Exam2 Flashcards
(132 cards)
1
Q
Which is considered a passive process: Hyperemia or Congestion?
A
Congestion
2
Q
What is the most common result of congestive heart failure?
A
Chronic Passive Liver Congestion
3
Q
What is another term for fibrosis of the liver?
A
Cirrhosis
4
Q
What two pressures maintain fluid balance?
A
Osmotic pulling water in and Hydrostatic pushing water out.
5
Q
Where in the circulatory system does hydrostatic pressure occur? Osmotic pressure?
A
Hydrostatic in arterials before capillary bed, Osmotic in venules after a capillary bed.
6
Q
What is peau d’orange associated with?
A
A lymphatic obstruction leading to edema and dimpling around sweat glands (orange peel appearance)
7
Q
Where is edema likely to collect if standing? Or laying?
A
Standing=legs
Laying=sacrum
8
Q
Transudate is associated with which type of edema?
A
Pitting
9
Q
Is exudate protein-rich or protein-poor edema?
A
Protein-rich
10
Q
What three pigment proteins are associated with ecchymosis?
A
Hemoglobin, bilirubin, hemosiderin
11
Q
T/F: Eccymosis usually occurs with trauma?
A
False usually non-traumatic
12
Q
What is a thrombosis?
A
clot formation within a vessel
13
Q
Three factors of Virchow’s Triangle?
A
Endothelial injury, Hypercoagulability, Abnormal blood flow
14
Q
Mutations in these two factors can lead to hypercoagulability?
A
Factor V (five) and Prothrombin
15
Q
How does a thrombosis grow in the arteries? Veins?
A
Arteries: grows against the flow
Veins: grow in direction of flow
(think that they both want to head back to heart)
16
Q
What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?
A
Highly traumatic, crushing injury..almost always lethal
17
Q
What are the two outcomes of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation?
A
- Tiny clots form everywhere and die
2. Use up all clotting ability and bleed to death
18
Q
T/F: When a blood clot detaches and travels it is called a thromboembolism?
A
True
19
Q
What is the most common cause of infarction?
A
An arterial emboli
20
Q
What is cardiogenic shock?
A
Shock resulting from a pump failure, most likely caused by MI
21
Q
Burn victims have to cautious of which type of shock: cardiogenic, septal, hypovolemic, or neurogenic?
A
Hypovolemic b/c loss of blood/plasma
22
Q
What is septal shock?
A
An infection leading to a systemic immune rxn-> vasodilation
23
Q
T/F: Anaphylactic shock is caused by severe vasoconstriction and bronchoconstriction?
A
False, severe vasoDILATION and bronchoconstriction
24
Q
What are the three stages of shock?
A
Nonprogressive, Progressive, Irreversible
25
What are the three causes of hypersensitivity reactions?
Autoimmunity, Microbial, Environmental
26
T/F: The hygiene hypothesis states that a lack of exposure in a childs youth can lead to an increase in allergies later in life.
True
27
Type 1 Hypersensitivity results from what?
Allergy rxn from harmless environmental antigen
28
Which Ab(s) is/are associated with Type 1 hypersensitivity?
IgE
29
T/F: Type 2 Hypersensitivity involves mast cell degranulation releasing histamine?
False: Mast cells involved in Type 1
30
Which type of hypersensitivity is considered "cytotoxic"?
Type 2
31
Which Ab(s) is/are associated with Type 2 hypersensitivity?
IgG and IgM
32
Opsonization is associated with which type of hypersensitivity?
Type 2
33
T/F: Type 3 Hypersensitivity can be associated with "immune complex" and IgG formation.
True
34
Where is the immune complex from Type 3 Hypersensitivity most likely to get stuck?
Vessel Walls
35
What mediated Type 4 Hypersensitivity?
T-Cells and NO ANTIBODIES
36
What are the two subsets of Type 4 Hypersensitivity?
Cytokine-Mediated with T-helper cells (CD4+)
| Direct Cytotoxicity with T-killer cells (CD8+)
37
Granuloma formation is associated with which type of Hypersensitivity?
Type 4: Direct Cytotoxicity
38
What population is most likely to have an autoimmune disorder?
Females of childbearing age
39
What is the full name of 'lupus'?
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
40
T/F: A malar rash is associated with Sjogren Syndrome.
False: malar rash=SLE (lupus)
41
What population is most likely to have Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
African American females of childbearing age
42
What is Jaccoud's Arthropathy?
Ligaments around joints are damaged, joint subluxations reduced upon pressure. (Associated with SLE)
43
What symptoms are highly indicative of Sjorgen Syndrome?
Dry mouth, dry eyes, and salivary gland enlargement
44
What is the cause of Sjorgen Syndrome?
