exam spring Flashcards
(252 cards)
1
Q
Ageression and submission are examples of responses organisms show to a conflict situation. Collectively
animal behavioralists refer to these as:
A
agnostic behavior
2
Q
When an organism moves directly toward or away from a stimulus, the movement is referred to as:
A
taxis
3
Q
The bond that forms between monosaccharides as a result of condensation synthesis is called
A
glycosidic link
4
Q
One Beta-linked monosaccharide, ______, is used in the formation of cellulose, a molecule that is the primary component in the structure of the ____
A
beta-glucose, cell wall
5
Q
Which of the following statements is/are not a primary function of the carbohydrates:
A
carbohydrates are used as identifiers for cell-to-cell communication;
6
Q
Which of the following is/are (an) example(s) of (a) disaccharide(s):
A
maltose and galactose
7
Q
Common table sugar is composed of or contains which of the following:
A
alpha-glucose, fructose, sucrose
8
Q
Although we can’t digest cellulose, it does play an important role in our diet, how?
A
cellulose in the diet is referred to as dietary fiber, helps keep our colon healthy;
absorbs fats and moves them through the digestive tract and out of the body;
helps to cleanse the digestive tract, moving undigested or indigestible
materials through the digestive tract;
9
Q
According to class discussion, fructose is especially problematic in our diet because:
A
it is not utilized directly by our cells, so gets stored in the liver;
in the liver, fructose is converted into fat;
a fatty liver can lead to symptoms of type-ll diabetes;
excess fat in the liver absorbs the hormone insulin, required to maintain homeostasis of blood sugar levels;
10
Q
In the Korup Forest of Cameroon a black ant species lives in the hollow branches of the barteria tree. The ants clear algae and fungus from the leaves of the tree, and cut creeping vines away. This would be an example of what form of symbiosis?
A
mutualism
11
Q
A highly branched starch, may be found as an energy storage carbohydrate in animal tissues:
A
glycogen
12
Q
The carbohydrates most responsible for energy storage in nature tend to be composed of;
A
alpha-linked monosaccharides
13
Q
The carbohydrates most responsible for structural and strengthening components in nature tend to be
composed of:
A
beta-linked monosaccharides
14
Q
Probably the most significant source of fructose in the American diet is:
A
high fructose corn syrup used as the sweetener in most soft drinks;
15
Q
Many animals, including man, are not capable of utilizing cellulose procied by the plants.
This is because:
A
they do not have the enzymes capable of breaking B-bonds;
16
Q
The alpha-linked polysaccharides have a tendency to form which of the following secondary structures:
A
alpha-helices
17
Q
A derivative carbohydrate that functions as an interradiary in energy transfer:
A
fructose-1,6-diphosphate and sugar phosphates;
18
Q
Amino sugars are usually used as structural components in nature. The polymer chitin, for example, is
used in the _____ of the _____
A
Exoskeletons/arthropods
Skeletal structures/platyhelminthes;
19
Q
The bond that forms from the synthesis that produces a triglyceride from fatty acid tails and a glycerol
molecule is called:
A
ester linkage
20
Q
In general, which of the following foods would be rich in saturated fats?
A
Animal fat
Whole milk
Butter
Lard
Foods containing partially hydrogenated soybean oil like Little Debbie’s Snack Cakes
21
Q
so, ifyou were to go on a really long hike and had to pack your food with you which of the following foodstuffs would provide you with the greatest energy source with least mass
A
a pound of margarine
22
Q
specialization of the type we see among organisms in The Korup leaves organisms in such communities
highly susceptible to:
A
any alteration of the ecosystem, like human incursion, deforestation, global climate change;
extinction;
23
Q
Which of the following can contribute to density-dependent regulation of populations?
A
intraspecific competition for nutrients
24
Q
Which of the following are important abiotic factors that can affect the structure and organization
of biological communities?
A
A) precipitation, wind
B) nutrient availability, soil pH
D) temperature, water
E) light intensity, seasonality
25
Which of the following is true with respect to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic lakes?
A) Oligotrophic lakes are relatively high in O2 levels.
B) Rates of photosynthesis are higher in eutrophic lakes initially as algal colonies grow.
C) Eutrophic lake water contains higher concentrations of nutrients, especially N, P and K.
D) Sediments in oligotrophic lakes contain low levels of decomposable organic matter.
E) Sediments in eutrophic lakes contain high levels of decomposable organic matter.
26
What would be a likely entry for box A?
fertilizers washed into the lake;
27
To measure the population of lake trout in a 250 hectare lake,
200 individuals were netted and marked with a fin clip, and then returned to the lake. The next week, the lake is netted again, and out of the 200 lake trout that are caught, 50 have fin clips. Using the capture-recapture estimate, the lake trout population size could be closest to which of the following?
200/x=50/200 (cross multiply) = 800
28
An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile on another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?
density
29
Generalized global air circulation and precipitation patterns are caused by:
rising, warm, moist air masses cool and release precipitation as they rise and then at high altitude, cool and sink back to the surface as dry air masses after moving north or south of the tropics.
30
The sum total of an organism's interaction with the biotic and abiotic resources of its environment is called its:
ecological niche
31
Which of the following assumptions have to be made regarding the capture-recapture estimate
of population size?
1. Marked and unmarked individuals have the same probability of being trapped.
II. The marked individuals have thoroughly mixed with population after being marked.
III. No individuals have entered or left the population by immigration or emigration, and no individuals have been added by birth or eliminated by death during the course of the estimate.
1,2,3
32
Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion?
cardinals, who actively defend territories
33
The three basic variables that make up the life history of an organism are
age when reproduction begins
how often reproduction occurs
how many offspring are produced per reproductive episode
34
Which curve best describes survivorship in a marine crustacean that molts?
D
35
Which curve best describes survivorship of cockroaches?
E
36
Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants?
A
37
Field observation suggests that populations of a particular
Number of survivors (log 100
species of herbivorous mammal undergo cyclic fluctuations in density at three- to five-year intervals. Which of the following relative can represent (a) plausible explanation(s) of these cycles?
A) Periodic crowding affects the endocrine system, resulting in increased aggressiveness.
B) Increases in population density lead to increased rates of predation.
C) Increases in rates of herbivory lead to changes in the nutritive value of plants used as food.
D) Increases in population density lead to more proximal infestations of parasites to host animals.
38
A species of fish is found to require a certain water temperature, a particular oxygen content of the water, a particular depth, a rocky substrate on the bottom, and a variety of nutrients in the form of microscopic plants and animals to thrive. These requirements describe its:
ecological niche
39
White-breasted nuthatches and Downy woodpeckers both eat insects that hide in the furrows of bark in hardwood trees. The Downy woodpecker searches for insects by hunting from the bottom of the tree trunk to the top, while the White-breasted nuthatch searches from the top of the trunk down. These hunting behaviors best illustrate which of the following ecological concepts?
resource partitioning
40
The high levels of pesticides found in birds of prey is an example of:
biological magnification
41
Which of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from this gragh? (figure 53.2 about broods)
There appears to be a negative correlation between brood enlargements and parental survival.
42
Which population is in the process of increasing?
the pyramid looking graph
43
Which of the following graphs illustrates the population growth curve of single bacterium growing in a flask of ideal medium at optimum temperature over a 24-hour period?
exponential growth graph
44
Which of the following graphs illustrates the growth curve of a small population of rodents that has grown to reach a static carrying capacity?
s curve
45
Which letter represents an organism that could be a producer?
B
46
Which letter represents an organism that could be a decomposer?
A
47
Food chains are sometimes short because:
most of the energy in a trophic level is lost as it passes to the next higher level.
48
For most terrestrial ecosystems, pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy are essentially the same - they have a broad base and a narrow top. The primary reason for this pattern is that:
at each step, energy is lost from the system as a result of keeping the organisms alive
49
Suppose you are studying the nitrogen cycling in a pond ecosystem over the course of a year. While you are collecting data, a flock of 100 Canada geese lands and spends the night during a fall migration. What could you do to eliminate error in your study as a result of this event?
find out how much nitrogen is consumed and eliminated by a Canada goose over about a 12 hour period and multiply this number by 100; enter this +/- value into the nitrogen budget of the ecosystem
50
What would be a likely entry for box B?
A) decomposer population carries on cellular respiration and uses up oxygen;
B) plants and algae produce less oxygen;
51
Why are ecologists concerned about the
Frequency shift in date from May 28 in 1980 to Hatchlin food needs)
May 15 in 2000 of the caterpillar peak mass?
The flycatcher nestlings in 2000 will
miss the peak mass of caterpillars and may not be as well fed.
