Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biology 100 > Exam review > Flashcards

Exam review Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the inputs and outputs of glycolysis during the energy investment phase

A

Inputs: 2 ATP used
Outputs: 2 ADP + 2 Phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the inputs and outputs of glycolysis during the energy payoff phase?

A

Inputs: 4 ADP +4 p Outputs to: 4 ATP

inputs: 2 NAD++4e-+4H+ outputs to 2 NADH +2 H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The electrons from the electron transport chain come from either

A

NADH or FADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

____ had the lowest affinity for electrons, while ___ has the highest

A

NADH
O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where are phospholipids of the membrane made? How are they kept in place?(unit 7)

A

made at smooth ER

proteins come in vesicles and fuse with membrane

kept in place by weak hydrophobic interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Decreasing extracellular pH would have what effect on sucrose transport into the cell?

A

Sucrose movement into cell is depending on H+ ions moving down their concentration gradient

more H+ ions outside the cell? more sucrose transport in

decreasing extracelluar pH means MORE H+ ions outside the cell, so more sucrose would move in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If phosphate does not attach to the sodium potassium pump, what will happen?

A

the pump will not trigger and change shape, so the Na+ will not be released outside the cell and K+ in the ECM will not be able to bind to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When acetyl CoA combines with oxaloacetate, the ___ group is lost and ___ is formed. This molecule then releases two carbons as ____ and produces ____

A

the CoA group is lost
six carbon citrate is formed
releases two carbons as CO2 and produces NADH each time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Due to its high H+ content, the intermembrane space has a ___pH

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Under what cellular conditions is there a HIGH concentration of AMP?

A

when a cell is low on ATP, it will start squeezing more out of ADP molecules by converting them to ATP And AMP

high levels of AMP mean the cell is starved for energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following statements about glycolysis is false?
A. Glycolysis may occur in the absence of sufficient oxygen for cellular
respiration to occur
B. Glycolysis will not occur in the absence of NAD+ regeneration
C. Several products of glycolysis can be synthesized in the absence of
glucose
D. ATP is the only regulator of glycolysis
E. None of the above

A

D. ATP is the only regulator of glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The pH level in the ______ is _____ than the pH levels in the ______.
A. Cytosol, lower, intermembrane space of the mitochondria
B. Intermembrane space of the mitochondria, lower, mitochondrial
matrix
C. Cytosol, higher, mitochondrial matrix
D. Intermembrane space of the mitochondria, higher, mitochondrial
matrix
E. The pH levels in the cytosol, mitochondrial matrix, and the
intermembrane space of the mitochondria are equal

A

B. Intermembrane space of the mitochondria, lower, mitochondrial
matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is most likely to occur as a result of oxygen
deficiency?
A. NADH would be oxidized rapidly by the components of the electron
transport chain, resulting in the subsequent production of ATP
B. FADH2 would not be oxidized by the electron transport chain.
C. NADH would not be oxidized because the structural integrity of the inner
mitochondrial membrane would be compromised.
D. More than one of the above
E. None of the above

A

B. FADH2 would not be oxidized by the electron transport chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Both citrate and ATP can inhibit the enzyme PFK. Why is this useful?

A

PFK regulates glycoylsis through allosteric inhibition, creating ADP and fuctose 1,6 biphosphate

if there is low energy, there is a high concentration of AMP which will ind to PFK, increasing its affinity for the substrates

If there is high energy, ATP will bind to a different allosteric site and decrease PFKs affinity for the substrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

While CDK is regenerated throughout the cell cycle, ____ is degraded and reaches its threshold at the end of the G2 phase, resulting in the activation of mitotic CDK

A

cyclin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cyclin and CDK make ____, which promotes mitosis through phosphorolation during _____

A

MPF
promotes phosphorolation during metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Synthesis of cyclin begins in the late ___ phase and continues through the ___ phase.

A

S
G2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

During anaphase, what happens to cyclin?

A

cyclin component of MPF is degraded and terminated the M phase, the cell enters G1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

During G1, ___ continues to degrade and ____ component of MPF is recycled

A

cyclin degrades
CDK is recycled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

during anaphase, nonkinetochore microtubules ___ while kinetochores ___

A

lengthen to elongate cell

shorten to separate daughter chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are homologous chromosomes

A

a pair of chromosomes that encode for the same genes, but may have different alleles

21
Q

Sister chromatids appear at what phases of mitosis and meiosis?

A

both prophase, prophase II for meiosis

22
Q

Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?
A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.
B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
C) Each cell has eight homologous pairs.
D) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
E) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes.