Exocrine gland destruction and enlargement due to Type 4 (T-helper) hypersensitivity
45
T/F: The two glands most likely affected by Sjorgen Syndrome are the salivary and ciliary glands.
False: Salivary and Lacrimal Glands affected
46
What population is most likely affected by Sjorgen Syndrome?
Middle Aged (35-45 y.o) Females
47
What cancer has a 40x increased risk with Sjorgen Syndrome patients?
B Cell Lymphoma
48
T/F: Scleroderma is another term for systemic sclerosis
True
49
What is systemic sclerosis?
Extensive fibrosis in multiple tissues and destroyed vasculature (particularly arteries)?
50
What is Raynaud phenomenon?
Extreme discoloration of the hands/peripheral tissue associated with systemic sclerosis
51
CREST Syndrome associated with Limited Systemic Sclerosis
```
C-Calcinosis
R-Raynaud phenomenon
E- Esophageal dysmotility
S- Sclerodactyly
T-Telangiectasia (spider veins)
```
52
What is sclerodactyly?
Hard, eroded skin associated with scleroderma
53
Who is most likely to have scleroderma?
40-60 y.o. females
54
What is X-Linked Agammaglobulinemia?
Failure of B cell maturation leading to lack of Ab in the blood
55
When is the typical onset for X-linked Agammaglobulinemia?
6 month old males
56
What's another name for X Linked Agammaglobulinemia?
Bruton Disease
57
T/F: Common variable immunodeficiency is sex-linked?
False occurs in both sexes
58
What is the most common of the primary immune deficiency disorders?
Isolated IgA deficiency
59
What is Isolated IgA Deficiency?
IgA deficiency particularly of the mucosa resulting in increased # infections otherwise asymptomatic
60
What is Hyper-IgM Syndrome?
Body makes too much IgM, too little IgA, IgG, IgE --> infections from pyogenic bacteria
61
What is the immune deficiency disorder that has no B or T Cells produced?
Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency (SCID) "bubble boy"
62
What are the two types of secondary or acquired immune deficiency disorders?
Suppression of Marrow and Lymphocyte Dysfunction
63
What is the common cause of lymphocyte dysfunction?
Acquired Immundodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
64
Four fluids HIV can be transmitted in?
Blood, semen, breast milk, vaginal fluid
65
What cells are destroyed in an HIV infections?
CD4+ (T helper) and Macrophages
66
What is the most common cause of AIDS in the world?
Male-Female unprotected sex
67
What is the most common cause of AIDS in the US?
Male-Male unprotected sex
68
What two tests are used for diagnosis of HIV?
Western Blot and ELISA test
69
T/F: Acute, Chronic, and Crisis are the three stages of AIDS?
True
70
T/F: All cases of AIDS have the Acute phase?
False: initial infections may not present in all cases
71
What stage of AIDS is asymptomatic?
Chronic
72
What is the organism responsible for fungal infection of the lungs characteristic in AIDS patients?
Pneumocystis jirovecii (NBCE Q)
73
80% of all AIDS patients die as a result of?
Opportunistic infections
74
What are the two oncogenic viruses?
EBV and HPV
75
The use of congo red dye and apple-green birefringence is characteristic of what disease?
Amyloidosis
76
What is amyloidosis?
Failed phagocytosis leading to the accumulation of fibrillar (nonbranching) proteins
77
What three proteins are associated with amyloidosis?
Amyloid Light (AL), Amyloid Associated (AA), Beta-Amyloid (AB)
78
What are the three types of amyloidosis?
Systemic, Localized, Hereditary
79
Primary Systemic Amyloidosis involves which proteins? Secondary Systemic?
Primary=AL
| Secondary=AA
80
T/F: Hereditary Amyloidosis involves AL proteins?
False: Hereditary amyloidosis=AA proteins
81
Senile Cardiac Amyloidosis is a category of which disease?
Systemic Amyloidosis associated with aging
82
Which common disease is due to buildup of AB proteins in the brain?
Alzheimer Dz
83
T/F: Cancer is the number one cause of death in the US
False: Cancer is 2nd, Heart Disease is 1st
84
What are the top three cancers by incidence?
Prostate/Breast (sex respective), Lung and Bronchus, Colon and Rectum
85
Which cancer has the most deaths?
Lung and Bronchus
86
T/F: All neoplastic cells are clonal
True (1 altered cell that affects all copies made in future)
87
What's the diff between parenchyma and stroma?
Parenchyma are the altered cells (cancerous cells) and stroma is what supports these altered cells (vessels supplying cancerous cells)
88
What is an adenoma?
Benign neoplasm formed by OR producing glandular tissue
89
What is a papilloma?
Benign epithelial neoplasm (finger-like projection)
90
T/F: Stroma determines the aggressiveness of a cancer?
False: Stroma is needed but it's the parenchyma that determines aggressiveness
91
What are the tumor types derived from: sarcoma? Carcinoma? Teratoma?
Sarcoma-mesoderm (CT)
Carcinoma-ectoderm and endoderm (epithelia)
Teratoma-multiple germ layers
92
What is the most common benign tumor of the female breast called?
fibroadenoma
93
What are the three steps of carcinoma progression?
1. Dysplasia (irregular but non cancerous)
2. Carcinoma in situ (cancerous but hasn't penetrated basement membrane to metastasize yet)
3. Invasive Carcinoma (cancer and possible mets due to penetrated basement membrane)
94
Four ways of distinguishing benign from malignant?
Differentiation and anaplasia, rate of growth, local invasion, metastasis
95
What is the most reliable marker for being malignant?
Metastasis
96
What is anaplasia?
Loss of differentiation-> decr function
97
Which is more likely to be encapsulated: benign or malignant?
Benign
98
What are the three ways tumors metastasize?
1. Spread w/in body cavities
2. Lymphatic Spread
3. Hematogenous Spread
99
T/F: Carcinomas more likely to spread via lymph
True
100
What is the sentinel lymph node?
First node cancer has spread to
101
Sarcomas prefer which means of dissemination?
Hematogenous Spread
102
What is the ultimate cause of cancer?
Genetic alterations
103
T/F: ROS exposure and decreased immune function are two ways mutations accumulate
True
104
What are the 3 categories of hereditary cancer?
1-Autosomal Dominant
2-Autosomal Recessive
3-Familial
105
Xeroderma pigmentosa is associated with which type of hereditary cancer?
Autosomal Recessive
106
What are pre-cancer lesions?
Lesions that incr cancer risk but MC doesn't develop into cancer
107
T/F: Acquired and Environmental are the two types of carcinogenesis
False: Acquired (environmental) and Inherited (genetic)
108
What is an oncogene?
An over-expressed proto-oncogene resulting in a "gain of function"
109
Balanced translocations on a chromosome can result in ?
Over expression of proto-oncogenes
110
Deletions from a chromosome usually result in?
Deactivation of Tumor Suppressor Genes
111
T/F: Micro RNA's usually amplify gene expression
False: MicroRNA's inhibit gene expression
112
What are the two methods of silencing genes?
```
DNA Methylation (on/off switch)
Histone modification (volume adjustor)
```
113
T/F: A 'stepwise accumulation' of genetic alterations will cause cancer.
True
114
What are the six hallmarks of cancer?
1. Evade apoptosis
2. Self sufficiency in growth signals
3. Insensitive to anti-growth signals
4. Tissue invasion/Metastasis
5. Limitless replicative potential
6. Sustained Angiogenesis
115
T/F: Cancer cells can produce their own growth factors and produce growth factors for stroma involved
True
116
What part of the cell cycle can cancer evade?
Restriction point between G1 and S Phase
117
T/F: The retinoblastoma gene is only present in cancer cells
False: present in all cells
118
Which gene is the "guardian of the genome"?
TP53 Gene
119
Which gene is the "governor of the cell cycle"?
RB gene
120
Which virus is known to inactivate the Rb protein?
HPV
121
T/F: Over 70% of cancer has the TP53 gene altered
True
122
3 Phases of DNA damage TP53 monitors?
Minor-"quiescence" timeout from cell cycle to fix issue
Major-"senescence" major damage will prevent cell from entering cell cycle again
Irreversible-"apoptosis" DNA damage too great to risk letting it go alive
123
Which caspases are involved with extrinsic apoptosis? Intrinsic apoptosis?
Extrinsic- Caspase 8 and Caspase 3
| Intrinsic- Caspase 9 and Caspase 3
124
What is the "hayflick limit"?
How many cell divisions a cell is normally limited to
125
T/F: Cancer reactivates telomerase
True: this allows limitless replication
126
Which type of cell is telomerase typically NOT active in: germ cells, stem cells, somatic cells, cancer cells?
Somatic cells
127
What is the invasion-metastasis cascade?
Process of tumor cells loosening, crossing basement membrane, intravasating into blood stream, and extravasating back out to become a metastatic tumor
128
What molecule must be inactivated in order to loosen tumor cell to squeeze into ECM?
E-cadherin
129
T/F: chronic inflammation has been linked to increase cancer risk
True
130
What is mismatch repair?
Base pair coding errors (AT GC), multiple errors lead to mutation
131
What is nucleotide excision repair?
"Cut and paste"; remove damaged DNA (ex: UV light damage) and repair gap with DNA polymerase
132
What is homologous recombination?
DNA exchanged between two chromosomes to repair breaks in DNA
