EXAM2 (Develop the TEMP and Test Planning, Best Manufacturing Practices, Scheduling, Request for Proposal, Work Breakdown Structure, Leadership and Ethics, Systems Engineering in Acquisition, Systems Engineering Process Model, Technical Management Processes, Risk Management)

Question 1

Understand the purpose of T&E and why we test

Answer 1

The purpose of test and evaluation (T&E) in a development and acquisition program is to help reduce or manage risks in:
Development
Acquisition
Utilization

We test to measure specific individual performance factors.

Question 2

Recognize the customers of T&E

Answer 2

Developers / Acquisition Managers
Designers and Engineers
End-Users

Question 3

Recognize the various test agencies

Answer 3

Director, Operational Test and Evaluation (DOT&E)
Army Test and Evaluation Command (ATEC)
Army Evaluation Center (AEC)
Operational Test Command (OTC)

Question 4

Recognize the types of DT&E and OT&E

Answer 4

Types of OT&E (Operational Testing)
Early Operational Assessment (EOA)
Operational Assessment (OA)
Initial Operational Test and Evaluation (IOT&E)
Follow-on Operational Test and Evaluation (FOT&E)

Types of DT&E (Developmental Test and Evaluation)
Research Effort/Test
Technical Feasibility Test (TFT)
Engineering Development Test (EDT)
Production Qualification Test (PQT)
Production Verification Test (PVT)
First Article Test (FAT)
Production Acceptance Test and Evaluation (PAT&E)

Question 5

Define test and evaluation

Answer 5

Test: Program, procedure or process to obtain, verify, or provide data to determine the degree to which a system or systems meet, exceed or fail to meet stated objectives
Obtains raw data (1’s and 0’s)
Measures specific, individual performance factors
Is resource intensive

Evaluation: Independent process to review, analyze, and assess data obtained from testing or other sources
Produces analyzed information from test data, modeling and simulation, or other sources
Draws conclusions by looking at how the factors interact
Is intellectually intensive

Question 6

Define operational effectiveness and operational suitability

Answer 6

Operational Effectiveness: How well it does the job?
Operational Suitability: How well it can be supported?

Question 7

Understand the purpose of Live Fire Testing and when it applies

Answer 7

Purpose of Live Fire Testing:
Determines crew survivability and/or system vulnerability
Confirms lethality of munitions/missiles against intended target set
Mandated by FY87 Defense Authorization Bill

Applies to:
ACAT I and II major vehicles and weapons platforms
Conventional weapons that provide some degree of protection
Major munitions greater than 1M rounds

Note - Can be waived - LFT can be waived with justification
Prior to program initiation
Impractical or too expense
Must still accomplish an alternative
To determine vulnerability
Survivability, and lethality

Question 8

Define Interoperability and JITC’s (Joint Interoperability Test Command) role

Answer 8

Interoperability - The ability of systems, units, or forces to provide data, information, materiel, and services to and accept the same from other systems, units, or forces and to use the data, information, materiel, and services so exchanged to enable them to operate effectively together.

JITC issues a Interoperability Test Certification indicating: System has successfully passed interoperability testing and has met the NR-KPP

Testing is performed on Low Rate Initial Production (LRIP) production representative systems

Question 9

Recognize the importance of T&E to milestone decisions

Answer 9

Before Milestone A: Approved T&E Strategy

Before Milestone B: Approved TEMP; Identification of LRIP quantities – Only 10% max without waiver; DT&E Report

Before Milestone C: Updated TEMP; Final DT&E Report; Operational Assessment

Question 10

Define Verification and Validation

Answer 10

Verification that the system meets the performance specifications accomplished through Developmental Testing. (Did you build it right?)

Validation that the system fulfills the user’s required capabilities accomplished through Operational Testing. (Did you build the right thing?)

Question 11

Define concurrent testing, combined testing, and integrated testing

Answer 11

Concurrent Testing- Circumstances in which developmental testing and operational testing take place at the same time as two parallel, but separate and distinct, activities.

Combined Testing- Single test program conducted to support developmental test and operational test objectives.

Integrated Testing- The collaborative planning and collaborative execution of test phases and events to provide shared data in support of independent analysis, evaluation, and reporting by all stakeholders, particularly the development (both contractor and government) and operational test and evaluation communities.

Question 12

Identify the forum in which the operational tester brings together all the representatives of agencies involved in the Operational or Force Development Test to determine overall readiness for test

Answer 12

T&E WIPT

Question 13

Understand the purpose of the T&E WIPT and when it is formed

Answer 13

The T&E WIPT is a defined forum serving the PM, and PMO, as the test and evaluation subject matter experts responsible for supporting the PM, and other program WIPTs, on all aspects of a program’s test and evaluation effort. This effort includes T&E program strategy, design, development, oversight, and the analysis, assessment and reporting of test results.

The T&E WIPT should be established and chartered as early as possible during the Material Solutions Analysis phase so that it is involved in program strategy discussions and plans.

Question 14

Recognize why independent agencies conduct and oversee OT&E

Answer 14

Recognize why independent agencies conduct and oversee OT&E

Question 15

Recognize T&E planning and its function

Answer 15

As the essential feedback mechanism for the Systems Engineering Process

Question 16

Understand that the Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP)

Answer 16

Must be updated periodically to ensure that it stays current and integrates the various disciplines as the program evolves through its life cycle

Question 17

Understand that Developmental Test and Evaluation (DT&E) is

Answer 17

Essential in determining a system’s readiness for Initial Operational Test and Evaluation (IOT&E)

Question 18

Understand that Operational Test and Evaluation (OT&E)

Answer 18

Helps determine system operational suitability and effectiveness, and it addresses Critical Operational Issues (COIs) that are defined by the User

Question 19

The Logistics Demonstration is normally conducted

Answer 19

On those tasks performed at field level and some sustainment level by User representatives

Question 20

Understand that the Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP)

Answer 20

Is prepared by the Program Manager (PM) in conjunction with principal Test Integration Working Group (TIWG) members

Question 21

NDIs (Non-developmental item) are

Answer 21

Any previously developed items regardless of the source of development-used exclusively for governmental purposes by federal, state, local, or allied governments

Question 22

The DoD Acquisition Guidebook states that

Answer 22

Producibility is the design effort priority.

Question 23

Manufacturing integrated into the design process results in

Answer 23

Reduced program risk

Question 24

Factors leading to increased cost and production delays

Answer 24

Changing design requirements
Late design releases
Lack of production planning
Unstable funding

Question 25

!The three steps in Production and Manufacturing Integration include!

Answer 25

!Influence the Design Process Prepare for Production Execute the Manufacturing Plan!

Question 26

A priority for manufacturing is

Answer 26

To develop a stable production process

Question 27

Process Proofing involves

Answer 27

Proving that the design can actually produce a product that meets customer functional requirements in a realistic, "factory floor" type situation

Question 28

!The 5 Ms of Manufacturing!

Answer 28

!Material Method Machinery Manpower Measurement!

Question 29

!Five top-level design goals for producible products!

Answer 29

!Design for Ease of Fabrication Design for Ease of Assemble Design for Multiuse Minimize Number of Parts Maximize Number of Common Parts!

Question 30

!The cost of quality can be broken down into three separate areas!

Answer 30

!Prevention Appraisal Correcting Failures!

Question 31

Contractor must have

Answer 31

A quality management process, but the contractor defines the process (must meet Government objectives)

Question 32

Learning curve theory states

Answer 32

That as the production of an item doubles, the man-hours needed to produce that item decrease at a fixed rate

Question 33

!Two main principles of Lean Manufacturing!

Answer 33

!Minimization of Waste Responsive to Change!

