Exam revision quizes Flashcards
(126 cards)
1
Q
Describe TWO differences between passive and active transport (2 marks)
A
High to low concentration / no ATP (energy) needed / e.g. water movement with osmosis / e.g. gas movement with diffusion
2
Q
b) Name the body cavity situated between the thoracic and pelvic cavities (1 mark)
A
Abdominal
3
Q
c) Label (1/2 mark) and name (1/2 mark) ONE organelle on the following image involved in ATP production.
A
mitochondria
4
Q
d) Describe what happens during the ‘Translation’ phase of protein synthesis (2 marks)
A
Ribosome reads the mRNA to synthesise sequence of amino acids (protein)
5
Q
e) Name TWO serous membranes found in the body (2 marks)
A
pleura / peritoneum / pericardium
6
Q
Name the short bones located in the wrist (1 mark)
A
carpals
7
Q
b) Describe TWO functions of the periosteum (1 mark)
A
protection / attachment for ligaments/muscles / growth of bone (in width) / delivering blood supply to bone / act as pain sensitive structure
8
Q
What is the age of onset for a) rheumatoid arthritis and b) osteoarthritis and what type of disease is each?
A
Rheumatoid - 30-50 years, autoimmune
Osteo - 50+, degenerative (wear and tear)
9
Q
b) Compare the distribution of joint symptoms seen in Rheumatoid Arthritis and Osteoarthritis (2 marks)
A
Osteoarthritis: unilateral or weight bearing joints
RA: bilateral or widespread / smaller joints
10
Q
c) Indicate what happens pathologically in the joint of a patient suffering from gout (1 mark)
A
Uric acid crystal deposition
11
Q
Name any TWO skeletal muscles located in the back (2 marks)
A
Erector spinae / trapezius / quadratus lumborum / latissimus dorsi
12
Q
b) State ONE movement created by the hamstring muscles (1 mark)
A
flexion of the knee (leg) / bends the knee
13
Q
a) State FOUR symptoms of fibromyalgia (2 marks)
A
- Widespread (diffuse) musculoskeletal pain.
- Feeling of “swollen joints”, often with no actual swelling.
- Debilitating fatigue
- sleep severely disturbed.
- Headaches
- IBS symptoms (i.e. diarrhoea)
- numbness
- tingling
- weakness.
- Anxiety
- depression.
14
Q
b) Describe TWO suspected causes / triggers of fibromyalgia (1 mark)
A
Stress / trauma / sleep dysregulation / post viral / toxic load / serotonin and NorAdr deficiencies / high substance P
15
Q
c) Indicate the most common allopathic medication prescribed to fibromyalgia patients (1 mark)
A
anti-depressants
16
Q
b) Whilst being as specific as possible, explain the potential problem of the lungs in babies born before 34 weeks gestation (1 mark)
A
Surfactant is not produced until 34 weeks gestation / risk of alveolar collapse/increased surface tension in alveoli
17
Q
c) State the location of the ‘respiratory centre’ in the brain (1 mark)
A
brainstem / medulla and pons
18
Q
d) Explain the effect of increased blood carbon dioxide levels on blood pH (1 mark)
A
More acidic / lowers pH
19
Q
g) A patient presents to you at the CNM clinic complaining of episodes of breathlessness. You consider that the patient might be asthmatic.
a) Describe what happens pathologically in the airways of an asthmatic patient (1 mark)
A
Narrowing of bronchi and bronchioles / inflammation of bronchioles / bronchial hyper-responsiveness / oedema in airways / mucous accumulation obstructing airflow / smooth muscle hyperplasia
20
Q
b) Explain what is meant by ‘extrinsic’ (atopic) asthma (1 mark)
A
Immune mediated / IgE response to allergens
21
Q
c) State TWO symptoms of asthma (other than breathlessness) (1 mark)
A
Wheezing / tight chest / cough / sputum
22
Q
The patient reports being diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnoea.
d) State TWO causes / risk of obstructive sleep apnoea (1 mark)
A
Obesity / male / middle aged / smoker / alcohol / sedatives / rhinitis / polyps
23
Q
e) You notice the patient has finger ‘clubbing. State ONE possible cause of this in relation to the respiratory system (1 mark)
A
COPD / lung cancer / cystic fibrosis
24
Q
h) a) Complete the following paragraph relating to leukocytes (2 marks)
In adults, leukocytes and other blood cells are produced by the BLANK
The leukocyte that is most prevalent in the body are BLANK which are phagocytic.
