Exam Revision.. Flashcards

(215 cards)

1
Q

Identify 5 causes of Dermatological disease

A
  1. Parasites
  2. Infection
  3. Allergy
  4. Neoplasia
  5. Hormonal imbalance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the Aetiology for Atopic Dermatitis?

A
  • Genetic disposition to become sensitive to allergens
  • Have abnormal skin barrier function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Pathophysiology for Atopic Dermatitis?

A
  1. Allergens are proteins that when inhaled or absorbed through skin, resp or GI tract
  2. Causes allergen-specific IgE production
  3. IgE molecules affix to tissue mast cells or basophils
  4. When primed cells encounter specific allergen again
  5. Mast cell degranulation occurs
  6. Resulting in the release of proteolytic enzymes, histamines, bradykins + other vasoactive amines
  7. Leading to inflammation (erythema, oedema + pruritits)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 7 Clinical signs for Atopic Dermatitis?

A
  1. Puritis +++
  2. Inflammation
  3. Lesions
  4. Alopecia
  5. Lichenification
  6. Erythema
  7. Papules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Lichenification?

A
  • Thickened + leathery apperance of skin
  • Looks elevated + like elephant skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is this?

A

Lichenification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 10 Diagnosis for Atopic Dermatitis?

A
  1. Hx
  2. Clinical signs
  3. Exclusion of other causes (Parasites + Infections)
  4. Examination
  5. Microscopy (Tape, Skin scrape)
  6. Bacterial culture
  7. Fungal culture
  8. Biopsy
  9. Exclusion diet
  10. Intradermal testing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the breed dispositions for Atopic Dermatitis?

A
  1. Shar-Pei
  2. Fox Terrier
  3. Golden Retriever
  4. Labrador Retriever
  5. Dalmation
  6. Boxer
  7. Boston Terrier
  8. Lhasa Apso
  9. Scottish Terrier
  10. Shih Tzu
  11. WHWT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

At what age are dogs most suspectible to get Atopic Dermatitis?

A

Between 6 months + 3 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What 6 areas of the body does Atopic Dermatitis affect?

A
  1. Feet
  2. Face
  3. Ears
  4. Flexural surfaces of front legs
  5. Axillae
  6. Abdomen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What Dermatological disease uses the Favrot’s Criteria?

A

Atopic Dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Favrot’s criteria?
+
How many are there?

A
  • Critera which a px has to have in order to be diagnosed with AD
  • There is 8 criteria + they are:
    1. Affected ear pinnae (not margins)
    2. Affected front paws
    3. Age of onsent of < 3 years
    4. Chronic or recurrent Yeast infections
    5. Corticosteriod-responsive pruritis
    6. Mostly indoor lifestyle
    7. Non-affected dorsolumbar area
    8. Pruritis w/o skin lesion at onset
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the treatment options for Atopic Dermatitis?

A
  1. Treat cause
  2. Systemic or topical tx
  3. Antibiotics
  4. Steroids
  5. Antifungals
  6. Antihistamines
  7. Parasiticides

Other:
1. Hormone treatment
2. Exclusion diet
3. Allergen removal
4. Vaccination
5. Immunosupressants
6. Monoclonal antibody therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Syncope?

A

Fainting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Paresis?

A

General limb weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or False.

A seizure is a symptom not a disease.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a Seizure or Convulsion?

A

Violent irregular motion of the limbs, caused by Involuntary contraction of the muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 2 Aetiology’s of seizures?

(What can they be split into)

A
  1. Intracranial
  2. Extracranial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are potential 9 Intracranial causes of Seizures?

A
  1. Hydrocephalus
  2. Encephalitis
  3. Tumours
  4. Idiopathic epilepsy
  5. Head trauma
  6. RTA
  7. Infections
  8. Heatstroke
  9. Cerebral abscesses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are potential Extracranial causes of Seizures?

A
  1. Liver disease
  2. Portosystemic shunts
  3. Clots
  4. Hypoxia
  5. Allergens
  6. Medications
  7. Metabolic imbalances :
    * Hypocalcaemia
    * Hypoglycaemia
    * Hypokalaemia
    * Hepatic + Renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the Aetiology of Epilepsy?

A
  1. Neurological condition
  2. Arises from disruption of Forebrain function
  3. Often Idiopathic (most common)
  4. Suspected genetic link in a no. of breeds (Border collies etc)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What 3 breeds of dog are suspected to have a genetic link to Epilepsy?

A
  1. Border Collies
  2. Hungarian Vislas*
  3. Labradors*

* = Over-represented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the Pathophysiology of Epilepsy?

A
  1. Disordered electrical activity of the brain cells
  2. Imbalance in excitatory + inhibitory signals
  3. Can be partial (Cats) or generalised (Dogs)
  4. Has 3 phases:
    * Pre-ictal
    * Ictal
    * Post-ictal
  5. Prolonged seizures = Status Epliepticus (more than 5 mins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What species is more susceptable to Partial Epilepsy?