Question 34

The five major causes of production problems

Answer 34

Unstable Rates and Quantities Design Instability Undue emphasis on Schedule Inadequate Configuration Management System Inattention to Environmental Impacts

Question 35

The Integrated Master Plan (IMP) is

Answer 35

An event-based plan that identifies the work that must be accomplished to complete the key program activities and events. An effective schedule correctly balances the tradeoffs between cost, schedule and performance while taking into account risk and program impact

Question 36

The 5 step scheduling process includes:

Answer 36

Identify the tasks Sequence the tasks Estimate the task duration Construct the schedule Implement the schedule

Question 37

Scheduling is

Answer 37

A listing of activities and events organized by time.

Question 38

Milestones

Answer 38

Points in time where decision makers evaluate the status of the program and determine if the program should proceed to the next phase

Question 39

What phases are?

Answer 39

Phases: logical means of translating broad capability needs into well defined system specific requirement ultimately into operationally effective, suitable, and survivable systems.

Question 40

Types of Schedules

Answer 40

Gantt Milestone Network Production

Question 41

Milestone Charts

Answer 41

Depicts information about significant project events, focusing on specific points in time

Question 42

The critical path is

Answer 42

The longest path through the network (the path with the greatest sum of task time duration). Any delay in tasks along the critical path will result in a delay in the overall project time

Question 43

Time constraints are

Answer 43

Limitations imposed by the length of time, or dates, associated with the schedule

Question 44

Lead is

Answer 44

Allows an activity to start before the predecessor activity is complete. A lead allows an acceleration of a successor activity

Question 45

Lag is

Answer 45

A lag directs a delay in a successor activity

Question 46

Intermediate schedules tie (or roll up)

Answer 46

Is the detailed schedules to the key events and milestones in the master schedule(s), and provide traceability between the two levels

Question 47

Given task durations, minimum durations, and cost to reduce the duration, be able to evaluate which tasks should be reduced in order to crash the schedule

Answer 47

Given task durations, minimum durations, and cost to reduce the duration, be able to evaluate which tasks should be reduced in order to crash the schedule

Question 48

Recognize the roles of the Program Manager and the Contracting Officer

Answer 48

Program Manager: Responsible for bringing the program in on time and within budget Contracting Officer: Responsible for advising the PM and ensuring that all acquisition laws and regulations are followed

Question 49

Understand the difference between fixed-price and cost-reimbursement contracts

Answer 49

Fixed-Price: Contractor promises to deliver on time and to meet contract specifications for a negotiated price Cost-Reimbursement: Contractor promises to put forth their best effort

Question 50

!Understand that contracts greater than...!

Answer 50

!$3,000 but less than or equal to $150,000 are set-aside exclusively for small businesses, if at least two capable small businesses can be expected to submit offers!

Question 51

Understand that DoD guidance allows contractors to..

Answer 51

Use the quality assurance process of their choice, as long as it meets program objectives

Question 52

Identify the three generic classifications of DoD software-intensive systems

Answer 52

Weapons Systems Command, Control, Communications, Computers and Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (C4ISR) Defense Business Systems (DBS)

Question 53

Recognize software intensive system acquisition best practices

Answer 53

Identify and manage risk continuously throughout the life of the system Estimate cost and schedule empirically Use metrics to monitor risk, identify problems, and base decisions Track earned value Establish quality targets and track defects against those targets Treat people as your most important resource Implement a sound configuration management process Manage and trace requirements to lowest level Use system-based software design to document/evaluate process Ensure data and database interoperability

Question 54

Identify the four categories of data rights

Answer 54

Unlimited Rights Limited Rights Government Purposed Rights Restricted Rights

Question 55

Define Work Breakdown Structure

Answer 55

Product-oriented family tree Composed of hardware, software, services, data, and facilities Created from systems engineering process throughout the R&D efforts Allows acquisition personnel to manage risk at levels lower than system level Displays and defines the product to be developed and produced The WBS is an output of the Systems Engineering Process

Question 56

Understand that there are 11 WBS categories and 10 common elements (Level 2)

Answer 56

WBS Categories: Aircraft Electronic/Automated Software Missile Ordnance Ship Space Surface Vehicle Unmanned Air Vehicle Unmanned Maritime Systems Launch Vehicle Systems Automated Information Systems Common Elements: Integration, assembly, test, and checkout efforts Systems engineering/program management System test and evaluation Training Data Peculiar support equipment Common support equipment Operational/site activation Industrial facilities (construction, conversion or expansion) Initial spares and repair parts

Question 57

Understand that the WBS is used for

Answer 57

Planning logistics Establishing schedules Tracking cost Predicting variations

Question 58

A Functional WBS answers the question

Answer 58

What it must do?

Question 59

A Product WBS answers the question

Answer 59

What must it look like?

Question 60

Identify the two types of WBS

Answer 60

Functional WBS Product WBS

Question 61

Identify the two types of Product WBS

Answer 61

Program WBS: Developed by the Government (Program Management Office) Entire WBS for the program - includes everything Consists of first three levels Contract WBS: Developed by the Contractor (4th level – “n”) Complete WBS for the contract Contains lowest reporting level agreed upon in the contract

Question 62

Understand that the Requirements Analysis application of Systems Engineering includes:

Answer 62

Analyze functions Decompose higher level functions to lower level functions Allocate performance requirements to the functions

Question 63

Understand that the Overall System WBS Level is

Answer 63

Level 1

Question 64

Identify who is responsible for producing the Program and Contract WBS’s and the levels associated with each.

Answer 64

Program WBS: Developed by the Government (Program Management Office) Entire WBS for the program - includes everything Consists of first three levels Contract WBS: Developed by the Contractor (4th level – “n”) Complete WBS for the contract Contains lowest reporting level agreed upon in the contract

Question 65

Understand that Level 2 of the WBS includes

Answer 65

Major Elements of the defense materiel item, such as hardware, software elements, program management, training, data, etc

Question 66

!Three types of leadership!

Answer 66

!Supervisory, participative, and team (Team is preferred)!

Question 67

!Ethics may be thought of as a set of behavioral standards for a group of people or society!

Answer 67

!Ethics may be thought of as a set of behavioral standards for a group of people or society!

Question 68

Ethics can also be defined as

Answer 68

Standards of conduct that shape one's behavior with respect to moral duties and obligations

Question 69

Identify the two major aspects of our personal ethics, according to the Josephson Institute of Ethics

Answer 69

Our ability to distinguish right from wrong, good from evil and propriety from impropriety Out level of commitment to doing what is good, right and proper

Question 70

Understand that although ethical norms vary from organization to organization, and culture to culture

Answer 70

There are some core values that have been identified by leaders in education, business, religion and government.

Question 71

Identify the six core ethical values, according to the Josephson Institute of Ethics

Answer 71

Trustworthiness Respect Responsibility Fairness Caring Citizenship

Question 72

Identify simplest approach to ethical decision-making

Answer 72

The “hero test” Ask yourself how someone you greatly admire would handle the situation Ask yourself what you would do if your actions were going to appear on the front page of the newspaper

Question 73

Understand the three classical models for resolving dilemmas

Answer 73

Consequentialism / Utilitarianism – end justifies the means as long as the greater good is served The Golden Rule – “Do unto others as you would have them do unto you” Kant’s Absolute Moral Duties – “Higher truths” are not flexible and there are no exceptions

Question 74

Understand that the Principled Decision-Making model combines aspects of all three classical models, and

Answer 74

It calls for decisions to take into consideration the welfare of all stakeholders It also expects ethical values, such as trustworthiness and fairness, to take precedence over other values, such as efficiency or self-interest Finally, it offers help in prioritizing conflicting ethical values based on what will bring the most good and the least harm to others

Question 75

Understand that Integrated Product Teams (IPTs) are

Answer 75

An important part of the acquisition process, and effective leadership of those teams is essential to their success

Question 76

Recognize that your goal is to...

Answer 76

Create an atmosphere within your IPTs in which there is open, honest communication so that fear can be replaced with trust, and where the core ethical values are demonstrated consistently

Question 77

Define the three primary types of leadership styles found in today's workplace.

Answer 77

Supervisory – tends to be directive. They do a lot of one-on-one training. Get personally involved in resolving conflicts. React to changes as they occur. This is natural for first line supervisors, but we want IPT leader to take a different approach. Participative – 1. Interested in obtaining inputs from the team 2. Consider different points of view prior to decisions 3. Seeks to Develop team member performance 4. Ensures changes lead to improvement 5. Focus is more on participation and involvement of the team members Team Leadership – ideal style for most IPT leaders 1. Inspires individuals as well as the entire team 2. Creates a team identity and finds ways to harness team member diversity 3. Foresees and influences changes 4. Output of this team is greater than the sum of its members

Question 78

Team Leadership is the ideal style for most IPT leaders

Answer 78

Team Leadership is the ideal style for most IPT leaders

Question 79

In the DoD, Systems Engineering is:

Answer 79

Typically implemented via Integrated Product and Process Development (IPPD). IPPD is performed by multidisciplinary teams, typically formally charted as Integrated Product Teams (IPTs).

Question 80

Both industry and the DoD have...

Answer 80

Similar goals in product development and share key Systems Engineering processes

Question 81

The three Technical Processes for Designing Systems are:

Answer 81

Stakeholder Requirements Definition Requirements Analysis Architecture Design

Question 82

The 8 Technical Management Processes are:

Answer 82

Technical Planning Requirements Management Interface Management Risk Management Configuration Management Technical Data Management Technical Assessment Decision Analysis

Question 83

Technical Management Processes are....

Answer 83

Used to manage the development of system products, including supporting or enabling products.

Question 84

!MIL-STD 499A used to be...!

Answer 84

!The mandatory standard used for DoD Systems Engineering. It has be cancelled and replaced with EIA 632 and IEEE 1220!

Question 85

Standards provide....

Answer 85

A set of processes that, if performed by qualified persons using appropriate tools and methods, will provide a capability for effective and efficient engineering of systems, including their software components

Question 86

A System is...

Answer 86

An aggregation of end products and enabling products to achieve a given purpose.

Question 87

Every system consists of :

Answer 87

One or more End Products A set of Enabling Products

Question 88

System Specifications:

Answer 88

This is a type of program-unique specification that describes the requirements and verification of the requirements for a combination of elements that must function together to produce the capabilities required to fulfill a mission need, including hardware, equipment and software.

Question 89

Item Specification:

Answer 89

This is a type of program-unique specification that describes the form, fit and function and method for acceptance of end products (e.g., parts, components and other items that are elements of a system model).

Question 90

A 'program' WBS displays and defines...

Answer 90

The product(s) to be developed and/ or produced by the program. It relates the elements of work to be accomplished to each other and to the End Product.

Question 91

In the DoD, the Program WBS is...

Answer 91

Extended to a Contract WBS that defines the relationships between the elements of the program and corresponding elements of the contract work statement.

Question 92

!An Engineering ‘V” Model!

Answer 92

!Is a system structure based on a hierarchy of system models and provides the basis for both Top-down System Design and Bottom-up product Realization!

Question 93

The typical sequence of the ‘Bottom-up/Realization’ Systems Engineering processes is:

Answer 93

Implementation or Integration Verification Validation Transition

Question 94

Iteration

Answer 94

Is the re-application of processes already applied to a system model based on feedback indicating a problem that needs resolution before progress can continue.

Question 95

The System Requirements Review (SRR) is ...

Answer 95

A multifunctional technical review to ensure that all system and performance requirements derived from the Capability Development Document are defined and consistent with cost (budget), schedule (program schedule), risk and system constraints.

Question 96

Detail Specifications...

Answer 96

These specify design requirements, such as materials to be used, how a requirement is to be achieved or how an item is to be fabricated or constructed.

Question 97

Program SEPs are...

Answer 97

Formally assessed during milestone reviews

Question 98

There are 8 System Engineering Technical Processes

Answer 98

Stakeholder Requirements Definition Requirements Analysis Architecture Design Implementation Integration Verification Validation Transition

Question 99

An Engineering Work model consists of...

Answer 99

Top Down Design and Bottom Up Realization.

Question 100

In early stages of the acquisition life cycle many Systems Engineering technical processes are..

Answer 100

Performed by the government "Front-end" systems engineering-like activities include defining architectures and capabilities and conducting functional analyses, and planners usually complete these activities before a program is initiated.

Question 101

A stakeholder...

Answer 101

Is any party that has an interest in the outcome of the project

Question 102

The acquirer requirements come from...

Answer 102

The end users of the system

Question 103

The JCIDS process formally documents stakeholder needs in terms of capabilities via a series of progressively more detailed documents. JCIDS key documents include:

Answer 103

Initial Capability Document (ICD) at Milestone A Capability Development Document (CDD) at Milestone B. Capability Production Document (CPD) at Milestone C.

Question 104

The functional baseline is described by

Answer 104

The System Specification

Question 105

Logical Analysis enables...

Answer 105

A more detailed definition and understanding of the problem to be solved.

Question 106

A derived requirement is...

Answer 106

One that is not explicitly stated in a higher-level set of requirements yet required to be satisfied in order to provide a complete system solution Two Broad Types of Derived Requirements: - Derived Stakeholder Requirements - Derived Technical Requirements

Question 107

Behavioral analysis involves...

Answer 107

The simulation or stimulation of functional architectures utilizing operational scenarios to expose the model to stressful situations that reflect anticipated usage and environments

Question 108

Interfaces, both for hardware and software, should be defined using...

Answer 108

Open System standards to the maximum extent possible wherever feasible and cost-effective

Question 109

Implementation:

Answer 109

Is where the lowest system element items are made, bought, or reused. (Involves hardware fabrication and software coding)

Question 110

Integration:

Answer 110

Is the Technical Process involved in realization of an End product when the assembled product consists of two or more end products from lower-layer system models. (Involves simulations, EDMs, LRIP models)

Question 111

Verification Process (developmental testing):

Answer 111

Confirms that the system element meets the design to or build-to specifications as defined in the functional, allocated, and product baselines.

Question 112

The four types of Verification are:

Answer 112

Analysis Inspection Demonstration Test

Question 113

The Validation Process...

Answer 113

Tests the performance of systems within their intended operational environment, with anticipated operators and users. -Most tests conducted by Operational Test and Evaluation (OT&E) are used for Systems Engineering validation events.

Question 114

VV&A stands for:

Answer 114

Verification, Validation, and Accreditation

Question 115

PHS&T stands for:

Answer 115

Packaging, Handling, Storage, and Transportation.

Question 116

Quality Function Deployment (QFD) starts with...

Answer 116

'The voice of the customer.' It uses a series of matrices to "flow down' requirements to various levels.

Question 117

There are 8 System Engineering Technical Management Processes:

Answer 117

Technical Planning Requirements Management Configuration Management Technical Assessment Decision Analysis Risk Management Interface Management Technical Data Management

Question 118

Technical Management Processes:

Answer 118

Establish and evolve project plans Assess progress against the plan Evaluate and select alternatives. Control technical project execution

Question 119

Technical Planning, as opposed to program planning addresses...

Answer 119

The scope of the overall technical effort needed to develop system products

Question 120

The Systems Engineering Plan (SEP) is...

Answer 120

The Government’s foundation plan for Systems Engineering activities planned for use on a project.

Question 121

Event-based schedules are based on...

Answer 121

Key events, related tasks and relevant completion criteria for the applicable engineering work model

Question 122

An Interface refers to...

Answer 122

The functional and physical characteristics required to exist at a common boundary between two or more systems, end products, enabling products or subsystems.

Question 123

The two types of interfaces are External and Internal:

Answer 123

–External Interfaces are the boundaries: •between a system End Product and another external system End Product; or •between a human and the environment in which the system End Products will be used or operated. –Internal: those boundaries between products within a system model that are controlled by the developer or by the government acquirer's technical effort.

Question 124

The government Program Office and the project IPT will...

Answer 124

Play key roles in the development of external interfaces because these may involve interfaces with systems outside the control of the contractor.

Question 125

!The three components of Risk are!:

Answer 125

!A future root cause A probability or likelihood of that future root cause occurring The consequences (or effect) of that future occurrence!

Question 126

Risk Management includes these key elements:

Answer 126

Risk Identification Risk Analysis Risk Mitigation Planning Risk Mitigation Plan Implementation Risk Tracking

Question 127

Configuration Management (CM) Establishes and maintains...

Answer 127

Consistency of a product's attributes with its requirements and product configuration information

Question 128

Three formal technical baselines established for a system are:

Answer 128

Functional Allocated Product

Question 129

The product baseline is...

Answer 129

At the component level.

Question 130

Technical Performance Measurement (TPM) measures...

Answer 130

The current state of a given technical parameter and then estimates how it will evolve over a specific time period based on the planned technical development effort

Question 131

The Technical Authority should be...

Answer 131

Independent of the Program Manager in making assessments

Question 132

A Technical Data Package (TDP) provides...

Answer 132

A comprehensive description of a given product.

Question 133

Requirements change for a variety of reasons which can include:

Answer 133

Emerging technologies Changing threats New laws and policies New missions Evolving user needs

Question 134

Government program office’s responsibilities:

Answer 134

The program manager is responsible for long term storage and retrieval of technical data

Question 135

Risk is...

Answer 135

A measure of future uncertainties in achieving program technical performance goals within defined cost and schedule constraints.

Question 136

Aspects of Risk include:

Answer 136

Threat Technology maturity Supplier capability Design maturation Performance against plan

Question 137

Know the key elements of Risk management:

Answer 137

Risk Identification Risk Analysis Risk Mitigation Planning Risk Mitigation Plan Implementation Risk Tracking

Question 138

The Waterfall Effect:

Answer 138

As risk mitigation efforts are successfully implemented for an identified root cause, the amount of risk present for that root cause is reduced.

Question 139

Know what Risk is NOT

Answer 139

Risk is NOT an opportunity to exceed expectations Risk is NOT a problem or an issue. These are previously known or unknown risks that have already occurred.

Question 140

Risk Tracking answers the question “How are things going?” by:

Answer 140

Communicating risk to all affected stakeholders Monitoring risk mitigation plans Reviewing regular status updates

Question 141

Risk identification is structured to help answer the question?

Answer 141

What can go wrong?

Question 142

Know who reviews and approves the final risk mitigation plan

Answer 142

The Program Manager and the Lead Systems Engineer should review and approve the final risk mitigation plan – PM has final approval

Question 143

Technical Performance Measures (TPM) measure?

Answer 143

Actual Results versus Expected Results

Question 144

3 Components of Risk are...

Answer 144

A future root cause, A probability or likelihood of that future root cause occurring, The consequences (or effect) of that future occurrence.

Question 145

Risk Management in a PM office may be centralized or decentralized

Answer 145

In a centralized risk management approach the program manager assigns a risk management coordinator or establishes a risk management board IPT to conduct most of the risk management efforts. In the decentralized risk management approach, program personnel conduct risk management as part of their normally assigned duties within a program IPT. Since risks are present in every aspect/level of the program the decentralized approach is normally recommended.

Question 146

The 4 Risk mitigation options are:

Answer 146

Avoiding Controlling Transferring Assuming