD4 T-cells

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25
What are traits of T cell receptors?
They bind specific antigens, they interact with antigen-bound MHC II protein, and they are surface proteins of T cells
26
Is a higher or lower ID50 considered more pathogenic?
A lower ID50
27
T-dependent antigens are large repetitive structures that
are sufficient to directly activate B cells to make IgM
28
MHC I proteins....
present cell, viral and intracellular bacterial antigens
29
Pathogenicity is...
the measure of ability of an organism to cause disease
30
What type of transmission is characterized by receiving disease from a bug?
Indirect transmission
31
What does protective antigen of B. anthracis do?
It interacts with edema factor (EF) and lethal factor (LF) allowing both proteins to enter the cytoplasm of cells
32
Scarlet fever is a complication of _____ and is a result of the production and secretion of ______
Streptococcal pharyngitis, Spe toxin
33
________ is an intracellular pathogen
Legionella pneumophila, Shigella, Listeria monocytogenes
34
What does Listeria do to avoid diestion?
It escapes the phagosome
35
What does legionella do to avoid digestion?
It blocks the lysosome from fusing with the phagosome
36
Food poisoning due to B.cereus infection is
point source spread
37
What does the Dot/Icm system in legionella do?
It inhibits the fusion of the phagosome with the lysosome
38
What is TSST an example of?
A superantigen
39
What stain does mycobacterium tuberculosis require?
Acid-fast stain
40
What antibiotic is used for S.pyogenes?
Penicillin
41
What symptom is caused by Listeria that is not diarrhea, nausea, fever and myalgia?
Miscarriages
42
Diphtheria toxin:
Inhibits translation
43
Does tuberculosis have a fast or slow doubling time?
slow
44
Which cell types are observed in a fibrotic caseous granuloma in latent tuberculosis
macrophages, CD-4 T cells and CD8 T cells
45
What types of infections can S.aureus cause?
Cutaneous, sinus, ear, and foodborne illnesses
46
Emetic food poisoning by B.cereus is _____ while diarrheal is _______
Intoxication, infection
47
Alveolar macrophages
Keep the alveoli of the lung sterile by phagocytosing and destroying bacteria
48
Can endospores secrete toxin?
No, they need to infect vegetative cells
49
Tracheal cytotoxin is a virulence factor of ______ that inhibits mucociliary clearance in upper respiratory tract
Bordetella pertussis
50
______ shows seasonal incidence in the summer
Otitis externa
51
How does S.pneumoniae avoid immune clearance?
It has a capsule that inhibits complement binding and lysis and phagocytosis
52
Does S.pyogenes have a vaccine?
No
53
What is an identifying symptom of diptheria?
White pseudomembrane on nasopharynx
54
What drugs are used against B. anthracis
Ciprofloxacin or Doxycycline
55
What is the treatment process for active tuberculosis?
First 8 weeks: - Isoniazid - Ethambutol - Pyrazinamide - Rifampicin Next 26 weeks: - Isoniazid - Rifampicin
56
Treatment process for latent tuberculosis?
36 weeks of Isoniazid or 12 weeks of Isoniazid and Rifampentine
57
Testing for tuberculosis
Mantoux test, chest X-ray and IFNy release test. PCR test, sputum culture with acid fast stain
58
Which E.coli is intracellular?
Urinary Pathogenic E.coli
59
______ is an intracellular pathogen that replicates freely in the cytoplasm
Shigella dysenteriae
60
Can clostridium tetani form endospores?
yes
61
What is the natural reservoir for N. gonorrheae
Humans
62
What is a symptom of foodborne botulism?
Flaccid paralysis
63
Infection by _____ may cause Typhoid fever
Salmonella enterica Typhi
64
Foodborne botulism is caused by....
food contaminated with botulinum toxin
65
C. perfringens alpha toxin is a _____ that ____________
cytolytic toxin that damages cell membranes
66
What is common among all clostridium species?
They all form endospores
67
What does Shiga toxin do?
Inhibits protein synthesis
68
Which E.coli expresses Shiga toxin?
EHEC
69
What is the sylvatic cycle
The cycle of infection of wild rodents by Yersinia pestis
70
What is not a common characteristic of Enterobacteriaceae
They all ferment lactose
71
What are common characteristics of enterobacteriaceae
All facultative anaerobes, all gram neg, all rods
72
During EPEC infections, _____ binds bacterial protein _____ leading to pedestal formation
Tir, Intimin
73
What happens when S. enterica lacks the SP-2 pathogenicity island?
It cannot replicate intracellularly
74
What is a test done for C. perfringens?
Nagler reaction
75
What are common symptoms and TSI slant of Shigella dysenteriae
Stool with blood and pus, tenesmus, K/A.
76
What toxin does Shigella dysenteriae release?
Shiga toxin
77
What agar is used for N. gonorrhea?
Thayer-martin or Martin-lewis
78
What intracellular pathogen modifies the phagosome and establishes a reproductive vacuole
S. enterica
79
Antibiotics for Yersinia pestis
Streptomycin or gentamycin

Pathogenic Microbiology (3 decks)

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