52
Two barnacles, Balanus and Chthamalus, can both survive on the lower rocks just above the low-tide line on the Scottish coast, but only Balanus actually does so, with Chthamalus adopting a higher zone.
Which of the following best accounts for this niche separation?
competitive exclusion
53
Although we get plenty of fat in our diet, cholesterol, one of the fats we are supposed to avoid, plays several important roles in our body. Which of the following are among those roles?
A) cholesterol is the basic structural molecule upon which steroidal hormones are built;
B) cholesterol molecules within the phospholipid bilayer help to promote stability within biological membranes;
54
In lecture we discussed the role of LDL's and HDL's in our diet.
Which was considered to be dangerous to human health and why?
B) LDL's are dangerous because they stick to the walls of blood vessels, forming plaque;
C) plaque lining blood vessels can lead to blockage that increases blood pressure and reduces the flexibility of affected vesseis;
D) plaque formation may lead to atherosclerosis;
55
HDL's actually function in our bodies to do which of the following:
HDL's help to remove LDL's from our digestive track and blood vessels, reducing LDL's in our blood;
56
Which of the following are considered HDL's, or sources of HDL's in our diet?
B) unsaturated fats;
C) omega-3 fatty acids from fish;
57
The synthesis that forms a triglyceride from fatty acid tails and a glycerol molecule is called:
ester linkage
58
The phospholipid bilayer is composed of molecules containing all of the following components except:
A carboxyl group
59
Some athletes have been known to use an anabolic steroid called androstenedione. This steroid functions as a precursor to:
testosterone
60
Probably the biggest concern with respect to the use of anabolic steroids is that they:
A) high blood pressure;
B) muscle and tendon damage;
C) reduction in bone growth resulting in reduced final height;
D) increased risk of heart attack, liver disease and some kinds of cancer:
E) mood swings including depression and dangerous aggression;
61
Lipids are used as energy storage molecules in the animals rather than carbohydrates because:
A) they are more efficient energy storage molecules;
B) carbohydrates break down easily;
C) animals are motile, therefore they need more stable storage molecules;
62
Lipids perform which of the following major functions in living tissue:
A) they form the relatively impermeable barriers that delineate cells (membranes);
B) they are used as chemical signals to carry messages to different parts of the body;
C) they act as light absorbing pigments in the plants;
63
they form the relatively impermeable barriers that delineate cells (membranes) refers to:
phospholipids
64
A peptide contains which of the following functional groups?
-COOH, -NH2
65
If a C-0 and an N-H group are placed in proximity of each other during secondary folding of a polypeptide
chain, they might form a(n):
hydrogen bond
66
A description of a protein as a single, linear chain containing a particuiar sequence of amino acids describes the ______ structure of the protein:
primary
67
Which of the following is not a potential cause of 2° regional folding in a polypeptide chain:
covalent bonding other than the disulfide bridge;
68
Which of the following organic compounds involves a phosphorylation in their formation?
polypeptides
69
which of the folowing organic compounds involves an esterification in their formation?
Phospholipids and Triglycerides
70
The monomers of the amino acids most appropriately referred to as:
peptides
71
A description of a protein by the postion of peptides in a three-dimensional, globular construct:
tertiary
72
A fibrous protein used where there is a need for a strong. rigid, and unstretchable structural component.
y-helix
73
Amino acids contain which of the following functional groups by definition:
A) a carboxyl group;
B) -COOH;
C) an amino group;
D) -NH2
74
Which of the following are examples of an a-helix:
keratin, actin, myosin, elastin
75
The polarity of the - NH2 group is due to:
A) the relative sizes of the N & H nuclei;
D) the stronger attraction of e-'s to the N nucleus;
76
An aggregate protein composed of globular subunits describes which of the following levels of protein
structure?
quarternary
77
An aggregate protein composed of four myoglobin subunits, the protein component of red blood cells:
hemoglobin
78
Which of the following are examples, of a y-helix:
collagen
79
a reaction in which energy is being released is called:
exergonic
80
In an anabolic reaction, which of the following would best describe the "free energy?"
endergonic
81
The synthesis of a polypeptide from peptide monomers would be best described as:
endergonic, anabolic
82
The process by which starch decomposes to form a-glucose monomers is called:
hydrolysis
83
Generally speaking, one would expect that the ______ the concentration of enzyme, the ______ the rate of reaction?
higher/higher, lower/lower
84
When a protein configuration is changed due to heat, pH, or salinity so that it no longer functions as it should,
the protein is said to have been:
denatured
85
Enzymes speed the rate of reaction by lowering the _____ energy, the energy required to drive the reaction.
activation
86
The groove in the surface of a three dimensional protein molecule acting as an enzyme, the site at which reactants
bind, is called the _____
active site
87
The molecule or ion that is required to bind to the active site of an enzyme to activate that enzyme so it can
bind reactants is called:
cofactor
coenzyme
prosthetic group
88
In the equation below, the enzyme catalase is working as a(n):
catalase
2H202 —————-> 2H20 + 02
catalyst
89
In the exposure of fruit to air, like a cut apple or avacado, the flesh undergoes a color change resulting from a catalyzed reaction as depicted. how would we most appropriately depict this reaction?
anabolic
90
The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or events
accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain, combining with H+ to form H2O
91
Which of the following statements describes the results of the reaction below?
C6H12O6 + 6O2 —> 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy
C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced.
92
The free energy for the oxidation of glucose to CO, and water is -686 kcal/mole and the free energy for the reduction of NAD+ to NADH is +53 kcal/mole. Why are only two molecules of NADH formed during glycolysis when it appears that as many as a dozen could be formed?
Most of the free energy available from the oxidation of glucose remains in pyruvate,
one of the products of glycolysis.
93
Approximately how many molecules of ATP are produced from the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) in cellular respiration?
38 or 36
94
Figure 10.1 shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll and the action spectrum for photosynthesis
Why are they different?
Other pigments absorb light in addition to chlorophyll a, the antenna pigments, like beta-carotene.
95
CAM plants keep stomata closed in daytime, thus reducing loss of
water. They can do this because they:
fix CO2 into organic acids during the night.
96
Which of the following produces the most ATP when glucose (C6H12O6) is completely oxidized to
carbon dioxide (CO2) and water?
oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis);
97
in the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by fermentation, resulting in the production of;
ATP, CO2, and ethanol (ethyl alcohol).
98
C) ATP, NADH, and pyruvate are the products of?
glycolysis
99
When glucose (C6H12O6) is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide (CO2) and water, the CO2 breaks free in the form of:
a -COOH group, the H binds to NAD to form NADH;
100
Which of the following most accurately describes what is
happening along this chain in Figure 9.3?
Each electron carrier alternates between being reduced and being oxidized.
101
Which statement describes the functioning of photosystem II
The electron vacancies in p680 are filled by electrons derived from water when the water molecule is split.
102
Carbon dioxide (CO2) is released during which of the following
stages of cellular respiration?
oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cycle;
103
What did Engelmann conclude about the congregation of bacteria in the red and blue areas?
Bacteria congregated in these areas because these areas had the most oxygen being released.
104
- An outcome of Engelmann's experiment was to help determine:
the relationship between wavelengths of light and the oxygen released during photosynthesis.
105
In chemiosmotic phosphorylation, what is the most direct source of energy that is used
to convert ADP + P. to ATP?
energy released from movement of protons, hydronium ions, through ATP synthase in the mitochondrial matrix;
106
The pH of the inner thylakoid space has been measured, as have the pH of the stroma and of the cytosol of a
particular plant cell. Which, if any, relationship would you expect to find?
The pH within the thylakoid is less than that of the stroma.
107
When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a by-product of which of the following?
splitting the water molecules;
108
What is the primary function of the Calvin-Benson (C3) cycle?
synthesizes simple sugars from carbon dioxide;
109
Which of the following statements best represents the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle?
The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the cycle returns ADP, Pi, and NADP+ to the light reactions.
110
Which reaction would prevail if both Q and S were present in the cell in high concentrations?
L —> N
111
A competitive inhibitor functions by doing which of the following?
the inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme, preventing the substrate from binding;
112
Which curve at the right represents the behavior of an enzyme taken from a bacterium that lives in hot springs at temperatures of 70°C or higher?
3
113
Which curve at the right was most likely generated from analysis of an enzyme from a human stomach where
Rate of reaction
conditions are strongly acid?
4
114
Which of the following terms best describes the reaction? (figure 8.2)
exergonic
115
Which of the following represents the delta G of the reaction? (figure 8.2)
d
116
Which of the following bests describes the reaction? (figure 8.2)
negative delta G, spontaneous
117
Which of the following represents the activation energy required for the enzyme-catalyzed reaction? (figure 8.2)
b
118
The mechanism in which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an earlier step in the pathway is known as:
feedback inhibition
119
If ATP used by this plant is labeled with radioactive phosphorus, in which molecules will the radioactivity be measurable after one "turn" of the cycle?
b,c,d,e
120
If the carbon atom of the incoming CO, molecule is labeled with a radioactive isotope of carbon, where will the radioactivity be measurable after one cycle?
a,b,c
121
What is the challenge presented by surface area to volume ratios in determining cell size?
B) All materials needed by the cell must enter through the plasma membrane.
As a cell gets larger the amount of membrane available to support a unit of volume gets smaller and a cell may starve for lack of nutrient;
C) All materials produced by the cell as waste must exit through the plasma membrane.
As a cell gets larger the amount of membrane availabie to support a unit of volume gets smaller and a cell may be poisoned by the toxicity of accumulating waste;
122
According to our study, what is the most significant limitation to cell size?
surface area-volume ratio;
123
A piece of laboratory equipment that uses the reflection or transmission of light, focused through glas
lenses, to facilitate inemaised resoiving power:
light microscope;
124
The electron microscope has a number of advantages over the light microscope. Which of the following might be considered disadvantages?
A) tissue samples must be dead;
C) samples are partially desiccated;
125
A slimy layer found on some prokaryotic cells, the capsule or sheath, may protect bacteria in which of the following ways?
A) protects from desiccation;
C) protects from attack by white blood cells;
126
Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes generally:
A) lack a nucleus;
B) lack independent, membrane-bound organelles;
C) have circular DNA with no associated histone proteins;
D) produce proteins that begin with formylmethionine rather than methionine:
127
According to Rudolf Virchow's assertions in the Cell Theory, which of the following could not be true:
spontaneous generation
128
A form of endocytosis in which a solid particle is incorporated by forming a pocket of plasma membrane outward, as in the formation of pseudopods, followed by a pinching off to form a
vesicle:
phagocytosis
129
The nucleolus functions as the site of ______ in eukaryotic cells:
ribosome synthesis
130
The sub-cellular organelle that functions as the site of cellular respiration in the eukaryotic cell:
mitochondrian
131
The pores of the nuclear envelope prevent the movement of _____
through the envelope while allowing _____ to move freely out of the nucleus:
DNA/mRNA
132
Proteins that are to be used inside the cell for cellular purposes are synthesized:
on free ribosomes
133
Plastids that are specialized for the storage of starch are called:
amyloplasts (or leukoplasts);
134
Proteins that are to be transported from the cell are synthesized.
on ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum;
135
The endoplasmic reticulum allows proteins to be exported from the cell because:
it packages the proteins produced in a membrane, allowing the resulting vesicles to fuse with other membranes, including the cell membrane;
136
Nuclear proteins and RNA pass into and from the nucleus by means of:
nuclear pores
137
During periods when cells are not undergoing division, most of the genetic material of the nucleus exists as a loose, indistinct tangle called:
chromatin
138
The ability to distinguish two closely adjacent objects as being separate depends on the microscope:
resolving power
139
Which eukaryotic membrane-bound organelles are believed to have evolved from prokaryotic cells?
1. nucleolus 2. lysosomes 3. mitochondria
4. plastids 5. the Golgi complex
3 and 4
140
Which is not a correct statement?
prokaryotes use a cytoplasmic protein-fiber framework for internal support whereas eukaryotes use membranous organelles as their cytoskeleton.
141
Which of the following are organelles found in plant cells but not in animal cells?
chloroplast, large central vacuole, cell wall
142
Which of the following are organelles found in some animal cells but not in any plant cells?
centrioles;
143
The fluid pressure inside the central vacuole of plant cells is termed the:
turgor pressure
144
Which of the following sub-cellular organelles is not among those belonging to the endomembrane system?
mitochondrian
145
The energy produced by the mitochondrion is in the form of:
ATP
146
Centrioles perform which of the following functions?
A) they form the basal body at the base of cilia and flagella;
B) they migrate with the formation of a spindle network during nuclear division in animal cells;
147
According to the endomembrane theory of eukaryotic origin, which of the following explains the origin of
the definitive eukaryotic characteristic?
an inwardly expanding membrane surrounded the DNA, forming the nuclear envelope;
148
Which of the following pieces of evidence supports the theory that mitochondria and plastids may have originated as independent prokaryotic cells taken into an early eukaryote by endocytosis?
A) they are about the same size as prokaryotes.
B) the proteins produced independently by mitochondria and plastids begin with formyl-methionine like those of the prokaryotes, rather than the methionine of eukaryotic proteins.
C) both have a double membrane
D) the ribosomal subunits will hybridize with those of prokaryotic cells, but not of eukaryotic cells;
149
The proteins produced independently by mitochondria and plastids begin with ____ like those of _____ suggesting a possible origin of these organelles outside the modern eukaryote:
formylmethionine, prokayote;
150
Prokaryotes have
A) no nucleus;
B) may have a mesosome region that functions like the eukaryotic mitochondrion
C) they have few, if any, independent membrane-bound structures, unlike the eukaryote:
D) they may have a primitive chromatophore region in their membrane that functions like the chloroplast in eukaryotes;
E) they have a cell wall composed of peptidoglycan rather than cellulose;
151
Among the proteins associated with the cell membrane are some that sit on, or are imbedded in the surface of the membrane where they act as staging areas for cellular activities, as part of the major histocompatibility complex, or in cell to cell identification. These proteins as a group are referred to as:
intrinsic/integral proteins
152
Observed the compartmentalization of tissue in a sample of cork and
called the compartments cells
hooke
153
Associated with the cell membrane, these molecules act to transport materials through the membrane.
intrinsic/integral proteins
154
-The process by which solar energy is converted to chemical energy in the chloroplast.
photosynthesis
155
Organelle composed of stacks of flattened cavities, functions in storage and modification of proteins for export.
golgi apparatus
156
Mitochondria and plastids may have originated as independent ___
taken into an early eukaryote by ___
prokaryotes/endocytosis
157
This molecule may play a key role in providing stability to the plasma
membrane.
cholesterol
158
The centriole may function as the _____. the structure that gives rise to cilia
or flagella.
basal body
159
Like that of the eukaryote, prokaryotic DNA tends to be _____
with very little associated _____
circular and naked/protein or histoproteins
160
This guy was first to claim all cells come from pre-existing cells, contradicting the accepted theory of the day, Spontaneous Generation
rudolf verchow
161
Anton van Leeuwenhoek's great contribution to the Cell Theory is that he observed _______________
using a compound microscope
living single celled organisms
162
In the pairing of nucleotides, a larger _____ nucleotide always pairs with a smaller_______ nucleotide to maximize H-bonding between the polymers:
A) Purine / Pyrimidine;
C) Guanine / Cytosine;
D Adenine / Thymine, except in RNA where Thymine is replaced by Uracil;
163
Which of the following are differences between DNA and RNA?
DNA is a double-stranded molecule whereas RNA is single-stranded;
164
Which of the following represents the importance of the double helical structure of DNA?
Forms a wider molecule that can't fit through pores in the nuclear envelope;
Places a sugar-phosphate backbone chain to the outside of the molecule protecting the coding base pairs to the interior of the molecule
The double helix with bases paired to the interior of the molecule promotes maintenance of the genetic code and faithful replication of the DNA during mitosis;
165
In the transcription of DNA into RNA, an Adenine nucleotide on the DNA template will bond to a(n) _ nucleotide in the forming RNA polymer:
uracil
166
- In preparation for nuclear division, the genetic material of the nucleus supercoils, converting it from a loose, indistinct tangle of chromatin into compact, discrete units called:
chromosomes
167
Probably the greatest advantage to the use of the transmitting electron microscope is that it offers the opportunity to make density distinctions allowing us to see _____
that cannot be seen
with a light microscope:
membranes
168
To increase the surface area of cuboidal and columnar epithelium specialized for absorption, these tissues often have _____ on their free surface
Microvilli
169
Epithelial tissues specialized for absorption might be found in which of the following areas of the body?
Lining of the stomach and intestines
170
Squamous epithelium, like that lining the alveoli in lungs, is specialized for:
Absorption
171
To increase the surface area of cuboidal and columnar epithelium specialized for secretion, these tissues often have an infolding of their free surface
Glandular epithelium
172
Ciliated epithelium is specialized for…
Movement of materials
173
Ciliated epithelium is commonly found in _____ where it helps to move _____
Respiratory tract/mucus
174
The specialized epithelial tissue of which the lining of the heart and the blood vessels is composed
Endothelial tissue
175
Your skin is a very good example of
Stratified epithelium
176
Ligaments are composed primarily of
Elastic fibers
177
A specialized type of ____ tissue, this tissue connects muscle to bone
Connective/tendons
178
This tissue functions in the transmission of electrical messages from one part of the body to another; responsible for regulation and coordination
Nervous tissue
179
Which of the following are characteristics of visceral (smooth) muscle tissue?
Cell are uninucleate
Controlled by the autonomic nervous system
Fatigues slowly
180
The fluid portion of blood in which all other blood components are suspended
Plasma
181
This component of blood is primarily responsible for the transport of O2 throughout the bodies of higher animals
Red blood cells
182
The muscle tissue controlled by the voluntary nervous system, capable of quick, powerful contractions that move skeletal components
Skeletal muscle
Striated muscle
183
Reproductive tissues are highly specialized tissues found in the ovaries and tested of animals where they function in the production of
Sperm and egg
184
Plant epidermis secreted a waxy ____ that covers the surface of the leaf
Cuticle
185
All of the following are true of meristematic tissue except
It is the most highly specialized plant tissue
186
Xylem and phloem function in material transport throughout the plant, this they are referred to as
Vascular tissue
187
The tissue that covers leaf surfaces in the plants is called
Epidermal tissue
188
Massed cells we observed in the center of a leaf cross-section, where they function in filling space
Parenchyma
189
When parenchyma tissues contain chloroplast and function in photosynthetic activity they may be referred to as
Chlorenchyma
190
The woody fibers found primarily in stems and the mid ribs of leaves where they provide toughness and rigidity
Sclerenchyma
191
The only plant tissue, other than reproductive tissues, that has the potential to give rise to a new plant:
Non-differentiated meristematic tissue
192
Elongated lignified tubes which conduct water and mineral salts from the roots to the leaves:
Xylem
193
The cuticle of the leaf and other plant structures play what role in the plant?
Protects plant from dissicating
Protects plant from penetration by parasites
Protects plant from penetration by pathogens
194
Unlignified tissue, formed of sieve tube, elements, capable of transporting food material throughout the plant
Phloem
195
The fat filled cells that wrap the axon of a neuron are called
Oligodendroglia in the CNS
Schwann cells in the PNS
Glial cells generally
196
The primary cellular component of blood
Red blood cells
197
Glycoprotein matrix
Connective tissue
198
Composed of elastic fibers in a glycoprotein matrix
Ligament
199
Composed of collagen fibers in a glycoprotein matrix
Tendon
200
Search and destroy pathogens
White blood cells
201
Polynucleotide protein fiber bundles
Skeletal muscle
202
Uninucleate cell packed with contractile fibrils
Smooth muscle
203
Osteoblasts secreting calcium salts
Bone
204
Chondrin secreted by chondroblasts
Cartilage
205
Unlignified tubes
Phloem
206
Lignified cell walls
Xylem
207
Protein fibers found in upper layers of stratified epithelium responsible for the protective quality of skin
Keratin
208
One method utilized by organisms to deal with surface area : volume ratios
Highly folded free surface
Micro-villi covering the free surface
Invagination of free surface
209
Simple diffusion may be defined as the
Movement of a solute from regions of higher solute concentration to areas of lower solute concentration
Free movement of solute in the direction of the concentration gradient
210
Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion both describe movement of solute particles down there concentration gradient. This is dictated by which of the following
The law of Thermodynamics, suggests all systems change in such a way that free energy is minimized
The fact that solute particles in concentrated solution have higher kinetic energy than those in a system of lower solution concentration
As systems are most stable when they have the least amount of energy, particles diffuse to reduce the overall energy of the system and promote stability
211
To move “in the direction” of the concentration gradient means that solute particles
Move from an area of high solute to an area of lower solute
212
Which of the following is/are true of the process of facilitated diffusion
May utilize carrier proteins for transport
May utilize channel proteins for transport
Moves substances down their concentration gradient
213
This form of movement across the bilayer allows particles to move against the concentration gradient
Active transport
214
In an isotonic condition, the is initially active particles of two solutions might be said to be
At equilibrium
Equally distributed throughout the 2 solutions
Of equal concentrations in the 2 solutions
215
most animal cells will tend to undergo lysis if they are placed in a
Very hypotonic solution
216
many ions do not pass through membranes easily, because
they are repelled by the hydrophilic heads of phospholipid molecules
217
which of the following might be considered revolutionary trans dealing with the law of diffusion
Development of a circulatory system
Development of tracheal tubes as in the insects
The branched digestive system of the planarian
The flattened body of platyhelminthes
218
This refers to the rupturing of the cell
Lysis
219
The Law of Diffusion states in part
The rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to the distance over which it has to take place
220
if a concentrated sucrose solution is placed in the Reservoir of a thistle tube, sealed in a semi permeable membrane, and placed in distilled water, the level of fluid in the thistle tube will
Rise as water enters the tube through osmosis
221
Glucose is too large to pass freely through the cell membranes, it must therefore cross by means of
Carrier/mediated diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
222
Which substance is least able to move through biological membranes by means of simple diffusion
Glucose
223
The fluid pressure inside the central vacuole of plant cells is termed, the
Turgor pressure
224
to increase the surface area of cuboidal and columnar epithelium these tissues often have ____ on their free surface
Lignin
225
Super coiling of the chromatin to form chromosomes prior to nuclear division, has what major advantage to the cell
Prevents entanglement of DNA
Reduces risk of loss from or damage to chromosomes during nuclear division
Protects the genetic code and maintains integrity of chromosome during nuclear division
226
The branch of biology that desks with heredity and variation among related organisms is called
Genetics
227
Which of the following is not true about the life and work of Gregor Mendel
He was a good friend of Charles Darwin and his discovers allowed Darwin to explain evolution
228
Which do the following are reasons that made the pea a good subject for Mendel’s studies
Ease of cultivation
Controllable pollination
Availability of a variety of different traits for study
Well-defined contrasting alternatives in traits
Availability of true breeding characteristics
229
The “discrete unit” that Mendel suggested in his Particulate Theory is the
Gene
230
A particulate form of a given gene, distinguishable from other forms of the same gene is an
Allele
231
according to Mendels law of segregation, which of the following is necessarily true
Alleles of a given gene separate from each other during gamete formation
232
What is the Law of Independent Assortment
The alleles separated in gamete formation combine randomly with the alleles of another gene
233
The characteristic expressed in the phenotype of the heterozygous is referred to as the ____ trait
Dominant
234
The phenotypic ratio in the F2 of a typical monohybrid cross of parental strains is
3:1
235
in the case of a mono hybrid cross involving incomplete dominance, we should observe a phenotypic ratio in the F2 of
1:2:1
236
One effective way to determine that an organism expressing a dominant trait, is indeed homozygous for that trait would be to
Conduct a test cross
Conduct an F2 cross by “selfing” the organism (only for organisms who self pollinate)
237
The probability of producing a homozygous dominant individual in the mating of two heterozygous would be
1/4
238
The physical manifestation of that which is contained within the genetic composition of an organism, is called its
Phenotype
239
In a typical dihybrid cross involving a dominant and recessive allele pair we expect an F2 phenotypic ratio of
9:3:3:1
240
In a cross involving parents of CyCy and CrCr genotype, the phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation would be
1:2:1
241
The production, by a single gene of two or more, apparently unrelated affects, for example, when phenylketonuria (PKU) can cause mental retardation and reduced hair and skin pigmentation, it is referred to as
Pleiotropy
242
Eye color in humans is regulated in part by the interaction of three genes. We would rightly refer to an eyecolor in humans as an an example of
Polygenetic character
243
Lignin is a polymer of various sugars and amino acids, deposited between cellulose molecules of the cell wall in the formation of…
Wood
Xylem tubes
Sclerenchymal tissue
(all but D)
244
The reason that lignified plant material can no longer carry out life functions
Lignin is impermeable
245
Osteoporosis, a disease common especially among post-menopausal women, results from an ineffective mechanism for the deposition of new calcium salts in bone. Andre the Giant suffered from a disease that affected the absorption of bone tissue called
Acromegaly
246
If the water of one solution has a tendency to leave that solution to enter a second, we say that the first solution is _____ to the second
Hypertonic
247
Organisms that reliably produce progeny that bear the same given trait as the parents are said to be
True breeding
248
Offspring of genetically different parents of the same species
Hybrids
249
The genotype of an organism is its
Exact description of genetic constitution
250
An organism described in the following way would be considered heterozygous for which gene(s)? AA/Bb/CyCr/dd:
B and C
251
In Drosophila melanogaster the gene for eye color cannot be expressed if the fly has no eyes, a second genetic trait. This, then, would be a good example of
Epistasis
252
each time the sodium-potassium pump cycles, ____ are moved across the plasma membrane:
three sodium ions (moved out) and two potassium ions (moved in)
