Exam Questions Flashcards
(144 cards)
1
Q
Gas Piping and Fittings: Medium Gas Pressure is:
A) 25-50 PSIG
B)12-40 PSIG
C)2-60 PSIG
A
C) 2 to 60 PSIG
2
Q
Pipe fitting for natural gas must conform to the _______ regulations
A)C.G.A
B)T.S.S.A
C)U.L.
D)A.N.S.I
A
A)C.G.A
3
Q
Which piping material is not used in natural gas piping?
A)Steel
B)H.D.P.E
C) copper
D) galvanized
A
D) galvanized
4
Q
Type M&L, copper can be used above ground to convey natural gas. True or false?
A
False
5
Q
Take off for gas appliances should be taken off the gas line at the ________ whenever possible.
A)Top
B)Side
C)Bottom
A
A) Top
6
Q
Gas piping underground should be buried to a depth of _______ minimum
A) 12”
B) 15”
C) 24”
A
B) 15”
7
Q
The method for joining a 3” Natural Gas Line should be:
A)welded
B)grooved
C)threaded
D)flared
A
A)welded
8
Q
The minimum depth of a drip pocket should be:
A) 2”
B) 3”
C) 4”
D) 5”
A
B) 3”
9
Q
If the flu gas temperature is below the dewpoint you will create:
A) Carbon dioxide vapour
B) condensation
C) Mountain Dew
A
B) condensation
10
Q
The percentage of natural gas required at the burner for peak efficiency:
A) 2 to 12%
B) 3 to 13%
C) 4 to 14%
D) 5 to 15%
A
C) 4 to 14%
11
Q
Name the two types of air used in the process of complete combustion:
A) intake and exhaust
B) primary and secondary
C) nitrogen, and carbon dioxide
A
B) primary and secondary
12
Q
What agency test, new designs of appliances to ensure that carbon monoxide levels are kept extremely low?
A)CGA
B)TSSA
C)ULC
D)both a and C are correct
A
D) both a and c are correct
13
Q
True or false, the main purpose of venting gas appliances is to keep condensation from forming in the burner area
A
False
14
Q
Name material for type A vents:
A) double wall metal
B) masonry
C) oval, double wall material
D) single wall metal 18 gauge
A
B) masonry
15
Q
Aldehyde usually accompanies White as an indicator of incomplete combustion?:
A) carbon dioxide
B) carbon monoxide
C) nitrogen
D) acetylene
A
B) carbon monoxide
16
Q
Air for combustion (air, gas ratio) is how many cubic feet of air to one cubic foot of natural gas?
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25
A
A)10
17
Q
Which inert gas can be used for testing?
A) oxygen
B) nitrogen
C) acetylene
D) carbon monoxide
A
B) nitrogen
18
Q
What is the test pressure of gas main? That’s working pressure is 20 PSIG:
A) 25 psiG for half hour
B) 12 psiG for 12 hrs
C) 50 psiG for 12 hrs
D) 50 psiG for 24 hrs
A
D) 50 psiG for 24 hrs
19
Q
What is the test pressure for gas less than 1/2 psi and less than 100ft?
A) 25 psiG for 1/2 hr
B) 12 psiG for 12 hrs
C) 50 psiG for 12 hrs
D) 50 psiG for 24 hrs
A
A) 25 psiG for 1/2 hr
20
Q
Testing procedures and conditions are found in the Canadian gas association installation code:
A) B1941
B) B1497
C) B4191
D) B1491
A
D) B-149-1
21
Q
Pressure gauges should be calibrated and certified every?
A) three months
B) six months
C) yearly
A
C) yearly
22
Q
Piping used for purging Shall be reduced to ______ NPS at the outdoor purging point.
A)1”
B) 3/4”
C)1/2”
D)3/8”
A
C)1/2”
23
Q
Gas piping should be purged using the appliance_______ from the meter:
A) closest
B) furthest
C) approximate
D) middle of the centre drop Line
A
B) furthest
24
Q
Testing of gas piping systems use what method?
A) hydrostatic
B) pneumatic
C) Rockwell
D) sharpe
A
B) pneumatic
25
True or false, a major concern for public health, when working in plants that produce commodities for public consumption is product tampering
False
26
Which piece of equipment provides pressure balance for PWR cooling system
A)PRV
B) pressurization chamber
C) pasteurization chamber
D) perceptualizing chamber
B) pressurization chamber
27
The material used to shield against the escape of radiation from the reactor containment building is;
A) thick plates of stainless steel
B) thick walls of sand
C) thick layers of concrete
D) thick layers of sheet aluminum
C) thick layers of concrete
28
True or false, 1/2” welded steel plate, is used to seal the reactor contaminant buildings from the escape of radioactive vapour
False
29
Steam is produced for driving the turbine in a PWR nuclear plant by;
A) steam generator as a part of the primary loop
B) steam generator as a part of the secondary loop
C) the steam generated from the main reactor
D) steam from a third-party power plant
B) steam generator as a part of the secondary loop
30
True or false, a NO.3 finish on the pipes interior is required for the product contact surface of equipment in a dairy operation
False
31
What safety hazard can be expected from exposure to untreated water in a cooling tower
A) salmonella
B) Ecoli
C) pink eye
D) Legion Ella
D) Legion Ella
32
What safety hazard could be expected, if hydrogen gas is able to escape from pressurized containment, in an uncontrolled manner:
A) asphyxiation
B) loss of profit
C) possible combustion
D) contamination
C) possible combustion
33
True or false, the range of combustion for hydrogen gas is from 6% to 76% atmospheric pressure
False
34
The byproduct of caustic soda attack on some software metallic substances is:
A) nitrogen
B) hydrogen
C) estrogen
D) oxygen
B) hydrogen
35
True or false, the two primary products from caustic chemical plants are hydrogen and caustic chlorine
False
36
True or false, the NACDU nuclear power plant uses natural uranium as fuel for the reactor
False
37
What is the energy potential of 1 kg of uranium compared to coal fuel oil?
A) 1kg to 10-20k kg
B) 1kg to 20-30k kg
C) 1kg to 20-40k kg
D) 1 kg to 10-30k kg
A) 1kg to 10-20k kg
38
True or false, exhaust gas is passed through a duct burner to raise exhaust temperature to 1250°F and then to the firebox of a water tube boiler to produce steam for implant processes
False
39
What are the environmental concerns for thermal generation of electricity through the combustion of coal:
A) atmospheric pollution
B) thermal pollution of waterways
C) atmospheric, and thermal pollution of waterways
D) land, pollution, and thermal pollution of waterways
C) atmospheric, and thermal pollution of waterways
40
True or false, seawater is the source of heavy hydrogen
True
41
What component is used to prevent damage to piping and equipment in an emergency shut down of a high head hydroelectric generating plant:
A) cooling tower
B) tank farm
C) cushion tank
D) surge tower
D) surge tower
42
What is the purpose for using heavy water in a nuclear plant?
A)for flushing contaminants
B)cooling
C)a reactant to the fuel
D)fuel storage
B) cooling
43
True or false, Hydrothermal is the plant that uses the earth as heat energy
False
44
True or false a propeller type turbine drive with arrangement to adjust the pitch of the blades is the type of turbine most likely used in a low hydroelectric generating plant
True
45
True or false, class two cabinets have two valves and are intended to be used by the building occupants
False
46
Class B fires are caused by:
A) flammable, waste and debris
B) flammable liquids
C) electrical equipment
D) flammable clothing
Flammable liquids
47
Class I standpipe systems would be used by:
A) building occupants
B) fire department
C) fire department, and trained personnel
D) trained personnel
Fire department and trained personnel
48
True or false, Class III hose cabinets have 2 1/4” connections with an adaptor or one 1 1/2” connection, and one 2 1/2” connection.
False
49
Standpipe systems are used for;
A) class a fires
B) class B fires
C) class c fires
Class a fires
50
True or false, water storage facilities must have sufficient water for 45 minutes using one fire hose fully open
False
51
Ball drips are installed between the;
A) OS&Y valve and the pump
B) pump, and the Siamese connection
C) Siamese connection and the OS&Y valve
D) Siamese connection, and the check valve
Siamese connection and the check valve
52
Class I fire hose cabinet has;
A) 1 2 1/4” valve
B) 2 2 1/2” valves
C) 1 2 1/2” valve
D) 2 2 1/4” valves
1 2 1/2” valve
53
A fire hose cabinet that has two valves in it is classified as a;
A) class I
B) class II
C) class III
D) standpipe
Class III
54
Standpipe systems that contain glycol require;
A) trained employees
B) freezing temperatures outdoors
C) approved maintenance schedule
D) approved, backflow prevention device
Approved backflow prevention device
55
OS&Y gate valves are the most common used for fire protection system, because;
A) they can be operated by building occupants
B) position of valve clearly visible to firefighter
C) position of valve is rapidly operated
D) easily operated by trained personnel
Position of valve clearly visible to firefighters
56
Water storage reservoirs must be capable of holding a _________ minute, water supply:
A) 45
B) 20
C) 35
D) 30
30
57
True or false the drip valve is installed upstream of the Siamese connection
False
58
Siamese connections are fastened with;
A) one 2 1/4 inch connection
B) two 2 1/2 inch connections
C) one 2 1/2 inch connection
D) two 2 1/4 inch connections
2 1/2 inch connections
59
True or false, Siamese connections require reverse, thread, connectors
False
60
Halon extinguishing systems are no longer being installed, and existing systems are being changed to an alternative system due;
A) prone to asphyxiation hazards to the occupants
B) not being cost efficient
C) classed as a CFR
D) classed as a CFC
Classed as a CFC
61
What is the purpose of the foam extinguishing system other than to smother out a fire?
A) to protect electrical equipment
B) to extinguish material fires
C) to mix with a flammable liquids
D) to lay on the surface of flammable liquids
To lay on the surface of flammable liquids
62
True or false, deluge systems are
Pressured with air for fast acting response
False
63
True or false, dry pipe systems are not charged with air and use HADs to open a main water valve
False
64
The NFPA is an abbreviation for the national fire prevention association
False
65
What type of attemperator would be used if the plant feedwater is not pure enough to inject directly into the superheated steam?
A) flashing
B) condensing
C) high-pressure pressure
D) is it low pressure
C) condensing
66
What are the two purposes blowdown tanks are used for?
A) to condense and separate steam
B) to act as a cushion tank and to separate steam
C) to act as a flash steam vessel to cool the condensate
D) to act as a cushion tank and a cool steam
To act as a flash steam vessel, and a condensate
67
What might be the consequence be from an overflow of hazardous material from a spill container?
A) full scale remodel of the offices
B) full scale, removal of the workforce
C) full scale, removal of soil
D) full scale, removal of the hazardous container
C) full scale, removal of soil
68
True or false, the tappings at the bottom of the feed water storage tank is where the probes to collect samples of the feed water and chemical injection are installed
True
69
What device is employed to ensure a minimum flow of water through a continuous running pump?
A) feed water pump
B) pressure, relief or backpressure valve
C) basket strainer
D) drip line
Pressure relief or backpressure valve
70
Where is the desuperheater located relative to the plant piping system
A) at the outlet of the reheater
B) ahead of the steam supply lines
C) between the primary and secondary superheaters
D) between the steam drum and the turbine
Ahead of the steam supply lines
71
Where would you expect to install in-line boiler water circulating pumps
A) at the bottom of the deaerator storage drum
B) the condensate tank pump, discharge lines
C) only on high temperature hot water boilers
D) on large water boilers with a low rate of gravity circulation
On large water boilers with a low rate of gravity circulation
72
How often would the furnace wall in an oil fired boiler need to be cleaned of ash?
A) once each 24 hour.
B) annually
C) at the end of each shift
D) oil is clean burning, so there is no need to clean it
Annually
73
From what point in the boiler feedwater system is the water drawn to feed the attemperator?
A) at the outlet of the economizer
B) at the inlet of the attemperator
C) from the outlet of the turbine
D) at the inlet to the boiler feedwater pumps
At the outlet of the economizer
74
Why does the control valve on the overflow line from a liquid mover Have to operate on a time delay when the tank is being vented
A) to reduce the velocity of the steam to the vent
B) to prevent buildup of pressure in the condensate return lines
C) to prevent flashing of the condensate as the check valve on the condensate line opens
D) to prevent steam from venting into the mechanical room
To prevent steam from venting into the mechanical room
75
What is another name for a flash tank?
A) flash condensate separator
B) flash separator
C) flash steam separator
D) condensate separator
Flash steam separator
76
What is the max. Working pressure for an LP boiler:
A)25 psiG
B)15 psiG
C)30 psiG
D)35 psiG
15psig
77
Where do temp. For HTHW systems usually operate?
A)155-210 degrees Celsius
B)145-200 degrees Celsius
C)177-232 degrees Celsius
D)165-225 degrees Celsius
177-232 degrees Celsius
78
Fired pressure vessels, obtain heat source in what form?
A)indirect
B)direct
C)semi direct
D) Semi indirect
Direct
79
What pressure applies to HTHW boilers?
A)160 psiG
B)135 psiG
C)145 psiG
D)155 psiG
160 psiG
80
What type of pressure vessel gets heat from an indirect source
A)fired
B)unfired
C)horizontal
D)vertical
Unfired
81
What AMSE codes cover piping systems
A)B33.1 and B31.3
B)B31.3 and B31.4
C)B31.1 and B31.3
D)B33.1 and B31.1
B31.1 and B31.3
82
True or false, HP boilers are designed for process only
False
83
What is a pressure relief device designed to do
A) remain open after operation
B) open rapidly during operation
C) open proportionally after operation
D) re-close after operation
Reclose after operation
84
Where does flash steam get heat from?
A)HP condensate
B)LP steam
C)HP steam
D)LP condensate
HP condensate
85
Which direction does heat always travel?
A) towards a radiant heated object
B) from warm objects to colder objects
C) downward by convection currents
D) from one solid object to another
From warm objects to colder objects
86
What is not considered when calculating heat loss
A) interior walls
B) windows on outside walls
C) concrete slab on grade
D) exterior walls
Interior walls
87
ODT is an acronym for
A) outdoor designated temperature
B) occupants, design temperature
C) over designed temperature
D) outdoor design temperature
outdoor design temperature
88
True or false, The designed temperature difference refers to the outdoor temperature minus the floor temperature
False
89
True or false, the recommended practice for determining room dimensions is to round measurements up to the nearest 1/16”
False
90
True or false, the type of heat loss, resulting in cool air, being drawn in through poor construction, cracks around the windows and doors is transmission loss
False
91
Which of the following heat loss types transfers heat through a ceiling
A) transmission loss
B) capillary loss
C) infiltration loss
D)Anaerobic loss
Transmission loss
92
Fin baseboard, heating capacity is expressed in
A) kilo newtons per foot
B) cubic feet of heat per hour
C) gallons per minute
D) BTU per hour per linear foot
BTU per hour per linear foot
93
True or false, The three major components of a thin baseboard are the radiant fins, housing, and supply line
True
94
What is the procedure for calculating the amount of thin baseboards required in each space
A) divide the baseboard output by the wall area
B) multiply the area of the space being heated by the output of the baseboard
C) divide the space loss by the output rating of the baseboards selected
D) divide the length of the outside wall by the output of the baseboard selected
Divide the space heat loss by the output rating of the baseboard selected
95
True or false, by design, boiler supply and return. Temperatures are two factors that determine the output of a finned baseboard.
False
96
True or false, the total amount of baseboard required to heat the space must be known to properly size a boiler
False
97
Which of the following should be followed to ensure proper boiler start up
A) the gas code
B) the Plumbing code
C) the general contractor
D) the boiler manufacturer
The boiler manufacturer
98
Flow rate, temperature, drop, and pressure drop are used to size
A) the size of the space
B) the size of the boiler
C ) the size of the piping
D) the baseboard rad length
The size of the piping
99
True or false, feet of head and equivalent length are required to properly size the pump for hydronic heating system
False
100
True or false the main function of an expansion handling device is to prevent the expansion of water when the temperature rises
False
101
How do diaphragm tanks differ from standard closed expansion tanks?
A) diaphragm tanks are much larger
B) diaphragm tanks must be placed 4 feet above the highest rad
C) diaphragm tanks have a zinc coating
D) diaphragm tanks, have a bladder that separates the air from water
Diaphragm tanks have a bladder that separate the air from water
102
True or false, HTUs must be selected prior to installing the Rough in piping
True
103
What is the best location for installing baseboard fins
A) on warm interior walls
B) 2 feet higher than the floor
C) on interior walls, directed to the centre of the room
D) on exterior walls with or without windows
On exterior walls with or without windows
104
True or false, making making a detailed drawing, showing piping materials and parts is good practice prior to doing the material list
True
105
The refrigerant, that is most environmental and human compatible is:
A)R-22
B)R-717
C)R-718
D)r-134a
R-718
106
The evaporators principal function is to
A) condensed gases
B) lower pressure
C) absorb heat
D) reject heat
Absorb heat
107
Convection currents of liquid and gases are based on
A) buoyancy law
B) Charles and Boyles law
C) Pascal’s principal
D) laws of thermodynamics
Buoyancy laws
108
The code committee that decided to number all refrigerants is
A)ASTM
B)AWWA
C)ASME
D)ASHRAE
ASHRAE
109
The chemical component found in refrigerants that contribute to the depletion of the ozone is
A) bromine
B) chlorine
C) ammonia
D) carbon dioxide
Chlorine
110
The code that identifies refrigerants and places them into six groups is
A) CSA B52
B)CSA B51
C) ASME B31.3
D)ASME B31.5
CSA B52
111
Traps and separators are required to
A) return noncondensible gases back to the purge valve
B) maintain a low pressure side of the system
C) return oil back to the crank case
D) return oil back to the compressor
Return oil back to the crank case
112
True or false, the pressure/temperature relationship between the refrigerant, and the evaporator is based on the size of the piping system, type of refrigerant and type of refrigeration system
True
113
The new refrigerant use ______ oil
A) fresh
B) full synthetic
C) polyester
D) semi synthetic
Polyester
114
Refrigeration is the science of producing and maintaining temperatures below that of the surrounding _______ by transferring heat from one place to another
A) floor space
B) main floor
C) atmosphere
D) basement
Atmosphere
115
True or false, The flame of a halide torch will turn, dense blue when detecting a large leak
True
116
The most common type of fan or blower used on a furnace or an RTU is the
A) vane, axial fan
B) squirrel cage, fan
C) tube, axial fan
D) backward curve fan
Squirrel cage fan
117
The type of filter that can be reused and regenerated using an oil based substance is
A) viscous impingement type
B) electronic type
C) dry type
D) bag, type
Viscous impingement type
118
The type of air-conditioning equipment that requires the most service is the
A) central air handlers
B)RTUs
C) floor units
D) split units
RTUs
119
The type of ducting designed for high velocity ducting is
A) welded duct
B) seemed duct
C) round duct
D) square duct
Round duct
120
True or false, an essential item required on a steam heating coil with an automatic control valve is a vacuum breaker
True
121
The most common energy source for heat pump is
A) water source
B) ground source
C) air source
D) solar source
Air source
122
True or false, icing of the evaporator is caused by a low, refrigerant pressure in the evaporator
True
123
A variable heat pump system will have
A) two evaporators
B) two metering valves
C) two four-way mixing valves
D) two condensers
Two metering valves
124
True or false, small, self-contained, air-conditioning systems are classified as unitary
True
125
What force besides pressure thrust imposes a load against the anchors
A) elasticity of the material
B) deflection of the support steel
C) torque on the elbows at the expansion loop
D) friction between the pipe and the support system
Friction between the pipe and the support system
126
Why would you install rollers under the pipe or pipe shoes?
A) to reduce the number of guides required
B) to allow more space between the pipe supports
C) to reduce the friction load imposed on the anchors
D) to enable easier removal of the piping
C) to reduce the friction load impose on the anchors
127
Which type of joint imposed the least amount of thrust against the anchors
A) universal Bellows expansion joints
B) hairpin, or Lyre loops
C) sleeve type expansion joints
D) ball, hinged, and gimbal joints
Ball, hinged, and gimbal joints
128
True or false, an angle iron clip guide, is designed to act as an anchor against side thrust, as well as to maintain the axial alignment of the pipe
True
129
What type of pipeline movement occurs where all motion is in a straight line
A) lateral offset
B) axial movement
C) angular rotation
D) torque
Axial movement
130
What determines the number of corrugations required in a Bellows type expansion joint?
A) amount of expansion to be absorbed
B) brittleness of material
C) elastic limit of the pipe
D) amount of torque to be accommodated
Amount of expansion to be absorbed
131
Who’s job is it to ensure that the anchor points required for the piping are strong enough to withstand the forces acting against them
A) structural engineer
B) construction supervisor
C) piping designer
D) owner
Structural engineer
132
True or false, Anchoring and hydrotesting at the design installation temperature should be done before removing the shipping bars from a bellows type expension joint
True
133
What needs to be determined before an expansion or contraction compensation device is installed in a system
A) anchor, thrust load
B) direction and amount the pipe will move after installation
C) size of support steel
D) accessibility of the device for installation and maintenance
Direction and amount the pipe will move after installation
134
What should be done before anchoring the lines when ambient temperature is radically different than the temperature range specified for installation?
A) consult the piping engineer for the proper procedure to follow
B) Coldspring the joint to compensate for the shorter dimensions between the anchor points
C) wait until the weather moderates to comply with specified temperature range
D) relocate the anchor to match structural steel dimension
A) consult the piping engineer for the proper procedure to follow
135
True or false, passive, solar heating, can NOT move, heat energy without mechanical equipment
False
136
True or false, deciduous trees, provide shade of summer and light in the winter
True
137
What best describes passive solar heating?
A) putting this energy to use through pumps and piping throughout the entire building
B) is putting this energy to use without depending on any mechanical equipment
C) is sunlight allowed to pass through windows facing north
D) putting this energy to use through mechanical equipment throughout parts of the building
Is putting this energy to use without depending on any mechanical equipment
138
True or false, Alberta receives 20% less sunlight than Florida
True
139
_________ is radiation scattered by the atmosphere
A)direct
B)Albedo
C)diffuse
Diffuse
140
True or false, active solar, and liquid active solar do not require backup systems
False
141
In a heat of fusion system, Latent heat is used to _______ heat to the storage mass
A) replace
B) store
C) reduce
D) transfer
Transfer
142
True or false, active solar systems for heating domestic hot water are more economically attractive compared to those providing space heating
True
143
Solar energy in the winter is only _____% of that received on a summer day
A) 35%
B) 25%
C) 15%
D) 45%
25%
144
An active solar system requires the collectors to be mounted on a roof facing
A) South
B) north
C) west
D) east
South