A

Cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What species is more susceptable to **Generalised** Epilepsy?
Dogs
26
What is a **generalised** seizure?
* Full blow seizure phase * **Equivalent of Grand Mal** in humans
27
What are the **3 stages** of **Epileptic** seizures?
1. Pre-ictal 2. Ictal 3. Post-ictal
28
What are seizures called that **last longer than 5 minutes** + potentially **lethal**?
Status Epliepticus
29
True or False. Px with Status Epilepticus can come out of these types of seizures by themselves with no veterinary intervention.
False. They require immediate emergency veterinary care.
30
What common **clinical sign** can Status Epilepticus cause?
Hyperthermia
31
Why does Status Epilepticus cause **Hyperthermia**?
Because the seizuring activity of rapid muscle contractions causes the body to heat up
32
How does Status Epilepticus cause brain damage in px?
* Because the seizuring activity causes Hyperthermia, leading to overheating the brain * Resulting in brain damage
33
If an Epilpetic seizure is caused by an **Infection**, what can potentially **trigger** it?
Loud noises
34
List the possible 8 **clinical signs** of **Pre**-ictal?
1. **Anxious** 2. Restless 3. **Altered behaviour** 4. Px feels uneasy 5. **Not aware of surroundings** 6. **Head pressing** 7. **Standing in corner of the room** 8. Disoriented | Some aren't classed as clinical signs.. more signs associated ## Footnote Period prior to seizure
35
List the possible 9 **clinical signs** of **Ictal**?
1. **Active episodes of fitting** 2. Collapse 3. Unconciousness 4. **Jaw spasms** 5. **Vocalisation** 6. Incontinence 7. **Clonic paddling spasms** 8. **Tonic spasms** 9. **Panting** Note - actions vary from animal to animal ## Footnote Episode of fitting
36
What's the difference between **Clonic** + **Tonic** spasms?
**Clonic** spasms = * Involuntary **rapid + rhythmic jerking** or muscle contractions **Tonic** spasms = * Muscle contraction or **stiffening** that can **last seconds > minutes**
37
Despite Tonic + Clonic spasms, name 3 others
1. Tonic-Clonic 2. Myoclonic 3. Atonic
38
If **Clonic** spasms are Involuntary rapid + rhythmic jerking or muscle contractions + **Tonic** spasms are muscle contraction or stiffening that can last seconds > minutes... What is the difference between **Tonic-Clonic**, **Myoclonic** + **Atonic** seizures?
**Tonic-Clonic** * **Tonic** phase immediately **followed** with **Clonic** phase **Myoclonic** * **Sporadic jerks** or movements typically on **both sides** of body **Atonic** * Drop attacks + non-convulsive seizures * **Sudden loss of muscle tone** w/**multiple** or **extended** seizures
39
List the possible 5 **clinical signs** of **Post**-Ictal?
1. **Extreme tiredness** 2. Dazed 3. **Ataxia** 4. **Hunger** 6. Unresponsive to owner ## Footnote Recovery period
40
Why should you not bring a patient straight into the VP if the patient is in Post-ictal?
Because: * They're in the recovery period * More stress will can trigger another seizure
41
What is the exception to bringing in a patient while they're in Post-ictal?
If they are in Status Epilepticus
42
What are the 8 possible **Diagnosis** for **Epilepsy**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. Physical exam 4. **Neurological exam** 5. Bloods - **Biochemistry + Haematology** (Infection, toxicity, glucose + uraemia) 6. **MRI** (look for tumours) 7. CT 8. **CSF Tap** (Check for meningitis)
43
Why 2 reasons may you perform a **MRI** or **CT** for a patient with Epilepsy?
To check for: 1. Tumours 1. Brain abnormalities
44
Why may you perform a **CSF Tap** for a patient with Epilepsy?
To rule out Meningitis
45
What are the 9 possible **treatment** options for **Epilepsy**?
1. **Tx started only when seizures are severe + occur more than 2x a year** 2. Identify + treat cause (if not idiopathic) 2. **Life-long tx** 3. **Phenobarbitone** 4. Imepitoin 5. **Postassium Bromide (dogs only)** 6. Levetriacetam 7. Monitor Liver function 7. If severe + life-long = **Euthansia** | Trialed tx is most common
46
What 4 drugs are in the **controlled drugs cabinet**, used for the treatment of **Epilepsy**?
3. **Phenobarbitone** 4. Imepitoin 5. **Postassium Bromide (dogs only)** 6. Levetriacetam
47
What drug can you **only give to dogs** for the treatment of Epilepsy? + What **side effects** does this drug have?
1. **Postassium Bromide** 2. Clinical signs: * Sedation * Ataxia * **PU**/**PD** * **Pancreatitis**
48
How often should you take bloods for Epileptic patients?
Q3 - 6 months
49
How should you treat a patient who is Status Epilepticus?
1. **IV** or **rectal Diazepam** 2. Propofol 3. **Cool** px
50
True or False. Treatment for patients with Epilepsy does not address the Primary concern, but manages the symptoms
True
51
True or False. Idiopathic Epilepsy is not a life-long condition
False, it is life-long
52
What are the **6 criteria** for **when** you should you start treatment for Epilepsy?
1. If severe 2. **Occurs more than 2x a year** 3. **1x seizure Q6 m/o** 4. Bad seizures + **bad Post-ictal Csigns** 5. **< 6 m/o at onset** 6. **Owner** finds them **distressing**
53
Whata are **2 considerations for clients** when treating Epilepsy?
1. **Expensive, as therapeutic mointoring is required** (MRI, Drugs, Regular liver function tests etc) 2. **QOL** of pet
54
When should you **stop** treatment for Epilepsy?
Never!
55
# 13 ... What **advice** should you give to **clients during seizures**?
1. Low lighting 2. Keep children + other pets away 3. **Record: time, gaps + frequency of seizures** 4. Reduce noise 5. Clear all areas 6. Call VP + VS 7. Don't pull tongue out (bite) 8. Don't call name 9. **Pillow under head** 10. **Stay with them** 11. **Stay calm!** 12. **Reassure owner pet isn't in pain** 13. **If over 5 minutes long - home vist or come into VP**
56
What parameter can drop if seizuring for long periods of time?
Blood sugar
57
What is the most common treatment for Status Epilepticus?
Euthansia
58
