Exam Two scary COPY COPY Flashcards

1
Q

When is birth weight doubled?

A

4-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When is birth weight trippled?

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How long should babies be breast fed?

A

First two years of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why are babies supplemented with Vitamin D? How much?

A

Prevention of rickets, 400u

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Concern for cow’s milk in an infant?

A

GI bleeds, anemia, interfered with absorption of nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When to start introducing complementary foods?

A

No earlier than 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How much milk should a toddler consume per day?

A

16-24oz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Max amount of milk per day

A

32oz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How much juice per day?

A

4-6oz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many teeth do children loose? When do they start loosing them.

A

32 teeth
beginning at age 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What percentage (BMI) is considered low?

A

<5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Percentile of BMI to be considered obese:

A

85th -95th percentile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How much daily activity is needed per day?

A

30-60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain why folic acid is needed for pregnant women:

A

Decreases risk of spina bifida in infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Steatorrhea, chronic diarrhea, growth impairment and abdominal distention are clinical manifestations of:

A

Celiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How would you explain celiac disease to a parent?

A

Intolerance for gluten; which is a protein found in wheat, rye and oat products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A child was recently diagnosed with Celiac disease. Their parent questions how long to cut out gluten from their child’s diet?

A

forever and ever and ever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A parent bring’s in their 12mo child who has began refusing food, sleeping erratically, becoming irritable. When you weigh the child, it appears the child has lost 4kg putting them in <5th percentile on the BMI scale. What is you suspicion?

A

Avoidant/Restrictive food intake disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are physical symptoms that accompany the diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa?

A

Cold intolerance, abd discomfort, bloating, irregular menses, malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Treatment planning for Anorexia would include:

A

Fix malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When increasing calories for sports nutrition what macronutrient would you not increase?

A

Fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A mother comes in wondering why her child cannot stop crying. After labs and an assessment it reveals that there is:
Multiple bruises in stages of healing
Scald burns in stages of healing
Rope marks

The nurse’s first priority for this patient is… because…

A

Safety!!! ABUSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The condition in which a parent involves fabrication of symptoms of an illness of their child:

A

Factitious Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the most common source of lead exposure for preschool children?

A

PAINT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Ligaments

A

Bone to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Tendons

A

Bone to muscles
Stronger than bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which cast is used for congential club foot?

How long is it used for?

A

Ponseti Cast

3-4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are 3 teachings that you as a nurse will teach a parent about cast care?

A

Assess circulation
Cast care (dry/ raise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are causes of developmental dysplasia?

A

IU position
breech
maternal estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the treatment for dysplasia? Education:

A

Pavlik harness

T-shirt under harness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T or F

The pavlik harness allows hip flexion and abduction.

A

True

NOE EXTENSION OR ADDUCTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the stages of Legg-Calve Perthes?

A

1) avascular, asymptomatic
2) pain, limited ROM (deformity and fx)
3) reossification
4) necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

After an XRAY reveals the femoral head displaced from the femoral neck. The nurse suspects which condition:

A

SCFE
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What would a patient suffering from SCFE complain of?

A

pain in hip
limited ROM
inflamed edematous synovial membrain
callous formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the categories and the degrees of scoliosis? Include their treatment

A

Mild 10-20 -> PT
Moderate 20-40 ->brace
Severe 40-50 -> spinal fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Uneven shoulders, prominent scapula, truncal asymmetry and one sided rib hump are manifestations of:

A

Scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why is a PICC line needed for osteomyelitis?

A

IV antibiotics
–> given 3-6w

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A 4 month-old patient comes in to the ER with the 3rd fracture this month. Upon assessment, the nurse notices blue sclerae, which can be a manifestation of:

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What should a child with osteogenesis diet consist of?

A

High vitamin C, D, and calcium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most important assessment when caring for fractures?

A

Circulatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Purpose of traction

A

Immobilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Craving for ice (PICA) can be associated with which deficiency?

A

Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Ferrous sulfate is an indicated prescription when hgb/hct are which values?

A

HGB < 11.3g/dl
HCT <34%

44
Q

A father calls nurse on call about their child’s stool being black. The parent states the child is taking iron supplements. The nurse would say:

A

This is a normal finding of that medication.

45
Q

What are prevention techniques for sports injuries?

A

Warm up/cool down
Correct techniques
Gradual increase in time and intensity

46
Q

What organ is the first to clump resulting from a sickle cell crisis?

A

Spleen

47
Q

What three factors can prevent blood from further sickling?

A

Oxygenation, transfusion and hydration

48
Q

T or F

A child with sickle cell receives the gene from one parent

A

False bitch HAHAHAHAH

49
Q

How long will a child with sickle cell be on Penicillin?

A

Until age 5

50
Q

What is Deferoxamine used for?

A

Iron overload

51
Q

What benefit does Hydroxyurea have for Sickle Cell patients?

A

Decreases production of abnormal cells.

52
Q

Deficiency of factor
(a) VIII
(b) IX
(c) XI
(d) vWF

A

HEMOPHILIA
a is a
b is b
c is c
d is Von willebrand

53
Q

A nurse would question which order for a patient with sickle cell?

Hydroxyurea
Oxygen
Aspirin
Transfusion
Replacement factors

A

Aspirin

54
Q

What is the SA node?

