Exam Questions Flashcards
(199 cards)
1
Q
Describe common phases of bacterial growth:
A
2
Q
Enterobacteriaceae can be example of:
a) obligate anaerobes
b) facultative anaerobes
c) obligate aerobes
A
B
3
Q
Penicillin binding proteins are responsible for:
a) peptidoglycan synthesis
b) production of penicillin in Peniclillium notatum
c) inhibition of beta lactic antibiotics action
A
A
4
Q
Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be an example of:
a) obligate anaerobes
b) facultative anaerobes
c) obligate aerobes
A
C
5
Q
Insertion sequences are responsible for:
a) . Reorganization of genetic elements
b) replication of DNA
c) division of bacterial cell
A
A
6
Q
Enveloped viruses are:
a) more stable than non-enveloped
b) less stable than non-enveloped
A
B
7
Q
Acid Fast stain bacteria:
a) have different cell wall and can’t be stained by Gram stain method
b) are part of G- bacteria
c) are part of G+ bacteria
d) cannot stain by Ziehl - Nielsen method
A
A
8
Q
Write 3 mechanisms of horizontal transfer of genes among bacteria
A
Transduction: exchange of genetic material via Bacteriopahges with subsequent integration into genome
Transformation: free DNA from surrounding of prokaryotic cell is taken up and built into genome
Conjugation: genetic material in the form of plasmids is directly exchanged between 2 prokaryotes . Contact and exchange is mediated by Pili
9
Q
3 Examples of extracellular living bacteria
A
Bacillus Athracis, E. Coli, Vibrio cholera, Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus
10
Q
2 Examples of obligate intracellular pathogens
A
Rickettsia spp. , Coxiella spp. ,
11
Q
Porkaryotic cells are characterized by:
a) Peptidogylkan in the cell wall
b) Sexual reproduction
c) Respiration via mitochondria
d) Sterols in cytoplasmic membrane
A
A
12
Q
Prokaryotic cells are characterized by:
a) Strands of DNA diploid genome
b) Single circular DNA haploid genome
C) present of Golgi bodies
D) Presence of ER
A
B
13
Q
Description of cell wall
A
14
Q
2 Examples of spore forming bacteria
A
Clostridium spp. / Bacillus spp. (i.e. Anthracis)
15
Q
Gram stain is based on:
a) thickness of peptidoglycan in cell wall
b) acidity of cytoplasm
c) presence of Lipopolysaccharides
A
A
16
Q
Insertion sequences are responsible for:
a) reorganization of genetic elements
b) replicaton of DNA
c) division of bacterial cell
A
A
17
Q
Describe nucleocapsid structure
A
Nucleic acid
Structural proteins
Enzymes and other proteins
18
Q
What organisms cause community acquired pneumonia ? Min. 2 examples
A
Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamdia pneumonia, Moraxella catarrhalis S. pneumoniae….
19
Q
What diseases can Staphylococcus aureus cause ? (Write 3 examples)
A
Food Poisoning , Toxic shock syndrome, Wound infections, pneumonia
20
Q
Write 2 examples of disease caused by Enterococcus spp.
A
Urinary tract infections, Wound infections, Bacteremia, Endocarditis
21
Q
What disease can be caused by Bacillus anthracis ?
A
Anthrax
22
Q
What is the recommended treatment of infections caused by Neisseria gonorrhea?
A
Local therapy with silver nitrate / Doxycycline / Ceftriaxon
23
Q
What microbiological tests should be done in patient with species meningitis ( 2 essential tests or specimens that should be sent for microbiological diagnosis)
A
Blood cultivation/ Serology + Liquor/CSF cultivation
24
Q
What specimens would you send to microbiology. Laboratory in the case of suspected meningococcemia? (write 2 most important examples)
A
Blood and CSF
25
Write min. 2 examples of bacteria assoc. with autoimmune diseases:
Streptococcus pyogenes, Chlamydia, Treponema pallidum, Borelia, Helicobacter pylori
26
What Is recommended treatment of suspected bacterial meningitis caused by unknown agent (empiric therapy )?
3rd generation chepalosporins, Ampicillin
27
Which microbial. Test should be done in patient with a fever of unknown reason ? (usually in hospital)
Serology / Blood cultivation -\> Haemoculure (Explain process - see below)
28
Write 2 examples of clinically important toxins that can be produced by Staphylococcus aureus ?