Basophils are another type of leukocyte, that become BLANK when in tissue. These cells release chemicals such as BLANK
A
In adults, leukocytes and other blood cells are produced by the RED BONE MARROW.
The leukocyte that is most prevalent in the body are NEUTROPHILS, which are phagocytic.
Basophils are another type of leukocyte, that become MAST CELLS when in tissue. These cells release chemicals such as HISTAMINE / HEPARIN.
25
b) Describe ONE function of thromboxane (1 mark)
Causes vascular spasm / attracts thrombocytes (platelets)
26
b) An individual that is blood group O+ requires a blood transfusion. Indicate all of the blood groups that this individual can be donated (1 mark)
O- / O+
27
c) Describe the specific role of vitamin K, in relation to the blood (1 mark)
Production of four clotting factors
28
i) A patient presents to the CNM clinic, having been diagnosed as anaemic.
a. State FOUR symptoms of anaemia (2 marks)
Fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, palpitations, irritability, fainting.
29
b. State ONE symptom that is more suggestive of anaemia caused by B12 deficiency than iron deficiency (1 mark)
Neurological symptoms (tingling / numbness / loss of coordination / weakness)
30
c. Explain how jaundice could occur as a result of some types of anaemia (1 mark)
Excessive haemolysis (1/2 mark) leading to excessive bilirubin formation (1/2 mark)
31
d. Explain how the appearance of a patient might differ between anaemia and polycythaemia (1 mark)
Anaemia – pallor (pale skin) Polycythaemia – red skin
32
j) a) Explain what is meant by the ‘hepatic first pass’ (1 mark)
Venous blood passes from the digestive tract directly to the liver.
33
b) State TWO functions of cholesterol (1 mark)
```
Cell membrane integrity (especially in the brain). Vitamin D and calcium metabolism.
Sex hormones (e.g. oestrogen, testosterone).
```
34
k) A patient reports having been previously investigated for angina pectoris.
a. Explain what happens pathologically in ‘angina pectoris’ (1 mark)
Obstruction or spasm of the coronary arteries
35
b) List TWO symptoms of angina pectoris (1 mark)
* Chest pain,
* Neck / shoulder / jaw pain
* Dyspnoea.
36
c) Explain how the presentation of a Myocardial Infarction (MI) might differ from angina pectoris (1 mark)
Symptoms do not improve with rest / Prodromal sense of doom
37
Describe ONE function of the greater omentum (1 mark)
Stores fat (adipose tissue) / immunity
38
b) Indicate TWO substances that are found in saliva (1 mark)
* Water
* Mineral Salts (Na, K, Ca, Cl, Bicarbonate, P).
* amylase
* lysozymes
* Mucous.
* Immunoglobulins (IgA).
* Blood clotting factors.
39
d) Describe how the structure of the small intestine supports its role of absorption (1 mark)
Villi / microvilli increase surface area for absorption long length increases surface area
40
e) Describe TWO functions of the large intestinal microbial flora (1 mark)
Nutrient extraction / digestion / vitamin production / immunity
41
e) Describe TWO functions of the large intestinal microbial flora (1 mark)
Nutrient extraction / digestion / vitamin production / immunity
42
f) Explain what happens during phase I liver detoxification (1 mark)
P450 enzymes metabolise toxins / converts water insoluble toxins to water soluble toxins
43
g) State FOUR functions of the liver (other than detoxification) (2 marks)
1. Cleansing blood of microbes.
2. Bile production & secretion.
3. Haemolysis
4. Synthesis of plasma proteins - blood clotting & coagulation factors.
5. Hormone homeostasis – deactivating all hormones.
6. Metabolism of glucose (glycogen), fats (hepatocytes store triglycerides) & amino acids (de-aminate so can be used for ATP production).
7. Heat production – thermogenesis.
8. Synthesis - vitamin A (from beta carotene), Co-Q10 & activation of vitamin D.
9. Storage - vitamins (A,D,E,K, B12), iron, copper, glycogen.
44
13) A patient presents to the CNM clinic complaining of recurrent episodes of
oral thrush.
* compromised immunity (e.g. chronic stress, cancer patients, diabetics, HIV/AIDs).
* After antibiotics
* immune suppressant drugs (e.g. steroids).
* Nutritional deficiencies (iron, zinc, vit. B12).
45
b) Compare the microorganisms that cause oral thrush and cold sores (1 mark)
oral thrush – fungus (candida) cold sores – herpes simplex (viral)
46
The patient reports having previously had their appendix removed following appendicitis.
c) List FOUR symptoms of an appendicitis (2 marks)
* Initially umbilical pain
* right iliac pain (McBurney’s point)
* sweating
* fever
* nausea
* vomiting
* diarrhoea.