What type of seizure is: * Really alarming * Dangerous * **Lasts more than 2 minutes** or * **2 seizures without a break** * **Can be given with IV propofol**
Status Epliepticus
59
What rate infusion should Propofol be given to a patient in Status Epilepticus?
Constant rate infusion
60
What seizure starts again as soon as the previous one starts to wear off?
Status Epilepticus
61
What is a **Cluster** seizure?
* **More than 1 seizure close together** * Px **gains consciousness between** seizures
62
What are the 10 possible **Aetiologies** of **Chronic Renal Failure**?
1. Common in cats 1. **Kidneys no longer able to compensate** 1. **Idiopathic deterioration in geriatric cats** (most common) 1.**Hx of Acute Renal Damage** (Injury, toxins) 1. **Neoplasia** 1. **Polycystic Kidney Disease** (Persians) 1. Chronic infection 1. **Pyelonephritis** 1. **Golmerulonephritis** 1. **DM** 1. Hypertension
63
What species is CKD/F most common in?
Cats
64
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Chronic Renal Failure**?
1. **Uraemia** (Kidney **unable to filter nitrogenous waste** from blood, Urea) 2. **pH + Electrolyte imbalance** (**Potassium** + **Phosphate**, due to renal function) 3. **Reduced Erythropoietin production** (reduced erythrocyte **formation in bone marrow**) 4. Only when 75% of nephrons damaged/lost
65
What **type** of anaemia is caused by **CRD/F**?
**Non-regenerative** anaemia
66
# 8 dx tests.. How would you diagnose Non-regenerative anaemia in cats with CRD/F?
1. Physical exam 2. Haematology bloods 3. **CBC** 4. **PCV** 5. **Kidney palpatation** (see if **symmetrical**) 6. **Bone marrow biopsy** 7. CT 8. **Ultrasound**
67
What are the 16 possible **Clinical signs** of **CRD/F**?
1. **PU** 2. **PD** 3. V+ 4. **Dehydration** 5. Weight loss 6. **Inappetance** 7. **Anorexia** 8. Depression 9. **Oral ulcers** 10. Hallitosis 11. **Seizures** 12. **Non-regenerative anaemia** 13. **Azotaemia** 14. **Uraemia** 15. **Hypokalaemia** 13. Anuric (End-stage)
68
What are the 10 possible **Diagnosis** for **CRD/F**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. Physical exam 4. **Urinalysis** 5. **USG** 6. Bloods - **Haematology** + **Biochemistry** (**BUN**, **Creatinine**, **SDMA** + Electrolytes) 6. **BP** 7. Radiography 8. **Ultrasound** 8. Determine cause + **extent of azotaemia** ## Footnote 1. Elevated levels of Urea 2. Elevated levels of Creatinine 3. **SDMA testing - sensitive to early changes, used alongside Creatinine in IRIS staging** 4. Electrolyte levels - Phosphate for prognosis, to detect Hypokalaemia
69
What **blood chemistry parameters** are measured to asses kidney function?
1. **BUN** 2. Urea 3. **Creatinine** 4. Symmetrical Dimethylarginine (**SDMA**)
70
Why is SDMA testing performed for patients with CRF?
Sensitive to early changes, used alongside Creatinine in IRIS staging | [](http://)
71
What level may rise before the other? Urea or Creatinine?
Creatinine
72
What **USG** what potentially indicate CRF in Cats?
< 1.0**35**
73
What is the normal USG for Cats?
1.035 - 1.060
74
Whats the normal USG for Dogs?
1.015 - 1.045
75
What does a **declining USG** + **increasing urine protein levels in the blood** raise suspicion of?
CRD/F
76
What 2 things should be ruled out when diagnosing CRF?
1. Presence of blood 2. Infection
77
Why would blood + urea testing diagnose renal disease?
Because impaired kidney functions leads to a **build up of nitrogenous waste in the blood**, so this will be indicative upon testing
78
# 4 reasons.. Why would you **image** the kidney for CRD?
Because it will show any: 1. Acromegaly 1. Abnormalities 1. **Lack of symmetry** 1. **Stage the disease**
79
What are the **treatment** options avaliable for **CRF**?
1. **IVFT** 2. **Protein + Phosphorus restricted diet** 3. Kidney prescripion diet 4. Antibiotics 5. **Phosphate binders** 6. **Potassium supplements** 7. Hypertension 8. Amlodipine 9. **Treat anaemia** (Nandralone, **Erythropoietin**) 10. **Monitor urine infections** 11. **Mangage anorexia + V+**
80
What are the 2 possible **Aeitologies** for **Diabetes Mellitus**?
1. Type 1 2. Type 2
81
What is the **Aeitology** for **Type 1** Diabetes Mellitus?
1. **B-cells are destroyed** 2. Can n**o longer synthesise Insulin adequately** 3. **Immune-mediated** 4. **Breed** dispositions * WHWT * Jack Russel Terriers 5. **Pancreas damage** (Inability to synthesise Insulin) 6. Known as '**Insulin dependent**' ## Footnote B-cells = gamma
82
What is **Type 1** DM known as?
* Insulin dependent * **Absloute Insulin deficiency** * Cannot produce enough Insulin
83
What is **Type 2** DM?
* **Reduced ability to respond** to Insulin
84
What is the **Aeitology** for **Type 2** Diabetes Mellitus?
1. **Reduced ability to respond to Insulin** 2. **Obesity** (little fat dogs) 3. Oestrus 4. **Cushing's disease** 5. Steroids 6. **Acromeagaly** (cats)
85
What is the **Pathophysiology** for **Diabetes Mellitus**?
1. Absloute (Type 1) or relative ( Type 2) 2. **Reduced tissue utilisation** of **glucose** 3. Leads to **hyperglycaemia** in bloodstream 4. **Low glucose levels in cells** (Due to ^) 5. **Renal threshold** for glucose **exceeded** > **Glycosuria** 6. Eventually **fats break down as can't access glucose** 7. Leads to **Ketosis** > **Ketoacidosis**
86
What **type** of DM is most common in veterinary px? + What is it?
1. Type 2 2. **Reduced ability** to **respond** to **Insulin**
87
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Ketoacidosis**?
* Acid state in body caused by accumulation of Ketones * **Gluconeogenesis** 2. **Utilises fat + proteins as energy** 3. Because **glucose is unavaliable** 4. **By product** of that is = **Acidic Ketone bodies** 5. Results in: * Anorexia * **V**+ * **Dehydration**
88
What is **Ketoacidosis**?
* **Acid state in body** * Caused by build up of Ketones * Often **symptom of DM** * **Fatal**
89
What are the potential **clinical signs** of **DM**?