A

C) Each cell has eight homologous pairs

23
Q

Which of the following statements about meiosis is true?
A. Homologous chromosomes are separated from each other during
meiosis I and the resulting cells are therefore haploid cells.
B. Homologous chromosomes are separated from each other only after
meiosis II and the resulting cells are therefore haploid cells.
C. Homologous chromosomes are not separated from each other
during meiosis and the resulting daughter cells are haploid cells.
D. Homologous chromosomes are not separated from each other
during meiosis and the resulting daughter cells are diploid cells.
E. None of the above are true.

A

A. Homologous chromosomes are separated from each other during
meiosis I and the resulting cells are therefore haploid cells.

24
Q

In mitosis _____, while in meiosis II _____.
A. 2 identical daughter cells form; 4 identical daughter cells form
B. Sister chromatids are separated; homologous chromosomes are
separated
C. Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate; homologous
chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate
D. Sister chromatids are identical; sister chromatids are non-identical
E. More than one of the above is correct.

A

D. Sister chromatids are identical; sister chromatids are non-identical

25
Q

You are told that while performing meiosis I, the cell is unable to divide its
genetic material evenly. Based off of this we can conclude that at the end
of meiosis II…
A. All four daughter cells will have incorrect amounts of DNA.
B. Only two daughter cells will have incorrect amounts of DNA.
C. The cell in question failed to separate its sister chromatids.
D. A&C are correct.
E. B&C are correct.

A

A. All four daughter cells will have incorrect amounts of DNA.

26
Q

When do homologs separate during meiosis?

A

anaphase I

27
Q

Homologs are not held together by a centromere, but by

A

a chiasma

28
Q

6 sets of chromosomes will be 2n=

A

12

29
Q

A cell that doesn’t copy itself is stuck in the ___ phase

A

G0

30
Q

Why does complex 1 pump protons into mitochondrial matrix, but complex 2 does not?

A

complex 2 has coenzyme Q, which blocks redox electrons from entering mitochondrial matrix

31
Q

How does complex 3 receive electrons?

A

via coenzyme Q from complex 2

32
Q

Where does complex 4 receive electrons from?

A

cytochrome C, which received electrons from complex 3

33
Q

Both coenzyme Q and cytochrome C reduce

A

oxidative stress

34
Q

The electrons in complex 4 are received by __ to reduce oxidative stress

A

O2, which binds with protons to form water

35
Q

Lipid anchored proteins are ___ bonded to the bilayer. They are a type of ___ protein

A

covalently

integral

36
Q

Which of the following is true of integral membrane proteins?
a. They lack tertiary structure.
b. They are loosely bound to the surface of the bilayer.
c. They are usually transmembrane proteins.
d. They are not mobile within the bilayer.
e. They serve only a structural role in membranes.

A

c. They are usually transmembrane proteins.

37
Q
  1. The sodium-potassium pump is called an electrogenic pump because it
    a. pumps equal quantities of Na⁺ and K⁺ across the membrane.
    b. pumps hydrogen ions out of the cell.
    c. contributes to the membrane potential.
    d. ionizes sodium and potassium atoms.
    e. is used to drive the transport of other molecules against a concentration
    gradient.
A

c. contributes to the membrane potential.

38
Q

Which of the following molecules triggers the cell’s passage past the G2
checkpoint into mitosis?
a) PDGF
b) MPF
c) Cyclin
d) Cdk

A

MPF

39
Q

Cyclin is at its lowest concentration during what point of the cell cycle

A

anaphase

40
Q

When does cyclin accumulate in the cell cycle

A

late S phase through G2

41
Q

What is endocytosis? Name some types of this process

A

the process by which cells take in material, type of bulk transport

phago, pino, receptor mediated

42
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

cells take in large food particles

43
Q

What is pinocytosis?

A

cells takes in fluid that contains solutes/nutrients

44
Q

what is receptor mediated endocytosis?

A

the cell has receptors that attach to specific molecules

45
Q

What is exocytosis?

A

exporting material

46
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an exergonic reaction?
A. The splitting of glucose into pyruvate
B. The splitting of a protein into amino acids
C. The synthesis of a starch from several molecules of sugar
D. The breakdown of a toxin into two non-toxic components

A

C. The synthesis of a starch from several molecules of sugar

47
Q

Which of the following might stop the production of ATP within a cell?
A. Flooding the cell with ATP, pushing the equilibrium toward the reactant side of the equation.
B. Drastically lowering the temperature so that chemical reactions proceed at a slower rate.
C. Removing the enzymes which lower the activation energy for the reactions that create ATP.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

48
Q

anytime a dehydrogenase enzyme is used, what must be reduced?

A

NAD+ to NADH
FAD to FADH2

49
Q

If oxolacetate disappears from the mitochondria, what might happen?

A

acetyl CoA still develops and turns into fatty acids, creating ketones–> ketogenensis

Biology 100 (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions