Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Donny Rad Patient Care > Exam Review 2 (s1) > Flashcards

Exam Review 2 (s1) Flashcards

1
Q

CH 20
The goal of a radiologic technologist in a medical emergency is to:

A
  1. recognize an emergency
  2. Preserve life
  3. Avoid further harm
  4. Get help
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

R.T’s should be alert for changes to a patients:
(CH 20)

A
  1. level of consciousness
  2. Demeaner
  3. Pain level
  4. Respiration
  5. Speech patterns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Types of shock:
(CH 20)

A

hypovolemic- loss of blood or fluids
Cardiogenic- Cardiac disorders (MI)
Neurogenic- spinal cord damage
Vasogenic- anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hypovolemic

A

Shock due to loss of blood or fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cardiogenic

A

Cardiac disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Neurogenic

A

spinal cord damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vasogenic

A

anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Signs of stoke:

A
  1. slurred speech
  2. dizziness
  3. loss of vision
  4. one-side paralysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

(CH 21-22)
(Drug Nomenclature)
Generic name

A

name given to drug when commercially available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

(CH 21-22)
(Drug Nomenclature)
Chemical name

A

identifies chemical structure of drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

(CH 21-22)
(Drug Nomenclature)
Trade name

A

Name given to a drug manufactured by specific company
(brand name, propriety name, trademark)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

(CH 21-22)
(Classification by Drug action)
Antiarrhythmics

A

Adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(CH 21-22)
(Classification by Drug action)
Antidiabetic drugs

A

Metformin
(Glucophage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(CH 21-22)
(Classification by Drug action)
Antihistamines

A

diphenhydramine
(Benadryl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

(CH 21-22)
(Classification by Drug action)
Antiplatelets

A

aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

(CH 21-22)
(Classification by Drug action)
vasodilators

A

nitroglycerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

(CH 21-22)
Factors that influence drug action (7)

A
  1. patient age
  2. health status
  3. time of day
  4. emotional status
  5. other drugs in the body
  6. genetics (genetic variations)
  7. disease state of the body (kidney/liver function)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

(CH 21-22)
Drug reactions: Mild consist of:

A

Anxiety
lightheadedness
nausea
vomiting
itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

(CH 21-22)
Drug reactions: Moderate consist of:

A

urticaria
bronchospasm
angioedema
hypotension
Tachycardia (<100 beats/min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

(CH 21-22)
Drug reactions: severe consists of: (8)

A

Bradycardia (<50 beats/min)
cardiac arrythmias
laryngeal swelling
convulsions
loss of consciousness
cardiac arrest
respiratory arrest
no detectable pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

(CH 21-22)
idiosyncratic reactions

A

abnormal response to a drug cause by individual genetic differences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

(CH 21-22)
5 rights of drug administration:

A

right drug
right amount
right patient
right time
right route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

(CH 21-22)
Methods of administration
Topical:

A

application of drug directly on skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

(CH 21-22)
Methods of administration
Enteral:

A

Drug administration through digestive system
oral
sublingual
buccal
rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

(CH 21-22)
Methods of administration
Parenteral:

A

administered NOT through digestive (anything but)
Usually needles/syringes
intradermal
intramuscular
intravenous
subcutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

(CH 21-22)
Needles:
(diameter and length)

A

diameter expressed in gauges from 14-28
(smaller # is bigger diameter)
Vary in length .25 inches to 5 inches
most common is 1-1.5 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

(CH 21-22)
venipuncture procedure:

A

insert needle next to vein at 15-30 degree angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

(CH 21-22)
infiltration:

A

medicine leaking into the soft tissue WITHOUT irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

(CH 21-22)
extravasation

A

medicine leaking into the tissue WITH irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

(CH 21-22)
Common medical abbreviations:
_
C:
IM:
IV:
PO:

A

With
Intramuscular
intravenously
by mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

(CH 21-22)
Common medical abbreviations:
_
S:
NPO:
SC:
Stat:

A

Without
nothing by mouth
subcutaneously
immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

(CH 23)
Negative contrast media:
Atomic #?
How does it appear?
Examples?

A

composed of low atomic number elements
appears radiolucent on image
Examples: air/gas (CO2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

(CH 23)
Positive contrast media:

A

Composed of higher atomic number elements
appears radiopaque on image
barium sulfate
water-soluble iodine contrast agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

(CH 23)
Barium Sulfate:

A

(BaSO4)
z=56
suspension
flocculation (tendency)
Screen patient for contraindication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

(CH 23)
suspension means?

A

must be continually mixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

(CH 23)
Flocculation in barium sulfate:

A

tendency for barium sulfate to clump without the addition of sodium carbonate/sodium citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

(CH 23)
_____ _____ following barium studies

A

push fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

(CH 23)
what is contraindication?

A

suspected cases of Bowel Perforation
(always check before giving barium sulfate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

(CH 23)
water soluble iodine contrast agents

A

ionic & non-ionic contrast media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

(CH 23)
ionic contrast media:

A

uses iodine as the contrast material (z=53)
Dissociates into two ions
Anion (negative)
&
cation (positive)
(increased osmolality/viscosity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

(CH 23)
increased osmolality:

A

the measure of the total number of particles in a solution per kilogram of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

increased viscosity:

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Most adverse reactions to contrast result from the:

A

osmolality of the agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

(CH 23)
contrast considerations:

A

renal function
metformin (Glucophage) should be discontinued for 48 hrs before and after the use of iodine contrast

45
Q

(CH 23)
radiopharmaceuticals:

A

typically emit gamma radiation
monitored (detected) by gamma camera in nuclear department

46
Q

(CH 23)
non-ionic contrast media:

A

uses iodine as the contrast material (z=53)
low osmolality contrast media (LOCM) -typically
does not associate into cation and anion
less likely to cause patient reaction

47
Q

(CH 23)
two types of radiopharmaceutical contamination:

A

external- spilled on
Internal- ingested

48
Q

(CH 24)
ethical dilemmas occur when:

A

the correct choice is not clear and personal values may conflict

49
Q

(CH 24)
ethical theories: (6)

A

consequentialism
non-consequentialism
social contracts
virtue based ethics
rights based ethics
principle based ethics

50
Q

(CH 24)
Consequentialism:

A

(Decision is right or wrong based on consequences)
the decision is right or wrong based on the outcome or consequences

51
Q

(CH 24)
non-consequentialism:

A

(Right or wrong the outcome is not important)
the outcome is unimportant to what is right or wrong

52
Q

(CH 24)
social contracts:

A

expectations based on a relationship
(RT and Patient)
(server and customer)
(pilot and passenger)

53
Q

(CH 24)
virtue based ethics:

A

Character traits guides ethical decisions

54
Q

(CH 24)
rights-based ethics:

A

decisions based on the fact that individuals have rights

55
Q

(CH 24)
principle based ethics:

A

the use of ethical principles to guide decision making

56
Q

(CH 24)
Principle based ethics:

A

beneficence
nonmaleficence
autonomy
veracity
fidelity
justice

57
Q

(CH 24)
beneficence

A

actions should always benefit the patient

58
Q

(CH 24)
nonmaleficence

A

actions should not harm the patient

59
Q

(CH 24)
autonomy

A

actions should respect patient independence

60
Q

(CH 24)
veracity

A

always be truthful

61
Q

(CH 24)
fidelity

A

actions should always meet promises

62
Q

(CH 24)
justice

A

actions should be fair

63
Q

(CH 24)
professional ethics:

A

society expects professions to self-regulate

64
Q

(CH 24)
In medical imaging and radiation therapy professional ethics are primarily maintained by the ______ in its _________ which contains __ main sections

A

ARRT
Standard of ethics
2

65
Q

(CH 24)
2 main sections of ARRT standard of ethics:

A

Code of ethics
Rules of ethics

66
Q

(CH 24)
Code of ethics:

A

behaviors a professional should aspire to achieve

67
Q

(CH 24)
Rules of ethics:

A

(mandatory rules that outline how a professional should behave)

mandatory rules of acceptable professional conduct

68
Q

(CH 25)
Electronic medical record (EMR):

A

medical records that are controlled by a single institution
a patient can see their EMR apon request

69
Q

(CH 25)
Electronic health record (HER):

A

medical records that are easily accessed by patient
multiple medical institutions
(patient portal)

70
Q

(CH 25)
Hosptial (healthcare) information system (HIS):

A

designed to share patient data:
scheduling
billing
assigns patient number

71
Q

(CH 25)
Radiology information system (RIS):

A

manages patient scheduling, billing, and orders in RAD department
assigns accession number #

72
Q

(CH 25)
Health insurance companies
Medical necessity:

A

healthcare services needed to diagnose and treat a disease or injury
(proof so insurance covers)

73
Q

(CH 25)
ICD-10-CM

A

reason for the visit translated into a code

74
Q

(CH 25)
health insurance portability and accountability act 1996
(HIPAA)

A

defines standards for protecting patient information

75
Q

(CH 25)
CPT-4:

A

codes used for specific diagnostic procedures and services

76
Q

(CH 25)
Privacy rule
what patient information is protected? (9)

A

medical history
current medical conditions
prognosis
current treatment
financial information
birth date
social security number #
address
name

77
Q

(CH 25)
How is patient information protected?

A

administrative safeguards
physical safeguards
technical safeguards
organizational safeguards

78
Q

(CH 25)
administrative safeguards

A

policy/procedure that:
prevent
detect
contain
& correct security violations

79
Q

(CH 25)
physical safeguards

A

badges
locked doors

80
Q

(CH 25)
technical safeguards

A

passwords
automatic log-off
surveillance

81
Q

(CH 25)
organizational safeguards

A

business agreements and training

82
Q

(CH 25)
HIPPA is enforced by:

A

the US Department of Health and Human Services

83
Q

(CH 26)
Medical law
What are the types of law? (4)

A

constitutional
legislative
case
contract

84
Q

(CH 26) constitutional:

A

the supreme law of the land

85
Q

(CH 26) legislative:

A

statues and regulations that direct much of our daily lives

86
Q

(CH 26) case:

A

decided by a judge or jury

87
Q

(CH 26) Contract:
(NDA)

A

a legally enforceable agreement
(NDA)

88
Q

(CH 26)
10% of all medical negligence lawsuits originate from:

A

medical imaging
(mis-diagnosis)

89
Q

(CH 26)
assault:

A

a patient believes he/she has been threatened an fears they are about to be harmed

90
Q

(CH 26)
torts:

A

(patient believes they have been wronged or injured and can sue)

patients can claim they have been wronged or sustained some injury (other than breach of contract) for which they can sue for damages

91
Q

(CH 26)
battery:

A

unlawful touching
can occur w/o injury

92
Q

(CH 26)
false imprisonment:

A

a patient is restrained against there will

93
Q

(CH 26) Defamation:
two forms:

A

protected health information is released
could cause:
ridicule
scorn
contempt

Written & Slander

94
Q

(CH 26)
libel:

A

written

95
Q

(CH 26)
slander:

A

spoken defamation

96
Q

(CH 26)
fraud:

A

intentional misrepresentation of facts that cause harm to individual

97
Q

(CH 26)
breach of privacy:

A

sharing protected health information without consent

98
Q

(CH 26)
negligence:

A

failure to use proper-care as reasonably prudent person would use under the same circumstance

99
Q

(CH 26)
standard of care:

A

RT’s put themselves at legal risk if they perform an act outside the standard of care

100
Q

(CH 26)
Standard of care is defined by:

A

the ASRT practice standards

for medical imaging and radiation therapy

101
Q

(CH 26)
informed consent:

A

requires written consent for an invasive procedure

102
Q

(CH 26)
consent:

A

patients have the right to make informed decisions about their care

103
Q

(CH 26)
Res ipsa loquitur
(REGISTRY/EXAM QUESTION)

A

“the thing speaks for itself”
the only explanation for the injury is the medical procedure and staff

104
Q

(CH 26)
implied consent:

A

consent assumed for simple procedures
(because patient showed up to the appointment)

105
Q

(CH 26)
(REGISTRY/EXAM QUESTION)
Respondeat superior:

A

” the master speaks for the servant”
physician or institution is responsible

106
Q

(CH 26)
Patient bill of rights:

A

a list of patient rights developed by the American Hospital Association

107
Q

What are water-soluble iodine contrast agents?

A

Ionic contrast media
non-ionic contrast media

108
Q

What is the main difference between non-ionic and ionic contrast media?

A

Patient reactions
osmolarity/viscosity
Ions

non-ionic:
is better for patient reactions and ions don’t disassociate & low osmolarity/viscosity

Donny Rad Patient Care (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions