EXAM RATIONALE Flashcards

(101 cards)

1
Q

This administrative order pertains to the labeling
-requirements of pharmaceutical products:

a. AO 55
b. AO 56
c. AO 62
d. AO 63

A

a. AO 55

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2
Q

All of the following statements about RA 10918 are
correct, except:

a. It was signed by then-president Benigno Aquino.
b. RA 10918 is also known as the Pharmacy Law.
c. It became law on July 21, 2016.
d. This law regulates the practice of pharmacy and
repealed RA 5921.

A

a. It was signed by then-president Benigno Aquino.

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3
Q

Which of the following statements is inaccurate with regards to passing the licensure examination?

a. Failure for the 3rd time results in the requirement of an applicant to undergo a refresher program in a duly accredited institution.
b. There must be no grade below 75% in any of the six (6) modules to pass the board examination.
c. The board examination is conducted twice a year.
d. The two major areas that the board examination covers is Pharmacy Services and Pharmacy Practices.

A

b. There must be no grade below 75% in any of the six (6) modules to pass the board examination.

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4
Q

All are qualifications for applicants for the Pharmacist
Licensure Examination, except:

a. Natural-born citizen of the Philippines at the time
of application.
b. A degree holder of BS Pharmacy, or its equivalent, such as BS Industrial Pharmacy.
c. Of Good Moral Character and reputation.
d. Completed the required hours of internship.

A

a. Natural-born citizen of the Philippines at the time
of application.

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5
Q

Which of the following is responsible for regulating
detailmen or medical representatives?

a. DOH
b. PPhA
c. FDA
d. BOP

A

d. BOP

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT an activity inclusive to
pharmacists?

a. Chemical, biological or microbiological analysis and
assays of pharmaceutical products.
b. Physicochemical analysis of medical devices and aids.
c. Administration of pediatric vaccines after training by
the accredited institution of PRC.
d. Conduct or undertake scientific research of
pharmacologic compounds.

A

c. Administration of pediatric vaccines after training by
the accredited institution of PRC.

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7
Q

For Items 7-9:

Bang Chan created a pharmacy in the Philippines and hired Felix, Seungmin, and Han. Felix is responsible for cleaning work areas, assisting in stocking of products, filing documents and doing deliveries without direct interaction with patients. On the other hand, Han is responsible for the assistance in compounding and dispensing of medicines under the supervision of the registered pharmacist on duty. Meanwhile, Seungmin is responsible for general housekeeping, arrangement of the display and monitoring of the inventory of pharmaceutical products, dispensing of over the counter medicines and may have supervised interaction with patients.

A
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8
Q
  1. Who is the pharmacy assistant?

a. Bang Chan
b. Han
c. Felix
d. Seungmin

A

d. Seungmin

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9
Q
  1. Who is the pharmacy aid?

a. Bang Chan
b. Han
c. Felix
d. Seungmin

A

c. Felix

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10
Q
  1. Who is the pharmacy technician?

a. Bang Chan
b. Han
c. Felix
d. Seungmin

A

b. Han

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11
Q

The following are qualifications for the Board of Pharmacy, except?

a. Registered pharmacist, preferably with an MS Pharmacy or PhD
b. Active in the practice for at least 5 years
c. Citizen of the Philippines and resident for at least 5
years
d. Good standing member of PPhA for at least 5 years but not an officer

A

b. Active in the practice for at least 5 years

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12
Q

Is Universal Health Care completely free?

a. YES, even if the room preferred by the patient is
air-conditioned.
b. NO, because the patient is required by law to contribute a certain fraction of their income in order to avail of the services.
c. NO, because only essential healthcare benefit packages are free to the patient.
d. NO, because the patient must enroll first in PhilHealth for a minimum of one (1) year to avail free services.

A

c. NO, because only essential healthcare benefit packages are free to the patient.

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13
Q

Which of the following regulates dietary supplements?

a. CDRR
b. CFRR
c. CCRR
d. CDRRHR

A

b. CFRR

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14
Q

Minimum required floor area of a drugstore:

a. NLT 15 ft2
b. NLT 15 m2
c. NLT 10 ft2
d. NLT 10 m2

A

b. NLT 15 m2

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15
Q

This is the classification recall for a situation in which use or exposure to a violative product may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences or where the probability of serious adverse health consequences is remote.

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

A

b. Class II

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16
Q

According to CMO no. 25 s. 2021, the Experiential
Pharmacy Practice in the area of Institutional Pharmacy should last for how many hours?

a. 120 hours
b. 180 hours
c. 300 hours
d. 600 hours

A

a. 120 hours

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17
Q

Select the description of “refilling of a prescription”

a. Filling a prescription order for a second time
b. Compounding a prescription order for the second
time
c. Dispensing a repeat prescription order dated 2 years
ago
d. Dispensing the remaining balance of medicines
ordered in the prescription

A

d. Dispensing the remaining balance of medicines
ordered in the prescription

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18
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about Category B establishments?

a. It requires indirect supervision and oversight of a registered pharmacist.
b. It covers 1st to 3rd class municipal health units with satellite -institutional pharmacies.
c. Pharmacists must be present for a minimum of 2 hours per week for each establishment.
d. A pharmacist may only be the registered pharmacist for a maximum of 15 establishments.

A

b. It covers 1st to 3rd class municipal health units with satellite -institutional pharmacies.

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19
Q

A cipher is:

a. Secret writing that substitutes other letters or
characters for the one intended.
b. System of words and symbols arbitrarily used to
represent words.
c. Characteristic styles or symbols kept from the
knowledge of other disclosed confidentially to the few.
d. All of the above

A

a. Secret writing that substitutes other letters or
characters for the one intended.

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20
Q

How many CPD units are required to renew your
license?

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 45

A

d. 45

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21
Q

A senior citizen is at least:

a. 55 years old
b. 60 years old
c. 65 years old
d. 70 years old

A

b. 60 years old

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22
Q

Which of the following is regulated under Regulation
Division 1 under RA 3720?

a. Hospital pharmacies
b. Drug manufacturer
c. Food and food product processor
d. Assay laboratory of drugs

A

a. Hospital pharmacies

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23
Q

This is a misbranded product if it:

a. Contains narcotic or hypnotic substances
b. Is deemed official but has substandard quality
c. Has a color other than what is permitted
d. Is a poisonous or deleterious substance

A

a. Contains narcotic or hypnotic substances

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24
Q

This is an adulterated product if it:

a. Has no name of the manufacturer
b. Has a name not recognized in the compendium
c. Prepared under unsanitary conditions
d. Dangerous at the recommended dose

A

c. Prepared under unsanitary conditions

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25
Who is the FDA Director-General? a. Dr. Samuel Zacate b. Dr. Mildred Oliveros c. Aleth Therese Dacanay d. Dr. Teodoro Herbosa
a. Dr. Samuel Zacate
26
If the label states that the expiration date is 01/2024, when does it exactly expire? a. February 01, 2024 b. January 31, 2024 c. February 31, 2024 d. January 1, 2024
b. January 31, 2024
27
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about drugs? a. Drugs listed in the Japanese Pharmacopoeia are legally considered as drugs in the Philippines. b. Losartan is an example of a drug because it cures hypertension. c. Veterinary medicines are considered as drugs in the Philippines. d. It refers to the active component, which produces pharmacologic activity.
b. Losartan is an example of a drug because it cures hypertension.
28
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about excipients? a. They are also known as inactive ingredients. b. They are also known as pharmacological necessities. c. Their primary purpose is to improve the aesthetic appearances or the stability of the drug product. d. None of the above
b. They are also known as pharmacological necessities.
29
It refers to the complete set of activities to produce a drug that comprise production and quality control from dispensing of materials to the release for distribution of the finished product. a. Extemporaneous Compounding b. Manufacturing c. Distribution d. Dispensing
b. Manufacturing
30
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about drug establishments? a. They refer to any organization or company involved in the manufacture, import, packaging and/or distribution of drugs or medicines. b. Drug Traders typically also refer to the Marketing Authorization Holder (MAH). c. Wholesalers refer to any drug establishment that procures raw materials, active ingredients and/or finished product from local establishments for local distribution directly to patients. d. None of the above.
c. Wholesalers refer to any drug establishment that procures raw materials, active ingredients and/or finished product from local establishments for local distribution directly to patients.
31
What is the maximum overage limit for vitamins? a. 20% b. 25% c. 30% d. 35%
c. 30%
32
Which of the following refers to the standard document which gives instructions to the Production Department to produce pharmaceutical product for distribution/sale in the market? a. Batch Manufacturing Record b. Standard Operating Procedures c. Quality Control Monographs d. Manufacturing Order
d. Manufacturing Order
33
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about batches/lots? a. Lot is a more general term compared to batch. b. Batches and lots are used to help maintain and standardize quantity. c. Batches are typically prepared during the same cycle of manufacturing. d. The use of batches and lots help manufacturers clearly identify groups of products that require recalls.
a. Lot is a more general term compared to batch.
34
Which department justifies overaging? a. Research Department b. Medical Department c. Engineering Department d. Production Department
a. Research Department
35
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Production Department? a. Receives materials and supplies b. Oversees warehousing and storage and shipping of the final product c. Assures that all operations meet required standards for safety and efficacy and ensures cGMP compliance d. Manufactures and packages product
c. Assures that all operations meet required standards for safety and efficacy and ensures cGMP compliance
36
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Medical Department? a. Handles scholarships b. Performs clinical studies c. Conducts physical and medical examination of new employees and applicants d. Prepares the master formula
d. Prepares the master formula
37
What type of plastic is used in microwaveable containers? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7
c. 5
38
Which of the following has direct contact with the drug, thus, has a direct effect on it? a. Primary Packaging b. Secondary Packaging c. Primary Container d. Secondary Container
c. Primary Container
39
Which of the following containers is impervious to air? a. Hermetic b. Tight c. Well-closed d. Light-resistant
a. Hermetic
40
Which of the following dosage forms are hermetically sealed? a. Ampules b. Tablets c. Solutions d. Capsules
a. Ampules
41
Which of the following dosage forms is heavily dependent on the container? a. Solutions b. Suspensions c. Emulsions d. Aerosols
d. Aerosols
42
This refers to any temperature not exceeding 8°C (46° F). a. Cold b. Cool c. Controlled Room Temperature d. Freezer
a. Cold
43
The Philippines belong to which climate zone? a. I b. II c. III d. IV
d. IV
44
Which of the following is NOT a consideration for the choice of excipients? a. Cross-contamination b. Compatibility with the active drug c. Effect on Efficacy d. Cost of formulation
a. Cross-contamination
45
Determine the important property of a drug product on which drug absorption and physiologic availability are largely dependent. a. Tablet disintegration b. Tablet dissolution c. Tablet hardness d. Content uniformity
b. Tablet dissolution
46
Identify the unit operation that includes evaluation of the drug for uniformity, stability, and other factors, followed by the development of an appropriate drug delivery system. a. Compression b. Granulation c. Formulation d. Coating
c. Formulation
47
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of powders? a. Rapid onset of action b. Readily adjustable dose c. Dry and devoid of moisture d. More stable compared to tablets
d. More stable compared to tablets
48
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about powders? a. Powders can be sprinkled in applesauce. b. It was historically used as a convenient method of administering drugs derived from hard vegetables. c. They may be used for internal or external use. d. Insoluble drugs, such as bismuth salts and calomel, are not suitable as powders.
d. Insoluble drugs, such as bismuth salts and calomel, are not suitable as powders.
49
Which of the following refers to powders where “All particles pass through a No. 20 sieve, and not more than 40% pass through a No. 60 sieve”? a. Very Coarse b. Moderately Coarse c. Coarse d. Fine
c. Coarse
50
Which of the following is NOT a property of bulk powders? a. They are typically non-potent drugs. b. They are placed in wide-mouth plastic/glass bottles, sifter cans, or aerosol sprays. c. They are dispensed in large quantities. d. They are less stable compared to divided powders.
d. They are less stable compared to divided powders.
51
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about oral powders? a. They are typically dissolved in liquids or taken with soft foods. b. They are suitable for patients having difficulty swallowing. c. They can bypass the first-pass effect. d. They are associated with an unpleasant taste.
They can bypass the first-pass effect.
52
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about dentifrices? a. They may contain chloride, which is used as anticaries agent. b. They work through an abrasive action. c. They are powders for cleaning the teeth. d. They are usually available in wide-mouth containers.
a. They may contain chloride, which is used as anticaries agent.
53
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about topical powders? a. They should have a uniform, small particle size that will not irritate the skin when applied. b. They should be impalpable and free flowing, should easily adhere to the skin, and should be passed through at least a No. 100-mesh sieve to minimize skin irritation. c. The powder should be prepared so that it adheres to the skin. d. Highly sorptive powders should be used for topical powders that are to be applied to oozing wounds.
d. Highly sorptive powders should be used for topical powders that are to be applied to oozing wounds.
54
Pin Mill a. Compression b. Shearing c. Combined Impact and Attrition d. Attrition e. Impact
c. Combined Impact and Attrition
55
Micronizer a. Compression b. Shearing c. Combined Impact and Attrition d. Attrition (e.g., Roller Mill) e. Impact
c. Combined Impact and Attrition
56
These powders are dilutions of potent powdered drugs, usually in 10% concentration. a. Dentifrices b. Triturations c. Dusting Powders d. Insufflations
b. Triturations
57
56. These are powders that are blown into the body cavity using a special device. a. Douche powders b. Insufflations c. Oral powders d. Topical powders
b. Insufflations
58
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the dosage form in #56? (Insufflations) a. The patient simply “puffs” the desired quantity of powder onto the affected area or into the cavity. b. A moisture-activated adherent, such as Polyox, can be incorporated into the powder. c. Finely divided powders that are intended to be applied in a body cavity, such as the ears, nose, vagina, tooth socket, or throat. d. None of the above.
d. None of the above.
59
If the powder contains hygroscopic or deliquescent materials, waterproof or ___________ should be used. a. Waxed paper b. Glassine paper c. Bond paper d. Vegetable parchment
a. Waxed paper
60
This is commonly used in small-scale preparation of ointments and suspensions to reduce the particle size and grittiness of the added powders. It is typically used to prepare pastes. a. Trituration b. Levigation c. Pulverization by Intervention d. Milling
b. Levigation
61
Which of the following types of mortar and pestle should only be used for mixing or blending powders and NOT for comminution? a. Wedgewood b. Glass c. Porcelain d. None of the above
b. Glass
62
When a small amount of a potent substance is to be mixed with a large amount of diluent, _____________ is used to ensure the uniform distribution of the potent drug. a. Geometric dilution b. Spatulation c. Sifting d. Tumbling
a. Geometric dilution
63
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about granules? a. Prevents segregation of the constituents of the powder. b. c. Irregularly shaped but they may be spherical. Improves compaction due to an outer binder-rich layer. d. Less stable compared to powders.
d. Less stable compared to powders.
64
When this excipient is used alone in the manufacture of effervescent granulated salts, it results in crumbling. a. Citric acid b. Tartaric acid c. Sodium bicarbonate d. Carbon dioxide
b. Tartaric acid
65
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about capsules? a. They are solid dosage forms in which medicinal agents and/or excipients are encapsulated in a small shell of gelatin. b. Gelatin is obtained by the absolute hydrolysis of collagen. c. Gelatin is obtained from the skin, white connective tissues, and bones of animals. d. Type B Gelatin is obtained from the alkaline hydrolysis of collagen.
b. Gelatin is obtained by the absolute hydrolysis of collagen.
66
This type of capsule is tapered at both ends. a. Pulvules b. Parvules c. Spansules d. Spans and Tweens
c. Spansules
67
What is the other term for boiling? a. Evaporation b. Sublimation c. Ebullition d. Distillation
c. Ebullition
68
The following are properties of smectic mesophases, EXCEPT: a. It rotates on 1 axis. b. It moves in 2 directions c. It is grease-like d. None of the above
d. None of the above
69
Which of the following exhibits the highest degree of enthalpy? a. Liquid b. Plasma c. Solid d. Gas
b. Plasma
70
The following increases solubility, except? a. Decreasing the particle size, such that it increases the surface area and increases the degree of interaction between the solute and the solvent. b. Increasing the pH of the solution, such that weak bases would be able to dissolve when the critical pH of bases is reached. c. Increasing the temperature, especially in endothermic solutions, such that it increases the kinetic energy of molecules, thus, increasing solubility. d. None of the above
b. Increasing the pH of the solution, such that weak bases would be able to dissolve when the critical pH of bases is reached.
71
Which of the following factors is the least affecting the pH of the buffer? a. Addition of neutral salt b. Temperature c. Addition of water d. Particle size
d. Particle size
72
Which of the following statements about the Ideal Gas Law is false? a. The volume of a gas is directly proportional to the number of moles. b. The volume of a gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature. c. The volume of a gas is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas. d. The pressure of a gas is directly proportional to the number of moles.
c. The volume of a gas is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas.
73
Which of the following is not an intermolecular force of & attraction? a. London Dispersion forces b. Hydrogen bonding c. Keesom d. None of the above
d. None of the above
74
Which of the following is not a colligative property? a. Vapor pressure b. Osmotic pressure c. Boiling point elevation d. None of the above
a. Vapor pressure
75
This describes a supersaturated solution a. Ksp > Q b. Ksp < Q c. Ksp = Q d. None of the above
b. Ksp < Q
76
A solution is prepared by dissolving a solute in a solvent. Which of the following is true? a. The freezing point increases b. The vapor pressure increases c. The boiling point increases d. The osmotic pressure decreases
c. The boiling point increases
77
If the contact angle is zero degrees, it is described as: a. Complete wetting b. Partial wetting c. Incomplete wetting d. No wetting
a. Complete wetting
78
The vapor pressure of a liquid: a. Decreases with an increase in temperature b. Equals atmospheric pressure at a liquid’s boiling point c. Independent of temperature d. Increases when a solute is added to the liquid
b. Equals atmospheric pressure at a liquid’s boiling point
79
The following are extensive properties, except: a. Length b. Mass c. Density d. None of the above
c. Density
80
This property is dependent on the arrangement of the components. a. Colligative Property b. Constitutive Property c. Additive Property d. Intensive Property
b. Constitutive Property
81
Which of the following has a constant of 0.3? a. Cryoscopic constant b. E-value method c. Sprowl’s method d. White-Vincent method
a. Cryoscopic constant
82
This is the difference between the work of adhesion and the work of cohesion. a. Spreading coefficient b. Nernst potential c. Zeta potential d. Surface tension
a. Spreading coefficient
83
Which of the following is defined as the number of moles per kilogram of solution? a. Molarity b. Molality c. Normality d. None of the abov
d. None of the abov
84
Characteristics of a flocculated suspension, except? a. Increased particle size b. Increased settling rate c. Increased stability d. None of the above
d. None of the above
85
Diluted sulfuric acid contains 10% (w/v) of H2SO4 (MW = 98). What is the normality? a. 1.02 b. 1.43 c. 2.04 d. 2.86
c. 2.04
86
What happens to the vapor pressure of a solvent when a non-volatile solute is added? a. It increases b. It decreases c. It stays the same d. It fluctuates randomly
b. It decreases
87
Difference in potential between the surface of the tightly bound layers and the electroneutral region of the dispersion: a. Nernst potential b. Zeta potential c. Both of the above d. None of the above
b. Zeta potential
88
The following are characteristics of lyophilic colloids, EXCEPT: a. Thermodynamically stable b. Composed of organic molecules c. Spontaneous d. None of the above
d. None of the above
89
Which of the following viscometers is classified under Cone & Plate? a. Ferranti-Shirley b. Ostwald c. Saybolt d. Hoeppler ball
a. Ferranti-Shirley
90
Which of the following equations represent sedimentation rate? a. Clausius-Clapeyron b. Noyes-Whitney c. Fick’s d. Stoke’s
d. Stoke’s
91
This is also known as your shear-thinning systems. a. Bingham bodies b. Pseudoplastics c. Thixotropic gels d. Dilatants
b. Pseudoplastics
92
Which of the following is FALSE about amorphous solids? a. They exhibit greater solubility due to their irregular arrangement resulting in more surfaces for the solvent to interact with the particle. b. They are less stable due to their relatively weaker bonds and greater reactivity with other substances. c. In X-ray diffraction, they exhibit definite peaks because when the rays are directed against the particles, they bounce off of them in a regular style. d. They tend to have a shorter duration of action, when used as the formulation for drugs.
c. In X-ray diffraction, they exhibit definite peaks because when the rays are directed against the particles, they bounce off of them in a regular style.
93
The diameter is based on the line that bisects the particle. a. Feret’s b. Martin’s c. Projected Area d. None of the above
b. Martin’s
94
Which of the following are your metal-ion complexes? a. Inorganic, Olefin, Quinhydrone, Channel Lattice b. Inorganic, Channel Lattice, Chelates, Monomolecular c. Aromatic, Inorganic, Chelate, Quinhydrone d. Aromatic, Olefin, Inorganic, Chelate
d. Aromatic, Olefin, Inorganic, Chelate
95
What is the coordination number of [Sr(H2O)8]2+? a. 2 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10
c. 8
96
The following statements about zeta potential are true, EXCEPT? a. Greater zeta potential leads to greater force of repulsion. b. Greater zeta potential is not ideal for the stability of emulsions. c. Greater zeta potential will result in flocculation. d. None of the above.
c. Greater zeta potential will result in flocculation.
97
Which of the following is isotonic? a. 0.009% NSS b. 0.09% NSS c. 0.9% NSS d. 9% NSS
c. 0.9% NSS
98
What is the effect of an isotonic solution? a. Hemolysis b. Crenation c. Swelling d. None of the above
d. None of the above
99
E value is defined as: a. Equivalent NaCl to resemble the isotonicity of blood b. Amount of specified chemical that is theoretically equivalent to 1 gram of NaCl c. Amount of NaCl that is theoretically equivalent to 1 gram of specified chemical d. Equivalent NaCl which is enough to make it a normal solution
c. Amount of NaCl that is theoretically equivalent to 1 gram of specified chemical
100
Which of the following is proton-donor? a. Bronsted-Lowry Acid b. Arrhenius Acid c. Lewis Acid d. None of the above
a. Bronsted-Lowry Acid
101
Maximum buffer capacity occurs when: a. pH > pKa b. pH < pKa c. pH = pKa d. None of the above
c. pH = pKa