Toxic Shock syndrome toxin / Exfoliative toxins (superantigens/ Enterotoxins) / alpha and beta toxin / PVL
29
What is the recommended treatment of infections by Haemophilius influenzae?
Ampicilin, Ceftriaxon, Ceftaxim
30
Staphylococcus aureus is:
a) G+ rod
b) G- rod
c) G+ coccus
d) G- coccus usually from pairs (diplococcus)
C
31
Staphylococcus aureus:
a) can be part of normal bacterial flora (is facultative pathogen)
b) is an obligate pathogen (every finding of this microbe is an indication f. Treatment)
c) is non pathogenic
A
32
Antibiotic that should be used as recommended treatment of infections caused by Streptococcus pyogenes
Penicillin G/V, alternative beta lactams or Macrolides
33
Streptococcus pyogenes is
a) G+ rod
b) G- rod
c) G+ coccus
d) G- coccus usually diplococcus
C
34
Most common bacterial agent causing urinary tract infection in community ?
E.coli
35
In case of colonization of pregnant women with Steprococcus agalactiae:
a) antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered before birth
b) no necessity for prophylaxis, because this microbe is part if normal flora and there is no risk of infection in baby
c) antibiotic therapy should be started 1 month before expected birth for complete decolonization
A,C
36
Write 2 examples of diseases caused by Enterococcus spp.
Urinary tract infections, Bacteremia, Wound infections, Endocarditis
37
Infections caused by Listeria monocytogenes should be treated by:
a) 3rd generations cephalosporins
b) ampicillin (can be administered in combination with gentamicin)
c) 2nd generation cephalosporins in combination with amikacin
B
38
Neisseria gonorrhea can be spread
a) only by human contact (sexual)
b) rats can be vectors of this bacteria
c) by airways
A
39
What is the most important virulence factor of Hemophilius influenzae?
a) capsule
b) A-B toxin
c) adhesins
A
40
What is the causative agent of plaque ?
Yersinia pestis
41
What is the causative agent of typhoid fever ?
Salmonella typhi
42
What disease can be caused by Listeria monocytogenes ? 2 Examples
Meningitis, Sepsis
43
Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be stained by:
a) Gram strain (red)
b) Giesma stain
c) Ziehl Nielsen method (rods of the bacterium have red colour)
C
44
Causative agent if Pontiac fever ?
a) Legionella spp.
b) Pontia Pontiae
c) Rubeolla pontinica
A
45
What symptom is NOT typical for cholera ?
a) watery diarrhea
b) vomiting
c) hypovolemic shock
d) meningitis
D
46
Write 2 examples of obligate pathogens that belong to Enterobacteriaceae
Salmonella spp, Shigella spp.
47
Streptococcus pneumonias is:
a) G+ rod
b) G- rod
c) G+ coccus
d) G- diplococcus
C
48
What is the most important virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhea ?
a) adhesion factors (pilin)
b) capsule
c) flagella
A
49
What patients are in the risk of fungal infections ? (Min. 2 examples)
Immunodeficient patients, People with Long- Term antibiotic or Corticosteroid treatment, Diabetic Patients, HIV Patients
50
Dimorphic fungi
Fungi that can exist in the form of both - yeast and hypae
51
Which antigen can be used for fungal infection diagnosis ?
a) peptidoglycan
b) galactomannan
c) chitin
B
52
What diseases can be caused by Cryptococcus ?
Meningitis / Meningoencephalitis / Pneumonia
53
What is the most common site of aspergillosis ?
Lungs
54
What is most common manifestation of aspergillosis?
Cough, allergic symptoms, skin + mucosal irritations, chronic weakness,
chronic contact leads to bronchopulmonal Aspergillosis
55
Histoplasma capsulatum is causative agent of:
a) dermatomycoses
b) lung and disseminated infections
c) diarrhea
B
56
Write 3 types of candidiasis
superficial, organic, systemic mycosis
57
Microsporium gypsum is causative agent of:
a) dermatomycoses
b) lung infections
c) meningitis
A
58
Microsporium canis causative agent of:
a) dermatomycoses
b) lung infection
c) meningitis
A
59
Crypotococcus is
a) fakultative pathogen (in immunocompomised patients )
b) obligate pathogen
c) non- pathogenic
A
60
Penicillium spp. Is:
a) ubiquitous mould with very low clinical significance
b) common fungal pathogen with at least 3 pathogenic species
c) responsible for zygomycoses
A
61
Which yeast is the most important pathogen of humans ?
Candida albicans
62
Zygomycoses are
a) life- threatening, very invasive, infections
b) important toxin- producers
c) can cause very slow infections usually found in travelers
A
63
What do these abbreviations mean ?
ETEC
EPEC
EHEC
```
ETEC = Enterotoxigenic E.coli
EPEC = Enteropathogenic E.coli
EHEC = Enterohemmorrhagic E.coli
```
64
Causative agent of cholera
Vibrio cholerae
65
Typical primary site of tuberculosis
Lung
66
Write min. 2 Examples of the targets of antibiotics:
Bacterial Proteinsynthesis
Cell Wall synthesis
RNA/DNA synthesis
67
Write the component of bacterial cell wall which is target for beta lactam Antibiotics
Transpeptidases ( e.g. Penicillin binding protein )
68
Define clinical resistance to antibiotics (EUCAST definition)
Likelyhood that the antibiotic treatment will fail
69
Define supectability to antibiotics (EUCAST def. )
Likelyhood that the antibiotic treatment will be successful
70
Which antibiotics are preferably used for empiric therapy of diseases caused by Steptococcus pneumonia ?
Penicillin G, Amoxillin (alternative: Cephalosporins, Vancomycin)
71
Antibiotic for staphylococcus aureus ?
Oxacillin, Methicillin (=pencillinase resistant penicillins, Vancomyin as alternative)
72
Treatment for herpes simplex virus ?
Virostatics like Aciclovir, Valacyclovir
73
Write at least 1 anti. Influenza drug:
Neuraminidase inhibitors like Tamiflu, Relenza
74
Which antibiotic is used for empiric therapy of meningitis ?
3rd generation cephalosporins, Ampicillin
75
What is target of anti influenza drug ?
Neuraminidase -\> enables release of newly formed viruses, by drug activity of that enzyme is blocked
76
Component of cell wall target for beta lactams ?
Transpeptidases (PBP)
77
Dangerous side effect of chloramphenicol ?
Irreversible Bone Marrow aplasia
78
Target of tetracycline antibiotic ?
Binds to bacterial ribosomes -\> inihibits Peptidyltransferase- reaction -\> interrupts Proteinsynthesis
79
Syndrome after rapid injection of vancomycin?
Red Man syndrome due to massive Histamine release
80
Glycopeptides inhibit:
a) peptidoglycan synthesis
b) protein synthesis
c) DNA replication
A
81
Write 1 example of bactericidal antibiotic:
Penicillin, Cephalosporin, Vancomycin
82
Write at least 1 example of beta lactase inhibitor
Clavulinic acid
83
G- bacteria are:
a) usually suspect able to glycopeptides
b) naturally resistant to glycopeptides
B
84
Tetracyclins inhibit:
a) peptidoglycan synthesis
b) protein synthesis
c) DNA replication
B
85
Carbapenems should be:
a) reserved for infections caused by multiresistant strains
b) used for empiric therapy of community acquired pneumonia
c) used for empiric therapy of community acquired meningitis
A
86
Red Man syndrome is a typical reaction after the administration of:
a) gylcopeptides
b) beta lactams
c) macrolides
A
87
Write an example of anti- tuberculotic antibiotics
Streptomycin, Kanamycin, Rifampin, Isoniazid, Ethambutol, Pyraminazid
88
Beta lactam antibiotics inhibit:
a) peptidoglycan synthesis
b) protein synthesis
c) DNA replication
A
89
Fluoroquinolones inhibit:
a) peptidoglycan synthesis
b) protein synthesis
c) DNA replication
C
90
What does abbreviation VRE mean?
Vancomycin resistant enterococcus
91
Macrolides inhibit:
a) peptidogylcan synthesis
b) Protein synthesis
c) DNA replication
B
92
What does the abbreviation MRSA mean ?
Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus
93
Which time can we expect effect of bactericidal antibiotics after?
a) 144h
b) 72-96 h
c) 48 h
c
94
Which time can we expect effect of bacteriostatic antibiotics after?
a) 144h
b) 72-96 h
c) 48h
B
95
Write at least 2 examples of beta lactams active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa:
Carbapenem, Gentamicin, Piperacillin, Cephalosporin 4th gen
96
Chloramphenicol is:
a) an antibiotic with a broad spectrum and should be used as an empiric therapy of many diseases
b) an antibiotic with broad spectrum, but should not be commonly used due to the potential hematotoxicity
c) an antibiotic active against G+ bacteria only
B
97
Write at least 1 example of the site of infection by HPV ?
Oral cavity, uterine cervix, Penis, Anus
98
3 common causative agents of pneumonia
Influenza virus A,B, Coronavirus, Adenovirus
99
2 viruses causing GIT infections
Adenovirus, Rotavirus, CMV
100
Which infections is caused by ureaplasma ?
Genital tract infections, (Respiratory tract infection)
101
Which infection is caused by legionella pneumophilia ?
Pneumonia, Pontiac fever, Legionaers disease
102
Which continent can still observe infection by variola virus ?
None, it was eradicated 1980, Last case 1977 in Somalia but may still exist in laboratories in US/ Russia
103
2 diseases caused by streptococcus pyogenes?
Tonsillitis/ Necrotizing Fasciitis
104
Most common cause of lower respiratory tract infections?
Viruses (influenza A,B, other)
105
Describe HIV and Syndrome caused by it
HIV = Human inmunnedeficiency Retrovirus (STD, body fluid transmission)
Causes AIDS = Aquired Immune deficiency syndrome
106
Manifestation of smallpox
Papular Skin efflorescence
107
2 Dermatophytes
Microsporium Gypseum/ Canis
Trichophyton
108
Autoimmune disease caused by streptococcus pyogenes
Rheumathic fever / Acute glomerular nephritis
109
Causative agent of progressive multifocal leukocytoencephalopathy is:
a) Polyomavirus JC
b) Papillomavirus
c) Herpes virus 1
A
110
Adenovirus is:
a) enveloped virus
b) non-enveloped virus
B
111
What is the most common manifestation of Vericella zoster virus?
Skin rash on trunk and head -\> Herpes Zoster, Chickenpox
112
Write 2 examples of viruses that belong to the group of Picornaviruses:
Hepatitis A virus, Enterovirus (Coxsackie Virus), Rhinovirus
113
What is the common manifestation of Enterovirus:
a) enteritiditis
b) conjunctivitis
c) encephalitis
A
114
What is the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis?
Epstein Barr virus
115
Write an example of disease caused by Poliovirus
Poliomyelitis
116
Polyomaviruses are important in:
a) immunocompromised patients
b) children
c) sexually active adults
117
Human Herpesviruses 1/ 2 attack:
a) neurons
b) GIT
c) Epithelium of respiratory tr.
A
118
Write 1 example of diseases caused by EBV virus:
Infectious Mononucleosis, Also associated with Burkitt Lymphoma, x-linked lymphproliferative disease
119
Direct quantification of viral particles in specimens can be done by
a) immunodiffusion method
b) Direct counting of viral particles under the microscope
c) real time PCR
C
120
Write the name of the virus causing smallpox
Orthopoxvirus variola, Variola vera
121
Write 2 examples of clinical manifestation of parainfluenza virus
Rhinitis, Laryngitis, Tonsillitis, Cough, Fever
122
What is the target of antivirotics active against influenza virus:
a) Hemagglutinin
b) Neuraminidase
c) DNA replication
B
123
What disease can be caused by virus from the group of Rhabdoviruses ? (Write 1 of the most important examples)
Rhabies
124
Rotarviruses are causative agents of
a) Encephalitis
b) infantile diarrhea
c) respiratory tract infections
B
125
Smallpox were eradicated:
a) at the end of 18th century (immediately after discovering of the vaccine by Jenner)
b) in 1980 (last case in Africa in 1977)
c) were not eradicated yet
B
126
Flioviruses (Ebola, Marburg virus) are:
a) non enveloped viruses stable in environment
b) enveloped RNA viruses unstable in environmental conditions
c) enveloped DNA viruses with a certain stability in the environment with possible air way spread
B
127
Write 1 example of causative agent of viral hemorrhagic fever
Ebola virus/ Marburg Virus
128
In the final host, parasite
a) reproduces sexually
b) reproduces asexually
c) doesn’t reproduce, only develops
A
129
Sexual reproduction of parasite can be possible in:
a) final host
b) intermediate host
c) vector
A
130
What is a vector for Trypanosoma spp. ?
a) Ixodes ricinus
b) Tse- tse fly
c) Anopheles spp
B
131
Write 2 examples of clinical manifestation of Leishmaniasis
Cutaneous ulcers or Mucocutaneous lesions -\> inflammation of face + nasal mucosa, chronic rhinitis, destruction of mucosa
Visceral type- hepatospleomegaly
132
Write 2 examples of possibilities of diagnosis of Leishmaniasis
Microscopy after biopsy of skin ulcer
Leishmannin skin test/ Montenegro test (Serology)
133
One example of sexually transmitted parasite
Trichomonas vaginalis
134
Write clinical manifestation of the disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica
Intestinal mucosa destruction -\> ulcerations, exudative diarrhea, via blood can spread to liver -\> necrosis
Minuta form: no cysts, usually asymptomatic
Magna form: cyst production, invasive
135
Intermediate host is:
a) a host with asexual or no reproduction of parasite
b) host with complete life cycle of parasite
c) a host with sexual reproduction of parasite
A
136
Trypansosoma rhodesiense if causative agent of:
a) human and animal trypanosomiasis with an acute form of disease
b) human trypanosomiasis only with a chronic form of disease
c) non- pathogenic species of Tryoanosoma spp.
A
137
Sleeping stage of trypanosomiasis is due to:
a) invasion of parasite to CNS
b) production of toxins in the blood vessels and their spread to CNS
C) after the toxin treatment of the disease
A
138
Write example of micriobiol. Test for diagnosis of trypanosomiasis:
Microspcopy of blood, Biopsy of LN, CSF cultivation, Elisa, PCR
139
The vector for Plasmodium spp. Is:
a) Ixodes ricinus
b) Tse tse fly
c) Anopheles spp.
140
Write a correct name of the disease caused by Plasmodium vivax
Malaria tertiana
141
Correct name of the disease caused by Plasmodium falciparum
Malara tropica
142
Prevalence of Leishmaniosis is restricted on:
a) Africa only
b) south America
c) have been found in all continents except Australia
C
143
Shistosoma spp. Is a typical parasite of:
a) skin
b) pharynx
c) blood vessels
A
144
Typical final host of Toxoplasma gondii is:
a) cat
b) dog
c) fox
A
145
Incubation time of Malaria:
a) 1-2 weeks (in some cases few months)
b) 1 year
c) 2-8 days
A
146
Method for diagnosis of malaria (min. 1 possibility)
Serology, Microscopy -\>Giemsa Staining
Fast test for the detection of antigen particles
147
What is horizontal transfer ?
Exchange of genes between 2 organisms not via inheritance but via transduction, transformation and conjugation
148
Bacteria causing gastroenteritis ?
Salmonella, Shigella, E.coli
149
Which organisms cause community acquired pneumonia ?
Influenza A,B, other
S. pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae...
150
Antibiotic for s. Pyogenes ?
Penicillin / beta lactams / macrolides
151
Write 2 examples of diseases caused by enterococcus spp.?
Urinary tract infections, Wound infections
152
What is penicillicum ?
Mould like colonies, mycelium with septate hypae spp. With low clinical significance, ubiquintinous
153
What does VRE stand for ?
Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus
154
Write 2 examples of b. Lactam antibiotic against pseudomonas aureginosa ?
Ciprofloxacin (Chinolone) , 4th cephalosporine
155
Give 2 methods for detection of viruses in blood
PCR
Tissue cultures
Electron microscope
ELISA
156
Medication for Flu ?
Tamiflu, Relenza
157
Which part does the influenza medication effect in virus ?
Neuraminidase
158
Describe lung tissue during purulent pneumonia
Bacterial infiltration follwing by Leukocytic infiltration, mucous filled alveoli, increased thickness of bronchial wall
159
Chlamydia trachomatis infections ?
Conjungtivitis (Trachom), Urogential infections,Lymphogranuloma venerum
160
Write 3 strains causing malaria ?
Plasmodium vivax/ ovale/ falciparum
161
Direkt method in microbiology ?
Micrsocopy, PCR, Cultivation
162
Diagnostic method of herpes simplex virus ?
PCR, Tissue culture, Antigen proof by direct immunofluorescence
163
Write 3 examples of extracellular living bacteria ?
Vibrio cholerae, Bacillus anthracis, Haemophilius influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus
164
Examples for bactericidal antibiotics
Vancomycin / penicillin
165
Recommended treatment for infections caused by haemophilius influenza ?
Cephalosporin 3rd gen (Cefotaxim/ Ceftriaxon) Ampicillin, Amoxicillin
166
Which mobile elements can be transferred horizontally ?
Parts of plasmids, transposons in specific
167
Endotoxins are responsible for ? ( 3 examples)
=shock, vasodilatation, vascular permeability increase
168
Which strains of E.coli can cause toxin- mediated life- threatening infections ?
Enterotoxigenix E.coli
169
Write 3 examples of cosmopolitan parasite ?
Trichomonas vaginalis
Entamoeba histolytica
Toxoplasma gondii
170
What is relevant specimens for diagnosis of toxoplasmosis ?
serology – ELISA
AIDS patients: microscopical examination of cerbrospinal fluid, biopsy of lymh nodes, muscles, etc
171
What is an intermediate host of Schistosoma spp. ?
Snails
172
Where are adult schistosoma hematobium located ?
Wall of urinary bladder
173
Diagnosis of enterobius vermicularis infection ?
Stool, swap of anus with sticky band with subsequent microscopy
174
What do you do with BAL (bronchoalveolar lavage) and sputum ?
Cultivation and Micrsocopy, Ab detection, ELISA
175
Describe the process done with urine samples and the parameters evaluated
Samples are refrigerated to prevent bacterial growth, culture plates seeded -\> nr. Of colonies are counted (CFU)
176
What does PCR mean and explain it
A method of DNA amplification used for various diagnostic and research purposes. It requires 4 components: a DNA template containing a target sequence, DNA polymerase to synthesize the new DNA, primers that are complementary to the target sequence, and nucleotides as DNA building blocks. It takes place in 3 phases: denaturation of the double helix, primer hybridization, and elongation and amplification of the target region.
177
Name 2 parasitic blood infections
Malaria, Trypansonoma burcei
178
Name 2 diagnostic methods for dermatophytes
Skin sample -\> culture + microscopy, PCR of blood sample
179
2 methods for detection of HIV
Real Time PCR
Serology -\> Elisa
180
Empiric therapy for streptococcus pyogenes
Cephalosporine 1st and 2nd gen, Penicillin G afterwards
181
Which bacteria do you use XLD agar for?
Gram negative bacteria, detection of intestinal pathogens (salmonella/shigella)
182
Name 2 parasites of GIT
Giardia intestinalis, Enterobius vermicularis, Entamoeba histolytica
183
Staining of mycobacterium tuberculosis 2 examples
Acid alcohol fast stain
Ziehl Nielsen Stain
Fluorochrom Auramin and counterstain with Rhodamine
184
One diagnostic method for herpes simplex organism
PCR, Antibody detection in serum
185
Bacteremia - specimens and examination ?
Blood -\> Haemoculture in specific bottle which is sterile and contains nutritive medium + gas mix suitable for anaerobe and aerobe agents. Samples stored at 37° for several days then follows identification of infectious agent and resistance
186
Which infections is caused by corynebacterium diphtheria and its most important virulence factor ?
Diphtherie, Pharyngitis, Endocarditis, Respiratory tract infections
Toxin production most important virulence factor (diphteria toxin)
187
Which method can be used to detect EBV (min. 1)
PCR
188
Which method is used to detect HSV-2?
PCR, Cultivation with Antigen detection, detection of antibodies in Serum
189
Target of tetracycline antibiotic ?
Ribosomes- inhibit protein synthesis
190
How does Acinetobacter Baumanni look like in microscope ?
Short gram negative rod
191
Clinical manifestation of smallpox
Papular efflorescence, Fever, Joint pain, inflammation of airways, typical itching skin rash
192
What does H5N1 stand for and what disease is it ?
Heamaglutinin type 5, Neuraminidase type 1
Birds Flu, subtype of Influenza A Virus
193
What is Ureoplasma Ureolyticum ?
Small bacterium belonging to the family of mycoplasmataceae, causes sexually transmitted urinary tract infection and neonatal disease
194
Which staining method is used for detection of parasites
Giemsa
195
Method for detection of syphilis?
Primary stage PCR, Dark field microscopy
2nd/ 3rd stage Serology, Antibody detection with Elisa
196
Which group of bacteria can be cultivated on Ziehl Nielsen stain based on microscopy appearance
Mycobacterium spp. + Nocardia -\> „acdid resistant“ bacteria = acid fast bacteria
-\> contain special lips (waxes + mycelia acid ) in their cell wall
197
What does H5N1 mean and which virus can be designated by it
Vogelgrippe, Birds flu, subtype influenza A, H for Haemagglutinin, N for neuraminidase
198
What does MIC mean ?
Minimal Inhibitory concentration = lowest concentration which prevents visible growth of a bacterium
199
Describe abbreviation VZV and disease ?
Varizella Zoster Virus belongs to group of herpes viruses, causative agent of chickenpox
