Exam unit 313 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the soft palate and its function?
A
A flap of soft tissue attached to the back of the hard palate. It seals off the oral cavity from the nasal cavity during swallowing.
2
Q
What is the cementum?
A
A thin calcified covering of the root dentine only
3
Q
What are the 2 main disorders of the tongue?
A
Glossitis (soreness and inflammation of the tongue)
Dysphagia (difficulty in swallowing)
4
Q
What is enamel?
A
A highly calcified tissue covering the whole crown of the tooth - the hardest substance in the body
5
Q
What is dentine?
A
A less calcified tissue than enamel, which forms the inner bulk of the crown and root.
6
Q
What are the cells called that form enamel and where do they lie?
A
Ameloblast Cells - these lie at the ADJ
7
Q
What is the pulp?
A
The inner neurovascular tissue of the tooth, within the central pulp chamber
8
Q
How many roots in deciduous upper molars?
A
3
9
Q
How many teeth are there in a deciduous set?
A
20
10
Q
How many roots in upper and lower deciduous incisors and canines?
A
1
11
Q
What is the ADJ?
A
Amelodentinal junction - the junction/boundary between the enamel and dentine layers
12
Q
What are the cells called that form dentine?
A
Odontoblast cells
13
Q
What are the main functions of the tongue?
A
Speech
Taste
Aids mastication/swallowing
Cleansing
14
Q
How does the deciduous/primary dentition differ from the secondary set?
A
The primary dentition only has 2 molars as opposed to 3 and no pre-molars present
15
Q
How many roots in deciduous lower molars?
A
2
16
Q
Number of roots on all upper permanent molars?
A
3
17
Q
Number of roots on upper and lower permanent incisors, canines and premolars?
A
One, except the upper first premolar which has 2 roots.
18
Q
How many teeth in a permanent set?
A
32
19
Q
What age do deciduous teeth begin erupting?
A
6 months
20
Q
What are the 3 main salivary glands?
A
Parotid
Submandibular
Sublingual
21
Q
What is the periodontal ligament?
A
Connective tissue attachment between the tooth and the alveolar bone
22
Q
Which salivary gland is affected by the viral infection mumps?
A
Parotid
23
Q
Number of roots on all lower permanent molars?
A
2
24
Q
Causes of xerostomia?
A
Irradiation - usually radiotherapy
Medications - diuretics
25
What age do permanent teeth begin erupting?
6 years
26
What is the alveolar bone?
Specialised ridge of bone over the bony arch of each jaw, where the teeth sit in their sockets.
27
What is the alveolar process?
The horseshoe shaped ridge of bone of the mandible and maxilla.
28
Main methods of carrying out oral health assessments?
```
Vitality Tests
Study Models
Photographs
Transillumination
Radiographs
```
29
How to test a tooths sensitivity to cold?
Ethyl Chloride
30
How to test a tooths sensitivity to heat?
Gutta Percha
31
What is an electric pulp tester used for?
To determine the degree of vitality of a tooth.
Normal result - healthy pulp
Increased response - early pulpitis present
Reduced response - pulp is dying
No response - pulp tissue is dead
32
What is a briault probe used for?
To detect interproximal caries either mesially or distally
33
The vertical overlap of the upper incisors over the lowers in occlusion is called?
Overbite
34
The horizontal overlap of the upper incisors over the lowers in occlusion is called?
Overjet
35
What is the ideal overjet of teeth in occlusion?
2-4mm
36
What is the ideal overbite of teeth in occlusion?
50%
37
What is malocclusion?
When normal occlusion isn't present, this could be due to overcrowding, protruding upper incisors, prominent lower jaw.
38
What is a class II division I malocclussion?
Overjet of upper incisors is greater than 4mm. The upper teeth are too far forward relative to the lowers-the mandible is too far behind its normal position.
39
What is a class II division II malocclusion?
Overbite over the upper incisors is greater than 50%.
40
What is a class III malocclusion?
The mandible and lower teeth are too far forward relative to the maxilla and upper teeth.
41
What is a supernumerary tooth?
An extra tooth in addition to the 32 permanent teeth
42
How will dental caries show up on an x-ray?
A dark area extending inwards from the enamel surface.
43
What is used for a vitality test?
Cold- ethyl chloride
Hot- GP points
Electric test can also be used but is uncommon as it is expensive
44
How many days do you need to acknowledge a complaint and how many days until you have to respond?
2 days to acknowledge
10 days to respond
45
How many roots do 7's have?
3
46
What are the salivary glands called?
Sublingual gland - under tongue
Submandibular gland - back of mandible
Paratid gland - by the ear near the ramus (TMJ)
47
How long do you need to keep patient records for?
11 years
48
What are the muscles used for mastication?
Temporalis- closes the jaw and pulls it backwards
Masseter- closes the jaw
Tperyjoid- closes the jaw
Lateral tperyjoid- moves side to side
49
What information needs to be given for a patient to consent?
Sufficient
50
Where is the complaints procedure found?
In the patient/practice leaflet
51
Name the upper nerves
Superior dental nerve
Anterior - 1,2,3
Middle - 4,5 (buccal)
Posterior - 4,5,6,7,8
Maso - 1,2,3
Greater - 4,5,6,7,8 (palatal)
52
How is the mouth affected by old age?
Teeth become darker
Gums recede
Soft tissues become thinner and more elastic
53
What causes erosion?
Acid
| Can be from fizzy drinks or from conditions such as anemia which increase throwing up.
54
What is glossitis?
The inflammation of the tongue
55
What probes would you use in a dental exam?
BPE
WHO
Brialt (for interproximal caries)
56
What is the technical term for dry mouth?
Xerostomia
57
Name the 3 lower nerves and what they numb
Inferior dental nerve - IV block, blocks sensation to all lower teeth
Long buccal nerve - buccal side of lower teeth
Lingual nerve - lingual side of lower teeth and half of tongue
58
What is Atrision?
The wearing down of teeth from clenching or grinding
59
What condition can be caused by pregnancy?
Gingivitis
60
What does an antibiotic do and what would the dentist prescribe if the patient is allergic to penicillin?
It kills bacteria
Erythromycin
61
What may cause abrasion of the teeth?
Brushing too hard
62
What should you do if someone is having an angina attack?
Put GTN spray under their tongue
63
What is the first thing you should do if a patient faints?
Lie them down and elevate their feet
Check for breathing
64
What does oral cancer look like?
A lump with a hard rolled edge
65
How can you tell if someone is having an asthma attack and what should you give them?
They will wheeze
Give them a salbutamol inhaler
66
Why would the dentist use a sedative?
To calm the patient down or make them feel drowsy
67
What is the pulse rate for someone having a cardio arrest?
None (their heart has stopped)
68
What temperature should the water be when mixing alginate?
Room temperature
69
Which legislation gives patients the right to see their records
Access to health records act
70
What is the ratio for CPR
30:2
71
What does carsonoma look like in the mouth
This is the same as cancer..
A lump with a hard rolled edge
72
What type of probe is used for interproximal caries ?
Brialt probe
73
What term is used to describe tooth loss caused by the grinding of teeth?
Attrition
74
using FDI notation what is the lower left first deciduous molar known as in the palmer charting system?
74
75
What is the correct term used to describe the horizontal distance between the upper and lower incisors ?
Overjet
76
```
What is used during ortho treatment with a removable appliance?
A. Bracket
B. Crib
C. Molar band
D. Tube
```
B. Crib
77
What feature is present with Angle's class 1 ?
Overjet 2-3mm, overbite 50%
78
What is a class 3 malocclusion ?
Reverse overjet
79
what disease of the soft tissue is associated with infection by bacteria ?
Periodontitis
80
What is the dental specialism of elderly patients called?
Gerodontics
81
What is most likely to be present with a class 2 division 1 malocclusion?
Proclined upper incisors
82
What are the most likely teeth to be crowded?
Canines
83
What soft tissue disease is most likely to occur after taking a long course of broad-spectrum antibiotics?
Oral candidiasis
84
What type of tissue is affected by osteoporosis
Bone
85
```
Which on of the following diseases of the mucosa is not classed as an inflammatory condition?
A. Angular cheilitis
B. Erythroplakia
C. Glossitis
D. Stomatitis
```
B. Erythroplakia
86
AVPU is used for medical emergencies, what does the A stand for ?
Alert
87
```
During an oral health assessment, the dentist will inspect various tissues of the head and neck of a patient. Which one of the following options is the tissue where squamous cell carcinoma is most likely to be seen?
A. Deciduous teeth
B. Floor of the mouth
C. Gingiva
D. Lymph nodes
```
Floor of the mouth
88
```
During an oral health assessment, a patient is diagnosed with chronic gingivitis. Which one of the following is most likely to have been found when this condition is present?
A. Furcation lesions
B. Gingival hyperplasia
C. Subgingival calculus
D. True pockets
```
Gingival hyperplasia
89
```
During an oral health assessment, a periodontal code 1 is recorded in the upper anterior sextant. Which one of the following findings does this code indicate to be present?
A. Bleeding on probing
B. Furcation involvement
C. Plaque retention factor
D. Tooth mobility
```
Bleeding on probing
90
```
Orthodontic appliances may be removable, functional or fixed in type. Which one of the following tooth movements usually requires a fixed appliance to achieve it?
A. Correction of crossbite
B. Derotation
C. Distal movement along the arch
D. Reduction of overbite
```
Derotation
91
```
A 15-year-old patient is assessed as requiring orthodontic treatment for severe crowding in both arches. Which one of the following radiograph views is most likely to be required before treatment begins?
A. Dental pantomograph
B. Lateral oblique
C. Periapical
D. Vertical bitewing
```
Dental pantomograph
92
```
Which oral health product should be recommended to a patient who has had a fixed orthodontic appliance fitted to assist with cleaning beneath the archwire?
A. Floss
B. Interdental brush
C. Mouthwash
D. Toothbrush
```
Interdental brush
93
```
Which one of the following options indicates the type of orthodontic device that specifically uses the oral musculature to allow controlled movement of the mandible?
A. Fixed appliance
B. Fixed retainer
C. Functional appliance
D. Removable appliance
```
Functional appliance
94
```
When setting up the surgery for an orthodontic fixed appliance fit appointment, which one of the following items must the dental nurse set out to assist in the completion of the procedure?
A. Adams pliers
B. Bracket holders
C. Measuring ruler
D. Straight handpiece
```
Bracket holders
95
```
When a patient has been accepted for orthodontic treatment at the dental workplace, which one of the following options must be discussed with ALL patients when preoperative advice is to be given?
A. Need for extractions
B. Need for fixed appliances
C. Need for impressions
D. Need for surgery
```
Need for impressions
96
```
Which one of the following is an effect that often occurs in older patients due to age-related changes to their teeth?
A. Decreased tooth sensitivity
B. Occlusal caries
C. Root curvature
D. Whitened teeth
```
Decreased tooth sensitivity
97
```
Which one of the following diseases of the oral mucosa is described as the presence of several small, shallow, painful ulcers that heal to leave no scarring?
A. Herpetiform ulceration
B. Major aphthous ulceration
C. Minor aphthous ulceration
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
```
Minor aphthous ulceration
98
```
Various medical conditions may affect the oral tissues detrimentally. Which one of the following effects is often seen in patients who are diagnosed with type 2 diabetes?
A. Aphthous ulcers
B. Enamel erosion
C. Poor wound healing
D. Stomatitis
```
Poor wound healing
99
```
A patient presenting with an inflamed tongue that appears smooth and red may be deficient in which one of the following?
A. Fluoride
B. Gluten
C. Iron
D. Vitamin C
```
Iron
100
```
Which one of the following diseases of the oral mucosa is described as an immovable white patch that has no obvious cause?
A. Leukoplakia
B. Major aphthous ulceration
C. Oral candidiasis
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
```
Leukoplakia
101
Which one of the following groups of signs would indicate that a casualty is suffering an asthma attack?
A. Breathless, cyanosis, wheezing on expiration
B. Coughing or wheezing, cyanosis
C. Facial swelling, rash, gasping
D. Trembling, drowsy, slurred speech
Breathless, cyanosis, wheezing on expiration
102
How long should children's records be kept for?
Till 25 years of age
103
What does a BPE score of 0 mean?
Healthy tissues, no bleeding after probing
104
What does a BPE score of 1 mean?
Bleeding after probing, pocket depth up to 3.5mm, no calculus or defective margins
105
What does a BPE score of 2 mean?
Probing depth up to 3.5mm, calculus or other plaque retention detected
106
What does a BPE score of 3 mean?
Black band partially visible in deepest pocket, pocket up to 5mm deep.
107
What does a BPE score of 4 mean?
Black band not visible in deepest pocket, 5.5mm deep.
108
What does * mean on a BPE score?
Furcation involvement
109
What does the temporalis do?
Pulls the mandible backwards and closed
110
What does the masseter do?
Closes the mandible
111
What does the medial pterygoid do?
Closes the mandible
112
During an oral health assessment, the dentist will inspect various tissues of the head and neck of a patient. Which
one of the following options is the tissue where squamous cell carcinoma is most likely to be seen?
Floor of mouth
113
During an oral health assessment, the dentist may detect the presence of a periodontal pocket, Which of the
following assessment methods can be used to indicate the presence of a pocket?
Use of a BPE probe
114
```
Which of the following cannot be diagnosed by the use of dental radiographs?
Congenital tooth absence
Dental abscess
Jaw fracture
Tooth vitality
```
Tooth vitality
115
Various materials are used by the dental team during an oral health assessment. Which one of the following
materials is used to take impressions for study models?
Calcium and alignate salts with water
116
Vitality testing is often carried out by the dentist to diagnose the source of dental pain. What is the main disadvantage to the patient during the testing?
All tests involve a painful stimulus
117
Before patients undergo a course of dental treatment, they must be given certain information so that they can give
valid consent. What is NOT necessary for consent to be valid?
Agreed in writing
118
What is the correct term used to describe the horizontal distance between the upper and lower incisors, which is
usually measured during an orthodontic assessment?
Anterior open bite
119
Which one of the following diseases of the oral mucosa is described as the presence of several small, shallow, painful
ulcers that heal to leave no scarring?
Herpetiform ulceration
120
Many dental workplaces have an automatic external defibrillator (AED) on the premises for use in certain medical
emergency situations. Which one of the following is an event for which the AED can be used?
Ventricular fibrillation
121
Which signs would indicate that a casualty has suffered a cardiac arrest?
Grey pallor, no pulse, no chest movement
122
Which medical emergency drug must be administered by intramuscular injection rather than orally?
Hydrocortisone
123
What is the first sign of respiratory arrest?
Wheezing
124
Who should be notified if there is a chemical spillage?
Health and safety executive
125
Which nerve supplies sensation to all lower teeth?
Inferior dental nerve
126
Where are the parotid glands situated in the mouth?
Partly over and in front of the coronoid process
127
Informed consent must be?
Adequate
128
What is the pulse rate of a patient following cardiac arrest?
None
129
```
Which of the following is NOT an oral disease?
Oropharyngeal
Herpes Simplex
Major Aphthous Ulcer
Stomatitis
```
Oropharyngeal
130
Which structure are the gingival fibers attached to?
Cementum
131
Radiographs are used as part of which treatment?
Extraction
132
Tooth mobility grade 2 is:
Side to side movement more than 2mm
133
What would cause swollen ulcerative gingivae?
Acute Necrotising Ulcerative Gingivitis
134
The sigmoid notch lies between what structures?
Head of condyle and the coronoid process
135
How many years should records regarding the storage of drugs be retained?
11 years
136
What does ANUG stand for?
Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis
137
Which medication is used for the treatment of ANUG?
Metronidazole
138
Which medical condition can affect periodontal tissue?
Diabetes
139
Who would you contact if you had a complaint as an NHS patient?
Local primary care trust
140
What is the name of the triangular piece of tissue between adjacent teeth?
Interdental Papilla
141
Using the FDI notation, which tooth is 47?
Lower right 2nd molar
142
Using the FDI notation, which tooth is 53?
Upper right deciduous canine
143
What is the instrument used to measure pocket depth?
WHO probe
144
Action to take with Myocardial infarction?
Give aspirin, call 999
145
What is an extra oral assessment carried out to identify?
Swellings or abnormalities
146
What is an anterior occlusal radiograph commonly used to assess?
Unerupted teeth
147
Which muscle positioned on the outer surface of the zygomatic arch closes the mouth?
Masseter
148
Which one of the following describes the role of the meniscus fibrous tissue found between the temporal bone and condyle?
It prevents bones from rubbing against each other
149
A patient has a white patch on the inside of their cheek that can be wiped off. Which condition are they likely to be diagnosed with?
Oral candidiasis
150
What preventative advice should be given to a patient who has red and white patches within the oral mucosa?
Stop smoking and reduce alcohol intake
151
A patient informs others of an unusual taste in their mouth, collapses and loses consciousness. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this?
Epileptic seizure