1. **Polyphagia** 2. PD 3. PU 4. **Glycosuria** Later: 1. **Weight loss** 2. **Ketosis** signs - V+, Depression + Dehydration 3. Development of **cataracts** (**Dogs**)
90
Why do **dog**'s present with **Cataracts** with DM?
1. **Lens doesn't recieve direct blood supply** + **relies eye fluids for nutrients** 2. Normally lens **absorbs glucose from eye fluids** + **converts remaining** into **Sorbitol** 3. **If excess** glucose in eye fluids + sorbitol production > * Sorbitol will: 1. **Pulls water into lens** > 1. **Disrupts lens clarity** > 1. Causes **cataract formation**
91
What are the **later** clincial signs that may present with DM?
1. **Weight loss** 2. **Ketosis** signs - V+, Depression + Dehydration 3. Development of **cataracts** (**Dogs**)
92
How is **DM** diagnosed?
1. Hx 1. Clinical signs 1. **Blood** tests (biochemistry + haematology): * Blood glucose + curve * **Fructosamine** * **Glycoslated haemoglobin** 1. **Urine** testing: * **Ketodiastix** test * Multistix
93
What blood tests can you perform for the diagnosis of DM?
* Blood **glucose** * Glucose **curve** * **Fructosamine** * **Glycoslated haemoglobin**
94
How is a blood glucose test for DM?
* Single test * Uses **glucometer** or * **Biochemistry anaylser** * **Must use fasted sample** * **Cephalic** or ear prick
95
What are the **3 benefits** of blood **glucose** tests?
1. Quick 2. Cheap 3. Effective
96
What is a Glucose **Curve**?
* **Series** of blood glucose samples * Taken at **regular intervals** * Over **12 - 24hrs** * Marked on a **graph** to produce a **trend**
97
What is a **Fructosamine** test for diagnosing DM?
* **Serum protein** * **Produced** in **response** to blood glucose * **3-week lifespan**
98
What is a **less common** **type** of testing **blood** for **DM**, that is for **longer-term** monitoring?
Glycosylated haemoglobin
99
What 2 things does a **Ketodiastix** test use to detect in DM?
1. **Glucose** 2. Ketones
100
What does a **Multistix** test use to detect in DM?
Glucose
101
What are the 2 benefits of the **Multistix** test to detect in DM?
1. Simple 2. Quick
102
What are the **4 key principles** of **treatment** for **DM**?
1. **Stabilisation** 2. Management 3. Monitoring 4. **Emergency presentations**
103
How is 4 methods of **stabilsation** in px w/ **DM** achieved during treatment?
1. Start on **Insulin injections** 2. Monitor blood glucose levels 3. **Adjust insulin level** + **timing** to bring level **within acceptable range** 4. **Establish daily routine w/owner - timing feed + injections**
104
# 3 things.. How is **DM** managed?
1. Daily **s/c injections of Insulin** (**BID**) 2. Strict **dietary management** 3. **Controlled exercise**
105
What is this used to deliver?
Insulin
106
1. What is this? 1. What is it used to treat? 2. What species it for?
1. Oral Hypoglycaemic (velagliflozin) 2. To tx DM 3. Cats
107
What do Hypoglycaemics do?
* Inhibit glucose reabsorption * Promote excretion of glucose in urine
108
What is the difference between Diabetic **Hypoglycaemia** + Diabetic **Ketoacidosis**?
Diabetic Hypoglycaemia * **Low** blood sugar * **Excess** insulin Diabetic Ketoacidosis * **High** blood sugar * **Absloute or relative** insulin **deficiency**
109
What are the possible negative **implications** for owners with pets who have DM?
1. **Expensive** 2. **Life-long** (dogs > cataracts) 3. **70% of DM dogs are blind within 1 year** 3. Cataract **sx** (£2,500) 4. **Needles** can be an issue 4. **Euthanasia** - question QOL (common, eventually)
110
What % of DM dogs are blind within 1 year?
70%
111
What is the 6 possible **Aetiologies** of **Dilated Cardiomyopathy**? (DCM)
1. **Idiopathic** 2. **Possible genetic biochemical affects** 3. **Breed disposition** - Large/giant (overrepresentive) 4. Rare in dogs < 15kg 5. Can be **nutritional** (**grain-free**, peas, lentils, legume seeds, potatoes) 6. Some **cats** can be affected - idiopathic or **taurine deficiency**
112
What cardiovascular disease is rare in dogs < 15kg?
DCM
113
What can **Mitral Valve Disease** lead to?
Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)
114
What cardiovascular disease has a **long-silent pre-clinical phase**?
DCM
115
What disease does this show?
DCM
116
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **DCM**?
1. **Progressive thinning** of the **myocardium** which **impairs** the **efficiency** of **contraction** 2. **Atria** become **enlarged** 3. The **heart wall stretches** becoming ‘**ballooned**’ 4. Eventually, the **AV valves stretch** leading to **regurgitation** of blood and atrial **enlargement** 5. At this stage, there may be **abnormalities in HR** and **rhythm** 6. Eventually falling CO **leads to** signs of **CHF**. (End stage)
117
What are the 9 **Clinical Signs** of **DCM**?
1. Lethargy 2. Depression 3. Anorexia 4. **Exercise intolerance** 5. **Cough** 6. **Dyspnoea** 7. **Syncope** 8. **Murmur** 9. **Sudden death**
118
# 9 .. How is **DCM** **diagnosed**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. **Thoracic auscultation** 4. **Chest radiography** (shows enlarged heart) 5. **ECG** 6. **BP measurements** 7. **Cardiography** 8. Haematology 9. Biochemistry
119
What is the **Aetiology** of **Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency**? (EPI)
1. **Atrophy** of **exocrine pancreatic cells** 2. Caused by **spontaneous atrophy** or 3. **Secondary** to **pancreatitis** 4. Secondary to **trauma** 5. May be **inherited**
120
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **EPI**?
1. **Inadequate production** of **digestive enzymes** 2. **Due to atrophy of pancreatic exocrine cells** 3. **Unable to digest** foodstuffs **fully** 4. L:eading to **high-volume faeces** 5. Containing **undigested** material 6. **Malabsorption** leads to: * Weight loss * **Polyphagia**
121
What are the 8 **Clinical signs** of **EPI**?
1. **Polyphagia** 2. Weight loss 3. **Large faecal volume** 4. **Steatorrhoea** 5. Undigested material 6. **Flatulence** 7. **Poor coat** 9. **Muscle wastage** ## Footnote Steatorrhoea = Fat in stools
122
How is **EPI** **diagnosed**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. **Faecal examination** 4. **Biochemistry** - **Serum-Tripsin- like immunoreactivity** (looking for low levels to confirm disease)
123
What is the **Aetiology** of the **Feline Leukaemia Virus** (FeV)?
1. **Retrovirus** 2. From **Oncornavirus** group
124
What is the **Pathophysiology** of the **Feline Leukaemia Virus** (FeV)?
1. **Replicates** in the **lymphoid tissue** 2. Enters **lymphocytes** + monocytes > 3. **Transported** around the body > 4. Enters **bone marrow**
125
What are the 6 **Clinical signs** of **FeLV**?
1. **Immunosuppression** 2. **Recurrent infections** 3. **Anaemia** 4. **Tumour development** 5. Lethargy 6. D+
126
How is **FeLV** **diagnosed**?
1. **ELISA serum test** (for antigen, patient side test with rapid response) 2. **PCR** (Isolates viral genetic material) 3. **Viral isolation**.
127
What is the **Aetiology** of **Feline Upper Respiratory Disease**? (FURD)
1. Feline **herpesvirus type 1** (FHV-1) 2. Feline **calicivirus** (FHV) 3. **Bordetella** bronchiseptica 4. **Chlamydophila** felis
128
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Feline Upper Respiratory Disease**? (FURD)
1. **Replicates** in **tissue** of **upper** **resp tract** + **ocular** systems 2. Leads to **Epithelial necrosis** 3. **Irritation** of **pharynx**, **larynx** + **trachea** 4. **Rare** to see repro and dermatological signs 5. > **Secondary bacterial infections** common 6. **>80% become carriers ** 7. **Stress triggers flare ups**
129
What are the 10 **clinical signs** of **FURD**?
1. Anorexia 2. **Pyrexia** 3. Depression 4. **Sneezing** 5. **Conjunctivitis** 6. **Hypersalivation** 7. **Ocular + nasal discharge** 8. Keratitis 9. **Corneal ulceration** 10. Dyspnoea
130
How is **FURD** **diagnosed**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. **Viral transport swab** of **oropharyngeal** region for **FHV-1** and **FCV**
131
What is the **Aetiology** of **Gastric Dilation + Volvus**?
1. **Idiopathic** 2. **Large breed** dogs 3. **Deep chested** dogs commonly effected
132
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **GDV**?
1. Stomach **dilates** + **rotates** into a **twisted** position 2. **Gas cannot escape** 3. **Distention** of the stomach **fills the abdominal cavity** 4. **Puts pressure** on the **Caudal Vena Cava** 5. **Disrupts venous return to the heart** 6. **Pressure on diaphragm compromises breathing** 7. Leading to **poor ventilation + damage to body tissues** 1. **Necrosis of gastric wall** + **splenic tissue** can occur 2. Due to disruption of blood supply
133
What are the 7 **clinical signs** for **GDV**?
1. **Restlessness** 2. **Retching** 3. **Anterior abdominal swelling** 4. **Dyspnoea** 5. Collapse 6. **Shock** 7. Death
134
What are the potential methods of **diagnosing** **GDV**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. **Tympany of abdomen** 4. Radiography 5. **Emergency sx**
135
What is the **Aetiology** of **Hyperthyroidism**?
1. **Functional thyroid tumour** 2. Usually **benign** **adenomatous hyperplasia** of the thyroid gland 1. May **affect one or both lobes** 1. Indicating cause theorised but **unknown**
136
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Hyperthyroidism**?
1. Affected gland **overproduces thyroxine** 2. Leads to **hypermetabolic state** 3. **Thyroxine affects a number of body tissues** 4. So wider range of clinical signs 5. 2 **complications** can be: * **Hypertension** * **Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy**
137
What are the 10 **Clinical signs** of **Hyperthyroidism**?
1. **Polyphagia** 2. **Weight loss** 3. **Hyperactive** 4. Aggressive 5. Restless 6. **Tachycardia** 7. V+ 8. D+ 9. **Poor coat** 10. **PD**
138
How do you **diagnose** **Hyperthyroidism**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. **T4 levels** 4. **Biochemistry** 5. **Scintigraphy** 6. Evaluation of **cardiac function** 7. Measurement of **BP** (advisable)
139
What are the 2 common **Aetiologies** of **Hyperadrenocorticism**?
1. **Pituitary tumour** 2. **Adrenal** tumour * Both lead to **serum cortisol**
140
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Hyperadrenocorticism**?
1. **Overactive tissue** in the **pituitary or adrenal** gland 2. Leads to **inc production** of **cortisol** 3. High levels of cortisol 4. > **hyperglycaemia** + **inhibit ADH** 5. Leading to **PUPD** 6. High cortisol also **causes protein catabolism** 7. Leads > **muscle wastage** + **poor wound healing** 8. Cortisol **affects hair growth** + **fat distribution**
141
What are the 9 **clinical sign**s of **Hyperadrenocorticisim**?
1. **PU** 2. **PD** 3. **Weight loss** 4. Alopecia 5. **Pot-bellied** 6. **Hepatomegaly** 7. **Muscle weakness** 8. **Panting** 9. Thinning of skin
142
What are the 4 reasons to why dogs become **Pot-bellied** with **Hyperadrenocorticisim**?
1. Enlarged liver 2. **Abdominal wall stretches as organs get heavier** > to accomodate 3. Muscle atrophy/ catabolism due to excess cortisol + shrink in size 4. **Fat redistribution into abdo cavity**
143
What is the other name given to **Hyperadrenocorticism**?
Cushing's disease
144
What **endocrine** disease does this dog have?
Hyperadrenocorticism
145
How is **Hyperadrenocorticism** **diagnosed**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. **ACTH stimulation test** 4. **Low dose dexamethasone suppression test** 5. Urinalysis 6. **Endogenous ACTH** 7. Imaging
146
What is the **Aetiology** of **Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy**?
1. **Idiopathic** 2. **Genetic** link
147
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy**?
1. **Progressive thickening of the ventricular muscle > Enlarged heart** 3. **Thickened** walls 4. **Narrower chambers** 5. **Reduced cardiac output** 6. Backpressure 7. Atrial **enlargement**
148
What are the 6 **Clinical signs** of **Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy**?
1. **Lethargy** 2. Depression 3. **Anorexia** 4. Heart failure 5. **Dyspnoea** 6. **Tachypnoea**
149
How is **Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy** **diagnosed**?
1. Physical exam 2. **Auscultation for murmur** 3. Radiography 4. **Ultrasound** 5. **Echocardiogram** 6. **ECG** 7. Lab tests 8. **BP measurement**
150
What is the 6 possible **Aetiologies** for **Immune-mediated Haemolytic Anaemia**? (IMHA)
1. **Toxaemia** 2. Some drugs 3. **Incompatible blood transfusion** 4. **Mycoplasma hemofelis** 5. **Babesia canis** 6. Some recent vaccinations
151
What is the **Pathophysiology** for **IMHA**?
1. **Destruction of RBCs** by the animal's **immune system** 2. Or due to **parasites** + **toxins** 3. Eventually leading to **reduced circulating RBC volume** 4. **Bone marrow releases immature RBCs** to compensate (**Non-regenerative anaemia**) 5. **Spherocytes** (**partially phagocytosed** RBCs) can be seen in the circulation 1. **Haemolysis** may occur + lead to 2. **Increased bilirubin in blood** 3. > **jaundice**
152
What are 11**clinical signs** of **IMHA**?
1. **Pale** mm 2. Weakness 3. **Exercise intolerance** 4. Murmur 5. **Tachycardia** 6. **Dyspnoea** 7. Collapse 8. Inappetent 9. **Petechiation** 10. **Haemorrhage** 11. **Jaundice**
153
How do you **diagnose** **IMHA**?
1. PCV 2. **Reticulocyte count** 3. **MCV** (Mean Corpuscular Volume) - **size** of RBCs 4. **MCHC** (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration) - haema concentration, part of CBC 5. **Blood smear**: * RBC morophology * **Heinz bodies** * Toxins * HB level 1.**Coombs test** 1. **Agglutination** 1.**Faecal occult blood**
154
What is the 5 possible **Aetiologies** of **Keratoconjuncitivtis sicca**?
1. **Reduced or absence of ability to form tears** 2. **Immune-mediated** 3. Breed predispositions (**protruberant eye breeds**) 4. **Secondary** to some **endocrine** conditions 5. Drug **toxicity**
155
What is the What is the common name given to **Keratoconjuncitivtis sicca**?
Dry eye
156
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Keratoconjuncitivtis sicca**?
1. **Reduced activity in the lacrimal glands** 2. > to **inadequate formation** of the a**queous tear film** 3. As adequate t**ear film is essential for corneal health** 4. Absence or reduced tear film 5. Leads to **corneal drying** + **inflammation**
157
What are the 4 **clinical signs** of **Keratoconjuncitivtis sicca**?
1. Mucoid/**mucopurulent conjunctivitis** 2. Dogs w/ **sticky discharge** in **medial canthus** 3. **Neovascularisation** of cornea 4. **Couding** or dull/**dry cornea**
158
How is **Keratoconjuncitivtis sicca** **diagnosed**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. **Schirmer tear test** (definitive) 4. **Fluorescein** (to rule out ulceration)
159
What are the 2 **Aetiologies** of **Laryngeal Paralysis**?
1. **Idiopathic** 2. **Polyneuropathy** (Nervous system dysfunction)
160
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Laryngeal Paralysis**?
1. **Damage** to the **recurrent laryngeal nerves** that: * **Supply** the **muscle of larynx** * **Moves** the **vocal cords** 4. Leads to the **functional failure of the vocal folds** 5. **Unable** to **open** vc **fully** **during inspiration** 6. Inspiration is **difficult as stay closed** position 7. Leading to **dyspnoea**
161
What are the 7 **Clinical signs** of **Laryngeal Paralysis**?
1. Cough 2. **Increased inspiratory noise** 3. Exercise intolerance 4. **Voice change** 5. **Difficulty swallowing food + water** 6. **Acute collapse** 7. Resp disease
162
How is **Laryngeal Paralysis** **diagnosed**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical sign 3. **Examination of the layrnx** * Under **sedation** * Using a **laryngoscope** or endoscope * To **visualise** the **vocal folds** * **During inspiration**
163
What is the **Aetiology** of **Mast Cell Tumour**?
1. **Neoplasia** affecting the **histiocytes** (**mast cells**) 2. **Breeds predisposed** 3. Different **grades** of tumour: * **Benign** > highly **malignant** * Around **20%** of **skin** tumours in **dogs**
164
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Mast Cell Tumour**? (MCT)
1. Cells undergo **malignant transformation** 2. Behaviour varies between grades 3. **Degranulation of mast cells in tumour** 4. Leads to **systematic signs** 5. Often skin tumours 6. Occasionally found in: * **GI Tract** * **Spleen** * **Bone marrow** 10. Graded from **I**-**III** 11. **According to how well differentiated** the cells are 12. Grade III = poorest prognosis
165
What are the 6 **Clinical signs** of **Mast Cell Tumours**?
1. **Appearance very varied** 2. Usually found **on the skin surface** 3. **Benign** or low grade: * **Small** * Slow-growing masses 4. **Higher** grade: * **Masses** 5. **Histamine** release - associated with: * Swelling * **Inflammation** * **Ulceration** 9. Some occur **in the s/c layer**
166
How is **Mast Cell Tumour** **diagnosed**?
1. **FNA**: * **Confirms diagnosis** 2. **Biopsy**: * Assesses grade * Incisional or excisional 5. **Evaluation of local lymph nodes**: * Assist with grading 6. **Imaging**: detection of mets by: * Radiography * CT * MRI
167
What is the **Aetiology** of **Mitral Valve Disease**? (MVD)
1. **Idiopathic** 2. Breed dispositions: * Commonly **Smaller** breeds, but can be in larger breeds too * **CKCS** * Dachshunds * **Chihuahuas** * Terriers * Schnauzers * Bichons * Poodles * Spainels * Luchers * Labrador retrievers 3. **Age**-related changes to heart valves 4. **Ruptured Chordae tendinae** (Heart valve can't open) 5. Occurs in **10**% of dogs
168
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Mitral Valve Disease**?
Mitral valve: * **Left** side * Between Atrium + Ventricle 1. **Age-related degeneration** 2. Valve becomes: * **Irregular** * **Floppy** * **Thick** * Lumpy 2. **Results in imperfect seal** 3. > **Leaky** valve 4. **Mitral Valve Regurgitation** (Blood leaks wrong way) 6. Heard as **heart murmur**
169
What is **Mitral Valve Disease** also called?
* Mitral Valve **Insufficiency** * Mitral **regurgitation**
170
What is this cardiovascular disease?
Mitral Valve Disease
171
What are the **2 main basic stages** of **Mitral Valve Disease**?
1. **Asymptomatic** or Preclinical 2. **Congestive Heart Failure**
172
What are the **4 stages** of **Mitral Valve Disease**?
1. **A**: * **Breed prone** + no murmur 2. **B1**: * **Murmur** + no symptoms or change on ultrasound/x-rays 3. **B2**: * **Heart shape changes** on ultrasound + x-rays 4. **C**: * Symptoms of **Congestive Heart Failure** * Death
173
What are the 2 **Clincical Signs** of **Asymptomatic stage** of **MVD**?
1. Asymptomatic! 2. Very **mild murmur**
174
What are the 11 **Clincical Signs** of **Congestive Heart Failure phase** of **MVD**?
1. **Tachypnoea** 2. **Dyspnoea** 3. Lethargy 4. **Coughing** 5. **Syncope** 6. Collapse 7. Weight loss 8. Inappetent 9. **Distended abdomen** 10. Exercise intolerance 11. **Murmur**
175
What is the prognosis for a px w/CHF?
Several months > Years until HF
176
What are the **treatment** options for **Mitral Valve Disease**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. Physical exam - RR, HR, **BP measurements** 4. Ausculation of heart + lungs 5. Radiography (Chest) 6. **Ultrasound** - **Echocardiogram (size + shape of heart + valves)** 7. **ECG** 8. **Biochemsitry + Haematology** 9. Urinalysis 10. Liver + kidney tests 2. **Monitoring** 2. Medications: * Indodilators (Pimobendan) - increase heaart function * **Diuretics** (Furosemide or Spirinolactone) - to remove fluid from the lungs * **ACE inhibitors** (Angiotensin Converting Enzymes, Benazepril) * Cardiac glycosides (Digoxin - rhythm balance) 3. Lifestyle: * Weight management * **Controlled exercise** * **Low salt diet**
177
What is the **Aetiology** of **Osteoarthiritis**? (OA)
1. Also known as DJD: * Degenerative Joint Disease * **Primary** disease of joint cartilage * But can be **secondary to abnormal stresses on joints** 2. Develops as a **result** of underlying: * **Deformity** (Cruciate - ligament - rupture) * **Trauma** (Fracture) 1. Affects 1 in 5 dogs 2. Most common cause of lameness * Can be caused by: 1. **Osteochondritis Dissecans** * **Abnormality of articulate cartilage, leads to abnormal wear on joint surfaces**
178
What is this skeletal disease?
DJD or Osteoarthritis
179
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **OA**?
1. **Characterised** by **degeneration** of **articular cartilage** 2. Articular cartilage = **essential cushioning of end** of bones + joints - should be **smooth** 3. **Degeneration** of articular cartilage = bones **rub together** + **cause new** bone formation 2. Often associated with **formation of new bone** + **joint surface** 3. **Progressive** onset but **can be acute**
180
What are the 12 **Clinical signs** of **OA**?
1. **Stiffness** 2. **Lameness - worse after rest** 3. Reluctance to jump 4. **Swelling** 5. Inflammation 6. **Crepitus** 6. **Pain** 6. **Gait alteration (Due to pain)** 7. **Muscle atrophy** of affected limb(s) 8. Potential inapetence 9. **Personality behaviour** 10. **Reduced ROM** ## Footnote Less common in Cats
181
What is the **diagnosis** for **OA**?
1. Hx - ex intolerance, stiff joints, reduced ROM 2. Clinical signs 3. **Physical exam** 4. **Evidence of crepitus** 5. Radiography 6. **Arthroscopy** - into joint to visualise articulate cartilage + **lesions** 7. CT 8. **MRI** 9. **Synovial Fluid Analysis** (Fluid from **joint space**) Looks for: * **Infectious** cells * **Immune** cells * **Neoplastic** cells
182
What the **treatment** options for **OA**?
Often combo of med + sx management 1. **Controlled exercise routine** 2. **NSAIDs** 3. **Analgesics + Opioids** - Tramadol, Gabapentin 4. Corticosteroids (severe) 5. **Pentosanpolysuphate injection** (Librela for dogs) 6. **Weight management**(Obese, to maintain muscle tone) 7. Nutraceuticals (**Cod liver oil**, Fish oil, High in EFAs) 8. **Sx**: * **Arthroscopy** * Joint replacement
183
What is the 5 **Aetiologies** of **Otitis Externa**?
1. **Infection** 2. Parasites 3. **Trauma** 4. Allergy 5. **Neoplasia**
184
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Otitis Externa**?
1. **Irritation** or **self-trauma** 2. Leads to: * **Tissue hyperplasia** * Inflammation * **Excess production of wax** 6. Any **obstruction of canal** 7. Leads > **accumulation** of **cerumen** discharge 8. Leave **predisposed to infection**
185
What are the 10 **Clinical Signs** of **Otitis Externa**?
1. **Head shaking** 2. **Head tilt** 2. Ear scratching 3. Self-trauma 4. **Pain** 5. **Inflammation** 6. **Thick, waxy or purulent discharge** 7. Foul smelling ears/wax 8. **Yeasty smell** 9. **Thickening of ear lining**
186
How is **Otitis Externa** diagnosed?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. Visualisation + **Aural exam** 4. **Otoscope exam** 5. **Ear swabs** taken for **culture** + **sensitivity**
187
What is the **Aetiology** of **Osteosarcoma**?
1. **Primary malignant neoplasm** of **bone tissue** 2. Common in **large breeds**
188
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Osteosarcoma**?
1. Undergo **malignant transformation **> to formation of: * **Swelling** * **Boney growth** * **Destruction** of bone **architecture** 2. Damage to bone tissue 3. Leads to **weakening** of bone + **pathological fracture** 4. Common - **Metastatic spread to lungs** 5. Usually found in **metaphysis of long bones** ## Footnote Pathological fracture = Spontaenous fractures from trauma or weakening of bone
189
What is a **pathological** fracture?
**Spontaenous** fractures from **trauma** or **weakening** of bone
190
What are the 4 **Clinical signs** of **Osteosarcoma**?
1. Lameness 2. **Swelling of site** 3. **Pathological fracture** 4. **Coughing**
191
How is **Osteosarcoma** **diagnosed**?
1. **Radiography** 2. CT 3. **MRI** 4. **Biopsy**
192
What is the **Aetiology** of **Pancreatitis**?
1. **Idiopathic** 2. Linked to **high-fat diet** 3. Some drugs 4. **Secondary to trauma**
193
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Pancreatitis**?
1. **Pancreatic enzymes activated prematurely** within the pancreas or 2. **Unable to exit into duodenum** 3. **Presence** enzymes in **pancreatic tissue** results in 4. **Auto-digestion** of the pancreatic tissue 5. Process causes **inflammation** + **necrosis** of **pancreas**
194
What are the 8 **Clinical signs** of **Pancreatitis**?
1. **Anterior abdominal pain** (**praying position**) 2. **V+** 3. Depression 4. Anorexia 5. **Shock** 6. **Pyrexia** 7. **Dehydration** 8. Chronic - vague + variable
195
How is **Pancreatitis** **diagnosed**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. Physical exam 4. **Blood** tests - measure **Pancreatic Lipase ** * **Spec cPL** (Dogs) * Spec **f**PL (**Cats**)
196
What is the **Aetiology** of **Parvovirus**?
**CPV-2** (Most common strain)
197
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Parvovirus**?
1. **Rapidly dividing cells** in: * **Gut** wall * **Lymph** tissue * **Bone marrow** 5. **Destroys** the **gut lining** 6. Leads to: * **Inability to absorb nutrients** * **Bacteria enters blood** 9. **Affects** on **bone marrow** + **Lymph** tissue 10. **Suppresses immune response** > **leukopenia**
198
What are the 8 **Clinical Signs** of **Parvovirus**?
1. Depression 2. Anorexia 3. **Severe V+** 4. **Haemorrhagic D+** 5. **Pyrexia** 6. Severe weight loss 7. **Severe dehydration** 8. **Shock**
199
How is **Parvovirus** **diagnosed**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. **Faecal testing** (**ELISA** detects **CPV2 antigen**) 4. Faecal **PCR** (**CPV2 DNA** detected in **faeces**) 5. **Serum antibody**
200
What is the **Aetiology** of **Pyometra**?
1. **Secondary bacterial Infection of uterus** 2. Often **E coli** 3. Common in **unspayed older bitches that have had several seasons** 4. Can be seen in younger animals
201
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Pyometra**?
1. **Cystic changes** in the **uterus** 2. **Bacterial infection** **during oestrus** 3. **Open cervix allows entry of bac** into uterus 4. **Large accumulation of pus** due to **immune response** of **phagocytosis** 5. Is **Open** or **closed** 6. Bacterial **toxins enter** the **bloodstream** 7. Leads to **Septicaemia**/toxaemia
202
What are the 12 **Clinical signs** of **Pyometra**?
1. **Vaginal discharge** (open) 2. Lethargy 3. Inappetence 4. PU 5. **PD** 6. V+ 7. **Distended abdomen** 8. **Painful abdomen** 9. **Pyrexia** 10. **Pale MM** 11. Weakness 12. Collapse
203
How is **Pyometra** **diagnosed**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. **6/8 weeks since last season** 4. **Radiography** of **abdomen** 5. **Ultrasound** 6. Bloods - **Leukocyte counts** may i**ndicate infection**
204
What is the **Aetiology** for **Tracheal Collapse**?
1. **Idiopathic** 2. Potential combo of: * **Genetic** * **Nutritional** * **Allergic** triggers
205
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Tracheal Collapse**?
1. **Incomplete formation** or **weakening** of **c-shaped tracheal cartilages** 2. Leads > **inability** to **maintain patency** of the **trachea** 3. During **inspiration**: * **Cervical portion** of trachea **collapses** 5. Leads > **airway obstruction** 6. During **expiration**: * **Thoracic portion** of the trachea **collapses**
206
What are the 3 **Clinical signs** of **Tracheal Collapse**?
1. Exercise intolerance 2. **Goose honk** 3. **Progressive signs** of **resp disease** (may be **paroxysmal**) ## Footnote Paroxysmal = occurs suddenly/sudden onset of abnormal movements
207
How is **Tracheal Collapse** **diagnosed**?
1. **Fluoroscopy video X-ray** (For *real time* diagnosis) 2. **Chest radiography**
208
What is the **Aetiology** of **Urolithasis** or **Feline Lower Urinary Tract Disease**? (FLUTD)
1. **Infection** (rare) 2. Calculi/**Crystals** 3. Usually **idiopathic cystitis**
209
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Urolithasis** or **Feline Lower Urinary Tract Disease**? (FLUTD)
1. **Irritation** + **inflammation** of the **bladder wall** +/or **urethra** 2. May cause **recurrent bouts** of **cystitis** 3. **Uroliths** cause urinary **obstruction** 4. Trauma/**iatrogenic damage** may result in 5. **Bladder wall dysfunction** or Urinary tract **rupture** 6. **Inability to void** urine leads to > 7. **Azotaemia** + Csigns associated w/**ARF**
210
What are the 11 **Clinical Signs** of **Urolithasis** or **Feline Lower Urinary Tract Disease**? (FLUTD)
1. **Cystitis** 1. Oliguria 1. **Anuria** 1. **Incontinence** 1. Varying frequency/volume of urine 1. **Abnormal micturition** 1. **Licking external genitalia** 1. Depression 1. **V+** 1. Anorexia 1. **Dehydration**
211
How is **Urolithasis**/**Feline Lower Urinary Tract Disease** **diagnosed**?
1. Hx 2. Clinical signs 3. Physical exam 4. **Observation of micturition** 5. **Neurological exam** 6. **Urinalysis** 7. **Radiography** 8. Ultrasound
212
What is the **Aetiology** of **Wobbler's**?
1. Complex 2. **Multifactorial** 3. Progressive 4. **Breed dispositions**: * Great Danes * Dobermanns 2. Primarily genetic 3. **Nutritional**: * **Protein** * **Calcium** * **Phosphorus**
213
What is the **Pathophysiology** of **Wobbler's**?
1. **Narrowing** of the **cervical vertebral canal** 2. Due to **developmental abnormalities** of cervical vertebrae in **young** dogs (**Great Danes**) = OA-CSM 3. **Degenerative** **changes** occur in older dogs (**Dobermanns**) = DA-CSM 5. Narrowed canal **impinges on spinal cord** 6. Causing **compression** + results in **neurological deficits**
214
What are the 9 **Clinical Signs** of **Wobbler's** syndrome?
1. **Weakness in 4-pelvic limbs** 2. More **pronounced in hind limbs** 3. **Scuffing nails** 4. Inco-ordinated gate 5. Ataxia 6. **Wobbly gait** 7. **Neck pain** 8. Paralysis 9. **2-engine gate**
215