exam review 1 Flashcards
(138 cards)
1
Q
What does the Trigeminal Nerve (CN V) control?
A
Sensory innervation to the face.
2
Q
What does the Facial Nerve (CN VII) control?
A
Facial movement and taste sensation from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.
3
Q
What are signs of TMJ dysfunction?
A
Limited movement (trismus), popping, clicking, crepitus, jaw deviation or deflection, partial dislocation (subluxation).
4
Q
What is a common site for oral cancer?
A
The lateral tongue.
4
Q
What conditions affect saliva flow?
A
Xerostomia (dry mouth), sialolithiasis (salivary gland stones).
5
Q
What are common findings in jaw examinations?
A
Odontogenic tumors (e.g., ameloblastoma), bone resorption from periodontal disease.
5
Q
What is a differential diagnosis?
A
The process of ruling out conditions to determine a final diagnosis.
5
Q
What are Fordyce granules?
A
Ectopic sebaceous glands appearing as yellow-white papules, common on lips and buccal mucosa.
6
Q
Where is torus palatinus located? Who is more likely to have torus palatinus?
A
On the midline of the hard palate, females.
7
Q
Where are mandibular tori found? Are they usually uni or bi?
A
Bilateral (90%).
8
Q
Who commonly has oral melanin pigmentation?
A
Patients with darker skin.
8
Q
What is buccal exostosis?
A
Localized bony growths on the buccal (cheek) side of the jaw.
9
Q
What are lingual varicosities?
A
Prominent veins on the ventral (underside) of the tongue, common in patients over 60.
10
Q
What causes linea alba?
A
Friction, clenching, or grinding (bruxism).
11
Q
How can you identify leukoedema?
A
Gray-white opalescence on the buccal mucosa that disappears when stretched.
12
Q
What is a lingual thyroid?
A
Remnant thyroid tissue trapped in the tongue during fetal development.
13
Q
Where does a lingual thyroid appear?
A
As a mass on the posterior dorsal tongue.
14
Q
What is leukoplakia?
A
A white lesion that cannot be rubbed off, requiring biopsy for diagnosis.
15
Q
Why is erythroplakia more concerning than leukoplakia?
A
It has a higher risk of being pre-malignant or malignant.
16
Q
What is desquamative gingivitis?
A
Red, ulcerated, peeling gingiva caused by systemic conditions.
17
Q
What causes angular cheilitis?
A
Often due to a fungal infection (Candida) or nutritional deficiency.
18
Q
What is median rhomboid glossitis?
A
A red, oval or rectangular patch on the midline dorsal tongue, lacking filiform papillae.
19
Q
What condition is associated with Candida albicans infection?
A
Median rhomboid glossitis.
20
Q
What is another name for erythema migrans?
A
Geographic tongue.
20
What is fissured tongue?
Deep grooves (2-6mm) on the dorsal tongue, often occurring with geographic tongue.
21
How does geographic tongue appear?
Red patches with yellow-white borders that migrate over time.
22
What triggers geographic tongue?
Stress or spicy foods.
23
What is hairy tongue?
Overgrowth of keratin on filiform papillae, appearing white, brown, or black.
24
What can cause hairy tongue?
Poor oral hygiene, smoking, bacteria, or diet.
25
What is an amalgam tattoo?
Bluish-gray discoloration from embedded dental amalgam particles.
26
Where does oral cancer commonly occur?
Lateral tongue, floor of the mouth, soft palate.
27
What are major risk factors for oral cancer?
Tobacco, alcohol, HPV infection.
28
What are the two types of cellular responses to injury?
Adaptive response and reactive response.
29
What is an adaptive response?
When tissue attempts to restore normal function.
30
What is a reactive response?
When tissue undergoes changes due to injury or irritation.
31
What is inflammation?
A non-specific response to injury involving microcirculation and blood vessels.
32
What are the five steps of inflammation?
1. Recognition of offending agent
2. Recruitment of leukocytes & plasma proteins
3. Activation of leukocytes & removal of agent
4. Regulation & termination
5. Tissue repair
33
What stops inflammation when it is no longer needed?
Anti-inflammatory mediators.
34
What are the possible outcomes of tissue repair?
Complete resolution, scarring (fibrosis), or chronic inflammation.
35
What WBCs are involved in chronic inflammation and tissue repair?
Monocytes/Macrophages.
36
What vascular changes occur in inflammation?
Vasodilation (redness & heat) and increased permeability (plasma leakage).
37
What are the types of exudate?
Serous (clear, watery), purulent (thick, pus-filled), abscess (localized pus collection).
37
What are systemic signs of inflammation?
Fever, leukocytosis, lymphadenopathy, elevated C-reactive protein (CRP).
38
What is attrition?
Tooth-to-tooth wear.
39
What causes abrasion?
Mechanical habits like aggressive brushing.
40
What is abfraction?
Cervical wedge-shaped defects due to occlusal forces.
41
What causes an aspirin burn?
Direct placement of aspirin on oral tissue, leading to white necrotic tissue.
42
What causes erosion?
Chemical loss of enamel from acid reflux, bulimia, or meth use.
43
How can mouthwash cause burns?
Overuse of alcohol-based mouthwash can lead to epithelial sloughing.
44
What are common causes of traumatic ulcers?
Cheek biting, aggressive brushing, or irritants.
45
How long do traumatic ulcers take to heal?
7-10 days (biopsy recommended if trauma persists).
46
What are common self-induced oral lesions?
Cheek chewing, lip biting, hematoma (blood accumulation from trauma).
47
What is frictional keratosis?
Thickening of oral tissue due to chronic friction or rubbing.
48
What is nicotine stomatitis?
White patches on the palate from pipe or cigar smoking.
49
What is smokeless tobacco keratosis?
White wrinkled lesion where tobacco is placed.
50
What is smoker’s melanosis?
Brown pigmentation in the oral mucosa due to smoking.
51
What is a mucocele?
Saliva retention due to duct damage, common on the lower lip.
52
What is a ranula?
A large mucocele on the floor of the mouth.
53
What is a pyogenic granuloma?
A red, ulcerated lesion that bleeds easily, common in pregnant women (“pregnancy tumor”).
54
How does a peripheral giant cell granuloma differ from a pyogenic granuloma?
It resembles a pyogenic granuloma but contains giant cells.
55
What is a peripheral ossifying fibroma?
A reactive lesion containing bone or cementum-like deposits.
56
What is a parulis ("gum boil")?
A pus-filled swelling at the site of drainage.
57
What is a fibroma?
A common exophytic lesion caused by trauma.
58
What is a periapical granuloma?
Chronic, asymptomatic inflammation at the tooth apex.
59
What is a radicular cyst?
The most common odontogenic cyst at the apex of a non-vital tooth.
60
What is alveolar osteitis (dry socket)?
Loss of the blood clot after extraction, common in mandibular 3rd molars.
61
What is healing by primary intention?
Minimal scarring, as seen in surgical incisions.
62
What is healing by secondary intention?
Extensive healing with scar formation, such as after a tooth extraction.
63
What is healing by tertiary intention?
Delayed healing due to infection.
64
What is Mucosal-Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)?
Lymphoid tissue found at the body's entry points to protect against pathogens.
65
Where is Waldeyer’s ring located?
In the oropharynx.
66
What does humoral immunity protect against?
Circulating extracellular antigens such as bacteria, microbial exotoxins, extracellular viruses, and some parasites.
67
What does cell-mediated immunity protect against?
Intracellular microorganisms like parasites, viruses, bacteria, tumors, and rejection of transplanted tissue.
68
What is passive immunity?
The use of antibodies produced by another person to protect against infectious diseases.
69
What is active immunity?
The use of antibodies produced by one's own body to protect against infectious diseases.
70
What happens in autoimmune diseases?
The immune system treats the body’s own cells as antigens, may involve a single organ or multiple organs, tend to be chronic, and can have relapses and remissions.
71
What are aphthous ulcers (canker sores)?
Recurrent ulcers affecting 20% of the population, healing in 7-10 days.
72
What are common triggers for aphthous ulcers?
Sodium lauryl sulfate (toothpaste), NSAIDs, trauma.
73
Where do aphthous ulcers commonly appear?
Non-keratinized mucosa: buccal/labial mucosa, tongue, floor of mouth, soft palate.
74
What systemic conditions can cause aphthous-like ulcers?
Behçet syndrome, celiac disease, and nutritional deficiencies.
75
What are urticaria and angioedema?
Hypersensitivity reactions; urticaria causes itchy, well-demarcated erythema, while angioedema causes diffuse edema.
76
How are urticaria and angioedema treated?
Antihistamines.
77
What is allergic contact mucositis?
A Type IV hypersensitivity reaction causing erythema, edema, burning, and pruritus.
78
What causes plasma cell gingivitis?
Hypersensitivity to products like toothpaste, mouthwash, and mints.
79
What are fixed drug eruptions?
Type III hypersensitivity lesions appearing in the same site after drug exposure.
80
What drugs can cause fixed drug eruptions?
Barbiturates, lidocaine, tetracycline, chlorhexidine.
81
What is erythema multiforme?
An acute hypersensitivity reaction affecting skin and mucosa, often triggered by herpes simplex virus or drug exposure.
82
What is a distinguishing feature of erythema multiforme?
Target skin lesions, healing in 2-4 weeks.
83
What is lichen planus?
A chronic inflammatory disease affecting the skin and oral mucosa.
84
What is the characteristic appearance of lichen planus?
Radiating white, lace-like lines.
85
What are the two forms of lichen planus?
Reticular (white component only) and erosive (erythema with ulcers).
86
What glands are affected in Sjögren Syndrome?
Salivary and lacrimal glands.
87
What are the major systemic complications of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
Kidney and cardiac involvement.
87
What are the oral manifestations of Sjögren Syndrome?
Dry mouth, erythema, sticky mouth, cracked lips, loss of tongue papillae, difficulty eating, high caries risk, oral candidiasis, parotid gland enlargement.
88
Who is more commonly affected by Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
Women
89
What type of oral lesions are seen in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
Lichen planus-like oral lesions.
90
What is pemphigus vulgaris?
A severe, progressive autoimmune disease affecting skin and mucous membranes.
91
What is Nikolsky Sign?
Separation of the epithelium with lateral pressure.
92
How is pemphigus vulgaris treated?
Steroids or other immunosuppressive drugs.
93
What areas are affected by mucous membrane pemphigoid?
Oral mucosa, conjunctiva, genital mucosa, and skin.
94
What is the most significant complication of mucous membrane pemphigoid?
Scarring of the eyes.
95
What oral condition is associated with mucous membrane pemphigoid?
Desquamative gingivitis.
96
What treatments are used for mucous membrane pemphigoid?
Topical steroids and systemic medications.
97
What are the key factors to describe a soft tissue lesion?
Location, size, color, descriptive terms, palpation, relation to surrounding structures
98
What is a macule?
A focal area of color change, <1 cm (e.g., Labial Melanotic Macule)
99
How is a patch different from a macule?
A patch is >1 cm and may have texture changes
100
What is a plaque lesion?
A slightly raised, flat-surfaced lesion >1 cm (e.g., Epithelial Dysplasia)
101
What is a papule?
A small, raised, solid lesion <1 cm (e.g., Giant Cell Fibroma)
102
How does a nodule differ from a papule?
A nodule is larger, >1 cm, and raised solid (e.g., Mucocele)
103
What is a vesicle?
A small fluid-filled blister <5 mm (e.g., Herpes Simplex)
104
How is a bullae different from a vesicle?
A bullae is >5 mm and may rupture (e.g., Bullous Pemphigoid)
105
What is a pustule?
A lesion containing purulent exudate <1 cm (e.g., Abscess)
106
What is erosion?
A partial loss of mucosa that heals without scarring (e.g., Chemical Erosion)
107
How is an ulceration different from erosion?
Ulceration extends into connective tissue and is painful (e.g., Aphthous Ulcer)
108
What is a fissure?
A linear groove that can be normal or pathological (e.g., Fissured Tongue)
109
What are petechiae?
Tiny red/brown spots from bleeding under the mucosa
110
How does purpura differ from petechiae?
Purpura is a red-purple rash from capillary bleeding
111
What is ecchymosis?
A large subcutaneous bleeding lesion (>1 cm)
112
What does a granular texture indicate?
A rough, irregular surface (e.g., Squamous Cell Carcinoma)
113
What does verrucous texture look like?
Wart-like surface (e.g., Verrucous Carcinoma)
114
What does a papillary lesion resemble?
Finger-like projections (e.g., Papilloma)
115
What does lobulated mean?
Multiple rounded protrusions (e.g., Mandibular Tori)
116
What is the difference between sessile and pedunculated bases?
Sessile has a broad base, pedunculated has a narrow stalk
117
What does an indurated lesion feel like?
Firm, possibly malignant
118
What does a fluctuant lesion indicate?
Soft, compressible, fluid-filled
119
What is a cystic lesion?
An epithelium-lined cavity with liquid or semi-solid contents, intraosseous or soft tissue
120
What does a radiolucent lesion indicate?
Bone resorption (e.g., Lateral Periodontal Cyst, Idiopathic Bone Cavity)
121
What does a radiopaque lesion indicate?
Mineralization (e.g., Osteosclerosis)
122
What is an example of a mixed-density lesion?
Florid Cemento-Osseous Dysplasia, Ossifying Fibroma
123
What is the difference between unilocular and multilocular lesions?
Unilocular has a single compartment; multilocular has multiple compartments
124
Name an example of a unilocular lesion.
Periapical Cyst, Nasopalatine Duct Cyst
125
Name an example of a multilocular lesion.
Ameloblastoma, Central Giant Cell Granuloma, Odontogenic Myxoma
126
How do "honeycomb" and "soap bubble" appearances differ?
Honeycomb has fine small locules; soap bubble has coarse big locules
127
What is a corticated lesion?
A well-defined lesion with a radiopaque border (e.g., Residual Cyst)
128
What does a "punched out" lesion look like?
Well-defined but with abrupt borders, no surrounding bone changes (e.g., Multiple Myeloma)
129
What does a wide zone of transition suggest?
Poorly defined lesion blending into surrounding bone (e.g., Osteomyelitis, Squamous Cell Carcinoma)
130
What lesion is associated with root resorption?
Ameloblastoma
131
What does a periosteal reaction suggest?
Reactive bone formation, may appear sunburst-like (e.g., Osteosarcoma)