A

Pacemaker of the heart

55
Q

After insertion of a PICC line, their cardiac monitor shows a arrhythmia. What happened

A

Well remember… You cannot tell NSR from a cardiac monitor

IF EKG SHOWS ARRHYTHMIA Cath touching SA node

56
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

Blood ejected from LV each minute

57
Q

What is the difference between S1 and S2

A

S1 tricuspid and mitral

S2 aortic and pulmonic

58
Q

Where do you assess heart rate for pediatric?

A

Apex

59
Q

What is the best placement for a blood pressure?

A

Right arm – she said this like 20 times so remember this one

60
Q

What are (4) abnormal neurological assessment findings in infants?

A

Disinterest in feeds
Weak suck
Irritability
Weak cry

61
Q

What two infant heart factors double at birth?

A

Metabolic rate and oxygen consumption

62
Q

When does the ductus arteriorsis close after birth?

A

10hr-21 days

63
Q

What are (3) interventions post operative cardiac cath?

A

Direct pressure 15 minutes after cath removal
Supine positioning
Dressing assessment

64
Q

CHF infant (3)

A

Tire easily and diaphoresis (with feeds)
Mottling
Weight loss/lack of wt gain

65
Q

CHF toddler/children (3)

A

Activity intolerance
Dyspnea
Peripheral edema

66
Q

CHF older children (3)

A

Edema
Thready pulse
Failure to thrive

67
Q

Pharmacology for CHF
(3)
With reasoning

A

Diuretics for fluid excretion
ACE-I decrease BP/work of heart
Digoxin which slows HR to increase cardiac filling time and contractility

68
Q

Atrial Septal Defect closure takes:

A

4 years

69
Q

Manifestations of Ventricular Septal Defect

A

CHF, pulm infection, failure to thrive

70
Q

Assessment of chest tube (3)

A

Crepitus – bubbling under skin
Vaseline gauze
2 hemostats

71
Q

What does patent ductus arteriosus sound like?

A

LOUD

72
Q

Medication for PDA in premature infants?

A

IV ibuprofen/indomethacin

73
Q

Manifestations of Coarctation of the Aorta

A

Cardiomegaly
Low BP in legs high in arms – pulse bounding upper, weak lower

74
Q

Manifestations of decreased pulmonary blood flow (3)

A

Polycythemia
Risk thromboembolism
No response to oxygen

75
Q

Pulmonary stenosis clinical therapy

A

Dilation by balloon valvuloplasty
Lifelong infective endocarditis prophylaxis

76
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot (4)

A

Pulmonary stenosis
Right V hypertrophy
Overrriding aorta
VSD

77
Q

What to do when tet spell epidose?

A

KNEE TO CHEST GO CRAZYYYYYYY SQUAT FOR YOUNGER KID
THEN
o2, mophine, BB, PRBC

78
Q

How to treat infective endocarditis:

A

antibiotics 4-8 weeks

79
Q

Two clinical manifestations of rheumatic fever:

A

postive strep A test
elevated antistep-O titer

80
Q

Aimless movement and facial grimacing is considered what of rheumatic fever

A

Sydenham chorea

81
Q

What med to avoid with RHY?

A

Aspirin –> encephalopathy

82
Q

Acute febrile systemic vascular inflammatory illness:

A

Kawasaki

83
Q

Kawasaki Sx (4)

A

Fever >5 days
Conjunctival hyperemia
Dry, red lips
Maculopapular rash

84
Q

What med reduces risk of coronary artery aneurysm in Kawasaki?

A

Immune Globulin

85
Q

SVT treatment

A

Vagal maneuvers or
( ice to face )
Cardioversion
Adenosine
Ablation

86
Q

Infection Conjunctivitis causes

A

Ophthalmia neonatrium from mom at birth

–> prevented with erythromycin

87
Q

Bacterial Conjunctivitis symptoms

A

edema of eyelid, red, big lymph glands, purulent drainage

88
Q

Viral conjuctivitis

A

Herpes

–> IV acyclovir

89
Q

Treating conjunctivits

A

CONTAGIOUS
Antibiotics for 24hr

90
Q

Hyperopia

A

far sighted,

91
Q

myopia

A

near sighted

92
Q

Amblyopia

A

reduced vision of the eye

93
Q

Strabimus

A

lazy eye

94
Q

Clouding of lens

A

Cataracts

95
Q

Retinopathy of prematurity causes/treatment

A

Oxygen therapy!!!

Respiratory distress
Assisted ventilation

TREAT WITH LASER

96
Q

Otitis Media

A

EAR INFECTION

Pain during sleep

97
Q

Hearing impairment infant

A

no startle reflex

98
Q

Toddler hearing impairment

A

unintelligible speech

99
Q

School age hearing impairment

A

repeat instruction, inappropriate answers

100
Q

Epistaxis treatment

A

Upright with head forward
Squeeze nares below nasal bone

101
Q

Nasopharyngitis

A

URI –> virus/bacteria

s/sx viral sx

102
Q

T or F

Antibiotic for viral NasoPharngitis

A

F

only for bacteria bitch

103
Q

Pharyngitis sx/tx

A

HA, strep, abrupt onset, red pharynx, painful swallowing

treat acetaminophen, soft food, cold food, ice chip

104
Q

Tonsilitis sx

A

frequent throat infections, persistent redness
greater than 38.3c fever

105
Q

When is tonsillectomy recommended?

A

7 in 1 year
5 in 2
3 is 3

106
Q

Dental emergency you take the child to the hospital via car

A

EMS you stupid

107
Q
A