47
14) A patient presents to the CNM clinic, indicating that they are currently undergoing investigations for Inflammatory Bowel Disease.
a) Name the TWO pathologies associated with Inflammatory Bowel Disease (1 mark)
Crohn’s disease / ulcerative colitis
48
b) State FOUR symptoms of Inflammatory Bowel Disease (2 marks)
* Rectal bleeding.
* Abdominal pain / cramps.
* Diarrhoea (with blood, mucous).
* Fever and fatigue.
* Nausea
* vomiting.
* Delayed puberty or growth failure.
* Weight loss / inability to maintain weight.
* Indigestion, feel “blocked”.
* Anaemia (fatigue etc.)
49
c) State TWO suspected causes of Inflammatory Bowel Diseases (1 mark)
Autoimmune / diet / genetics / antibiotics / infections / compromised immunity
50
d) Explain what is meant by ‘Coeliac Disease’ (1 mark)
Autoimmune response (1/2 mark) to gluten (1/2 mark)
51
15) a) Name ONE hormone released by the posterior pituitary gland and state ONE of its functions (2 marks)
ADH - prevents the loss of water into urine.
Oxytocin – bonding / childbirth / lactation
52
What anterior pituitary hormone binds to receptors on the thyroid gland?
TSH
53
What is the function of melatonin?
Sets circadian rhythm/antioxident
54
Which hormone intensifies the sympathetic resposne, increasing heart rate and blood pressure?
Adrenaline/NorAdr
55
16) A patient presents to you at the CNM clinic with symptoms suggestive of Diabetes Mellitus.
• a) Explain the difference between what happens in Type I and Type II Diabetes (2 marks)
Type I: autoimmune destruction of beta cells in pancreas
| Type II: insulin resistance
56
b) State FOUR symptoms of Type I Diabetes (2 marks)
* polyuria
* polydipsia.
* Weight loss
* Weakness
* fatigue
* mental status changes.
* Blurred vision
* slow healing of cuts/infections.
* Breathless
* Fruity smelling breath
57
c) List TWO complications of Diabetes Mellitus (1 mark)
* Heart disease
* Hypercholesterolaemia
* hypertension.
* Retinopathy.
* Nephropathy (diabetic kidney disease).
* Peripheral neuropathy.
58
Complete the following paragraph relating to the skin (3 marks)
The epidermis is the outer layer of the skin and contains two types of cells:
BLANK and BLANK. The most superficial layer of the epidermis is called the BLANK and contains only dead cells. Underneath the epidermis lies the BLANK, this is formed of connective tissue and contains structures such as hairs and sweat glands. These hairs are connected to a band of smooth muscle called the BLANK,
As well as providing physical protection, the skin offers other functions such as assisting in the synthesis of vitamin BLANK.
The epidermis is the outer layer of the skin and contains two types of cells:
KERATINOCYTES and MELANOCYTES. The most superficial layer of the epidermis is called the STRATUM CORNEUM and contains only dead cells. Underneath the epidermis lies the DERMIS, this is formed of connective tissue and contains structures such as hairs and sweat glands. These hairs are connected to a band of smooth muscle called the ARRECTOR PILI.
As well as providing physical protection, the skin offers other functions such as assisting in the synthesis of vitamin D.
59
Compare the appearance of skin affected by Eczema (Dermatitis) and Psoriasis (2 marks)
Dermatitis: Flaky, dry, oedematous (swelling from excessive accumulation of watery fluid in cells), erythematous, crusty, weepy lesions.
Psoriasis: Red scaly plaques covered with overlapping silvery shiny scales that may bleed.
60
18) a) Describe TWO functions of the lymphatic system (2 marks)
1. Return proteins, lipids and water from the interstitial fluid to the blood.
2. Immunity against harmful organisms.
61
b) Name the lymphatic duct that drains most of the body (1 mark)
Thoracic duct
62
c) State TWO causes of Splenomegaly (2 marks)
* Viral or bacterial infections e.g. infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever), syphilis, endocarditis, malaria.
* Liver diseases such as cirrhosis leading to portal vein hypertension.
* Haemolytic anaemias e.g. Thalassemia, Sickle cell anaemia.
* Blood/lymphatic malignancies: Leukaemia & Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
63
1) a) Explain the difference between a positive and negative feedback system (1 mark)
Negative – output reverses the input
| Positive – amplification
64
Give TWO examples of body processes controlled by a positive feedback mechanism (1 mark)
Labour / childbirth / lactation / enzyme reactions / clotting
65
2) Describe the key features of the process through which gametes are produced (2 marks)
Meiosis 2 divisions, 4 unique haploid cells produced, crossing over of chromosomes, different cells produced
66
What is the term for a subunit (portion) of DNA
Gene
67
What is the definition of 'mitochondria'
Energy production (ATP) in a cell
68
4) Name TWO cells found in connective tissue (1 mark)
Fibroblasts Adipocytes
| Leukocytes macrophages/mast cells/lymphocytes
69
5) A patient presents to you complaining of pain around the region of the proximal humerus when in a prone position.
Explain where and in what position these anatomical terms suggest the patient’s symptoms are located (1 mark)
Near shoulder / upper arm ½ mark Lay on front ½ mark
70
4) Explain how the skeleton plays a role in haematopoiesis (1 mark)
Red bone marrow produces blood cells
71
b) Name the bone cell involved in bone resorption (1 mark)
Osteoclast
72
c) Explain what is meant by an ‘osteon’ (1 mark)
Structural unit of compact bone
73
7) A 57 year old female patient presents to you complaining of right-sided deep groin pain. The pain began gradually 2 years ago and is associated with stiffness of most hip movements but especially flexion. The patient previously fractured her hip after falling off a ladder in her mid-forties. The patient is currently being investigated for an ‘overactive parathyroid gland’. A recent x- ray revealed some osteophytic growth in the femoral head.
a) The patient reports pain on ‘hip flexion’. Explain what is meant by this movement (1 mark)
b) Name a condition that is most likely causing the patients hip/groin symptoms (1 mark).
c) Using your answer to part b), explain why you think this is the most likely cause (1 mark).
d) Explain the relevance of the patient’s recently diagnosed ‘overactive parathyroid gland’ on her skeletal system (1 mark)
e) Later in the consultation, the patient shows you results from a recent DXA scan. The patient has a T-Score of +0.1. Explain what this result suggests
(1 mark)
f) The patient also reveals a previous disc herniation at the L5/S1 vertebral segment. What age group is most commonly affected by disc herniations?
(1 mark)
a) Narrowing angle / lifting hip towards abdomen
b) OA
c) Gradual onset / stiffness / patient age / history of fracture to this bone
d) Increased risk of osteoporosis
e) Bone density is considered normal
74
8) List FOUR functions of the muscular system (2 marks)
Movement –a result of muscular contraction and relies on the integrated functioning of the muscles, bones and joints.
Posture - stabilising joints, posture and balance through continual partial contraction of muscles.
Heat production - This process is called thermogenesis and helps maintain normal body temperature. (Shivering = involuntary contractions of the skeletal muscle) Glycogen storage – energy (glycogen) and oxygen
Movement of substances e.g. ova / blood / breathing etc.
75
9) a) Explain what is meant by a ‘striated muscle’ (1 mark)
Muscle fibres are aligned in a parallel structure
76
) Give ONE example of a non-striated muscle (1 mark)
Smooth muscle
77
What is the function of 'biceps brachii'
Flexes the elbow/forearm/ stabilises/flexes shoulder
78
Name a muscle used for mastication
Temporalis/masseter
79
What is the function of the rectus femoris
Flexes hip/extends knee
80
11) a) A 40 year old female patient presents to you complaining of left-sided shoulder pain. The patient informs you that she has been diagnosed with ‘fibromyalgia’ and does experience widespread discomfort and pain. However, she has noticed that her shoulder is particularly painful and is stopping her performing simple daily tasks.
a) Describe TWO suspected causes/triggers of fibromyalgia (1 mark)
Stress/trauma (neuroendocrine / Limbic system)
Most common in women:men (15:1) aged 25-50 years. Sleep dysregulation
Post viral / chronic toxic load
Serotonin and noradrenaline deficiencies
High levels of substance P (nerves more sensitized to pain)
81
b) Explain how you might identify whether the patient is suffering with shoulder impingement syndrome. You can discuss questions you might ask the patient or you can describe how the symptoms/presentations differ (1 mark)
Impingement: shoulder pain during abduction / pain arc of movement / certain other movements vs. vague/general shoulder movements / catching sensation when lowering arm
82
c) Name the muscle group involved in shoulder impingement syndrome (1 mark)
Rotator cuff
| Accept Supraspinatus
83
12) Describe the function of the mucociliary escalator (1 mark)
To trap small particles that are inhaled and remove them – often swallowed (prevents them entering the lungs)
84
13) a) Describe the structure of the trachea (1 mark)
C-shaped rings of cartilage with smooth muscle between
85
b) The trachea divides into the left and right bronchi. Describe the effect of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) on the diameter of the bronchi and bronchioles (1 mark)
Increases the diameter
| Bronchodilates
86
c) Alveolar cells produce pulmonary surfactant. Explain the role of this secretion (1 mark)
Surfactant reduces surface tension preventing alveolar collapse and decreasing the pressure required to re-inflate the alveoli.
87
14) A 49 year old male patient presents to you complaining of some shortness of breath and wheezing mostly during exercise. The patient also reports that he suffers from sleep apnoea and has smoked heavily for 30 years.
a) Explain what is meant by sleep apnoea (1 mark)
Intermittent and repeated upper airway collapse during sleep leading to interrupted breathing.
88
b) You initially consider undiagnosed asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) as a possible cause of the patient’s symptoms. Provide a definition for both conditions, clearly indicating how the respiratory pathologies are different (2 marks)
Asthma:
Chronic airway disease with reversible narrowing of the bronchi & bronchioles.
An inflammatory condition combined with bronchial hyper-responsiveness with varying degrees of immune cell infiltration.
Airflow obstruction due to oedema, mucous build-up & smooth muscle hyperplasia. Leads to problems exhaling
More likely to develop it if you have a family history of the condition.
Asthma can develop at any age, including in young children and elderly people.
COPD:
Airflow limitation that is not fully reversible and is progressive.
Associated with an abnormal, chronic inflammatory response of the lungs (usually, to inhaled toxins).
COPD refers to a combination of two main pathologies, chronic bronchitis and emphysema
89
c) Explain the purpose of the TWO most commonly prescribed conventional inhalers for asthma (2 marks)
Blue inhaler- bronchodilator
| Brown inhaler - Corticosteroid (preventative)
90
d) State ONE complication of COPD (1 mark)
Lung cancer Pulmonary failure Heart failure
| Pulmonary hypertension Recurrent infections
91
Explain what is meant by ‘blood plasma’ (1 mark)
Fluid component of blood Transports nutrients/proteins etc.
92
b) State ONE location where blood cells are produced in foetal development (2-9 months gestation) (1 mark)
Liver OR spleen
93
c) How many hemoglobin molecules are found in one erythrocyte? (1 mark)
280 million
94
d) A patient with an A+ blood group requires an urgent blood transfusion. Name ALL of the blood groups that could be donated to this patient (2 marks)
O-
O+
A-
A+
95
) Describe the role of ‘thromboxane’ in the formation of a blood clot (2 mark)
Vasoconstrictor.
| Causes vascular spasm and attracts platelets.
96
16) A patient presents to the CNM clinic and appears to be suffering from anaemia, easy bruising and recurrent infections.
a) Explain what the patients presenting symptoms might suggest. You should consider any relevant physiology and pathologies (2 marks)
A bone marrow pathology – blood cells are produced in the bone marrow (i.e. aplastic anaemia / leukaemia)
97
b) Explain what is meant by ‘megaloblastic anaemia’ (1 mark)
Large immature blood cells (associated with folate or b12 def)
98
b) Name the thickest layer of the heart wall (1 mark)
Myocardium (give ½ for left ventricle)
99
c) Briefly explain what can be detected by an electrocardiogram (ECG) (1 mark)
The hearts conductive system
100
Explain what is meant by ‘atherosclerosis’ (1 mark)
Fatty deposits/hardening of arterial walls (narrowing)
101
Explain the implications of atherosclerosis in the coronary artery (1 mark)
Reduced oxygenation to the myocardium angina / MI?
102
19) Explain the similarities and differences between a stroke and transient ischaemic attack (2 marks)
Both are ‘cerebrovascular incidents’ associated with inadequate blood supply to a region of the brain.
The signs and symptoms of a TIA last less than 24 hrs, unlike a stroke.
103
20) a) Explain why patients might develop ‘cardiomegaly’ in heart failure (1 mark)
The heart is failing as a pump so it enlarges (adapts/compensates)
104
State ONE common location of oedema in right-sided heart failure (1 mark)
Systemic
| Peripheral oedema e.g. legs
105
21) Whilst considering its composition, explain how saliva plays a role in the following:
a) Carbohydrate digestion (1 mark):
b) Immunity (1 mark):
a) Amylase
| b) IgA / lysozymes
106
22) Whilst considering the enteric nervous system, explain how stress compromises digestion (1 mark)
Increase SNS output reduced peristalsis/secretions
107
Complete the following paragraph (3 marks):
BLANK cells in the stomach produce BLANK factor, which is needed for the absorption of BLANK . Food combines with stomach secretions and enters the small intestine. The small intestine is divided into the duodenum,
BLANK and BLANK . Most absorption occurs in the
BLANK .
PARIETAL cells in the stomach produce INTRINSIC factor, which is needed for the absorption of VITAMIN B12 . Food combines with stomach secretions and enters the small intestine. The small intestine is divided into the duodenum,
JEJUNUM and ILEUM . Most absorption occurs in the
JEJUNUM .
108
Describe TWO functions of the symbiotic microbes in the large intestine (1 mark)
Production of vitamins e.g. K Immune system Fermentation & digestion
109
) State FOUR functions of the liver (2 marks)
1. Cleansing blood of microbes.
2. Detoxification (metabolising drugs, toxins & alcohol).
3. Bile production & secretion.
4. Haemolysis (kuppfer cells)
5. Synthesis of plasma proteins (blood clotting & coagulation factors)
6. Hormone homeostasis (making, regulating & detoxifying hormones).
7. Metabolism of glucose (glycogen), fats (hepatocytes store triglycerides) & amino acids (de-aminate so can be used for ATP production)
8. Heat production – thermogenesis.
9. Synthesis: vitamin A (from beta carotene), Co-Q10 & activation of vitamin D.
10. Storage (vitamins A,D,E,K, B12), iron, copper, glycogen.
110
Name the specialised phagocytic cells found in the liver (1 mark)
Kuppfer cells (1/2 mark for macrophage)
111
25) a) List TWO causes of oral thrush (1 mark)
```
Immune compromise (HIV/stress/diabetes)
Antibiotic use
Nutritional def. e.g. iron/zinc/b12 Dysbiosis
```
Accept candida
112
) Describe the appearance of oral thrush (1 mark)
* White patches (plaques) on the oral mucosa.
* “Cottage cheese” consistency that can be wiped/brushed off.
* Red/raw appearance to the underlying tissue
113
State the red flag symptom associated with oesophageal cancer (1 mark)
Dysphagia / difficulty swallowing
114
List TWO risk factors/causes of oesophageal cancer
GORD/smoking/alcohol/barrets oesophagus/low fruit and vege diet/increasing age
115
27) A patient presents to you with acute abdominal pain.
| a) Describe the location/s of symptoms as seen in appendicitis (1 mark)
Right lower abdominal quadrant / mcburneys point / begins at umbilicus and moves to lower right quadrant
116
b) State ONE complication of an appendicitis (1 mark)
Perforation Peritonitis
117
28) Explain what is meant by acromegaly (1 mark)
Excess GH secreted in adulthood/post-puberty/after growth plates fused
118
29) a) Name the more biologically active form of thyroid hormone (1 mark)
T3 / triiodothyronine
119
b) What do thyroid follicular cells ‘trap’ and store? (1 mark)
Iodine
120
c) List FOUR signs and/or symptoms or hypothyroidism (2 marks)
Tiredness, malaise, weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, depression
Slow cognitively, poor memory, low libido, deep voice, menstrual changes Muscle cramps/aches, arthralgia
Signs: Goitre. Dry, brittle skin. Slow tendon reflexes, bradycardia, loss of lateral third of eyebrows, puffiness around the eyes (myxoedema). High TSH, low thyroid hormones
121
Name the cell that accounts for 90% of all epidermal cells (1 mark)
Keratinocytes
122
Briefly describe what the dermis is formed of (1 mark)
Connective Tissue Collagen and elastic fibres
123
31) Explain TWO functions of sweating (2 marks)
Thermoregulation (loss of heat by convection) Excretion of wastes e.g. urea/ammonia etc
124
State TWO functions of the spleen (1 mark)
Haemopoesis in foetus Blood reservoir
| Phagocytosis of worn out of defective erythrocytes & platelets Immunity: Matures T & B lymphocytes. Filters blood.
125
b) Describe the anatomical location of the spleen (1 mark)
| You may draw a diagram if you would prefer to do so.
Between diaphragm/stomach / on the left lower ribcage region / ribs 9-11 mid axillary line
126
c) Explain what is meant by ‘lymphangitis’ (1 mark)
Inflammation of the lymphatic vessel
