Example Questions for Common B11 and B13 Flashcards
1
Q
Differential ailerons:
a) are used to improve the aircraft roll rate
b) reduce the yaw in the direction of the down aileron
c) increase the pilot’s ‘feel’ on the aileron controls during turn
A
Reduce the yaw in the direction of the down aileron
2
Q
Control about the normal or vertical axis is achieved by:
a) ailerons
b) rudders
c) elevons
A
Rudders
3
Q
Slats are used on aerofoils to:
a) decrease the stalling speed and angle of attack
b) increase the stalling speed and angle of attack
c) delay airflow separation at the transition point
A
Delay airflow separation at the transition point
4
Q
Servo tabs are used:
a) to trim the aircraft due to a weight/aerodynamic imbalance
b) to reduce the pilot’s effort in moving the control surface
c) to reduce the aerodynamic balance on all moving surfaces
A
To reduce the pilot’s effort in moving the control surface
5
Q
Airflow behind the shockwave when the aircraft is flying at its critical mach number is:
a) supersonic
b) transonic
c) subsonic
A
Subsonic
6
Q
To raise the critical mach number of the aircraft:
a) decrease the amount of area rule on the fuselage
b) increase the size of the winglets
c) increase the wings sweepback
A
Increase the wings sweepback
7
Q
Panels that are attached to the aircraft by quick release fasteners are:
a) tertiary structure
b) secondary structure
c) primary structure
A
Tertiary structure
8
Q
An extruded or rolled aluminium sheet channel section that normally runs the length of the fuselage is known as:
a) intercostals
b) stringer
c) cleat
A
Stringer
9
Q
Elevators usually have:
a) an equal amount of displacement ‘up’ and ‘down’
b) a greater displacement ‘up’ than ‘down’
c) a greater displacement ‘down’ than ‘up’
A
A greater displacement ‘up’ than ‘down’
10
Q
A high/low range gearbox in the rudder control system sets the travel to:
a) high speed when the gear is up
b) low range when the gear is down
c) high range when the gear is down
A
High range when the gear is down
11
Q
Should there be a total electrical failure to the two actuators in the pitch control system of a fly-by-wire aircraft, they will:
a) freeze in their current position
b) automatically go to a centring mode for neutral
c) disengage to allow manual control
A
Disengage to allow manual control
12
Q
On a fly-by-wire aircraft, when the autopilot is in command:
a) the sidesticks are fully functional and move with the control surfaces
b) only the spoiler and elevator computer will operate
c) the sidesticks will remain in the neutral position
A
The sidesticks will remain in the neutral position
13
Q
On a fly-by-wire aircraft, pitch direct law is automatically selected when:
a) an elevator and aileron computer fails
b) the instinctive cut-out button is pressed
c) all three inertial reference systems are lost
A
All three inertial reference systems are lost
14
Q
Longitudinal stability is given by:
a) fin and rudder
b) tail plane
c) wings dihedral
A
Tail plane
15
Q
The incipient shockwave forms:
a) when the body is moving at the speed of sound
b) when the transonic speed has been achieved
c) at the critical Mach No
A
At the critical Mach No
16
Q
Tip stalling of high speed swept wings may be prevented by:
a) increasing the fineness ratio
b) thinning the trailing edges of the inner wing
c) fitting wing fences and saw tooth leading edges
A
Fitting wing fences and saw tooth leading edges
17
Q
A fuselage construction where the skin carries all of the loads is known as:
a) semi-monocoque
b) monocoque
c) semi-stressed
A
Monocoque
18
Q
Control stops are fitted to:
a) give the pilot feel to the range of control movement
b) prevent overstressing the controls and control surfaces
c) allow alteration and adjustment to the specified range of movement
A
Prevent overstressing the controls and control surfaces
19
Q
Active load control on a large transport aircraft’s aileron system is fitted to:
a) increase roll control authority of the autopilot
b) improve fatigue life, due to aero elasticity and high lift loads
c) improve trim control due to lateral change of gravity changes
A
Improve fatigue life, due to aero elasticity and high lift loads
20
Q
When asymmetry is detected in the flap system:
a) the flaps will automatically retract
b) if moving, they will stop and remain in the set position
c) they must be wound out by individual mechanical systems
A
If moving, they will stop and remain in the set position
21
Q
If, in a fly-by-wire system, there is a loss of all three inertial reference systems, then pitch control would be by:
a) direct control, stick to elevator
b) alternate control, using the spoiler and elevator
c) mechanical back-up, using the pitch trim wheel
A
Direct control, stick to elevator
22
Q
Gust alleviation function in a fly-by-wire system:
a) may be controlled by the elevators
b) uses the high speed computer responses to compensate for sudden gusts
c) is achieved by the weight saving from elimination of cables, feel units and other conventional items
A
Uses the high speed computer responses to compensate for sudden gusts
23
Q
An aircraft using fly-by-wire technology:
a) saves fuel due to the C of G moving aft
b) is inherently stable
c) is able to manoeuvre outside its normal flight envelope at the pilot’s command
A
Saves fuel due to the C of G moving aft
24
Q
A Krueger flap is used as a:
a) leading edge lift enhancer
b) trailing edge lift producer
c) tail plane balancing device
A
Leading edge lift enhancer
25
An aircraft structure with multiple load paths is known as:
a) fail safe
b) safe life
c) monocoque
Fail safe
26
A yaw damper system which moves the rudder without giving inputs to the pilot's controls is called a:
a) series actuator
b) parallel actuator
c) duplex system
Series actuator
27
In a fly-by-wire system the sidestick controllers:
a) give automatic signals to the autopilot
b) are coupled electrically
c) must be isolated from each other at all times to maintain system integrity
Are coupled electrically
28
During cruise, to counter the effect of the centre of lift being aft of the C of G, the:
a) stabiliser leading edge is lowered
b) elevator trailing edge is lowered
c) stabiliser leading edge is raised
Stabiliser leading edge is lowered
29
On all moving tailplane, the anti-servo tab moves:
a) in the same direction as the tailplane
b) up as the tailplane leading edge moves up
c) down as the tailplane trailing edge moves up
In the same direction as the tailplane
30
Ejector pumps fitted to larger aircraft are installed to:
a) supply a positive head of fuel to the booster pumps
b) scavenge fuel from remote areas of fuel tanks
c) assist the booster pumps in meeting engine demands
Scavenge fuel from remote areas of fuel tanks
31
Jet A1 has a freezing point of approximately:
a) -40 degrees Celcius and a SG of 0.8
b) -47 degrees Celcius and a SG of 0.76
c) -47 degrees Celcius and a SG of 0.8
-47 degrees Celcius and a SG of 0.8
32
Cladosporium resinae would normally be expected to occur in an aircraft fuel system, when the aircraft is operating in the:
a) arctic or antarctic circle area
b) mediterranean coast area
c) north east coast of the USA
Mediterranean coast area
33
The specific gravity (S.G) of fuel is the:
a) weight of the fuel within the aircraft
b) density of fuel compared to water
c) conversion factor used between gallons and lbs
Weight of the fuel within the aircraft
34
Because aviation fuel is more hygroscopic than other fuel, it can:
a) be more volatile
b) cause blockages in filters below a certain temperature
c) assist in helping to prevent contamination
Cause blockages in filters below a certain temperature
35
L.P fuel cocks fitted to an aircraft fuel system are:
a) engine mounted to isolate the engine from the aircraft
b) airframe mounted to isolate individual tanks from individual engines
c) airframe mounted to isolate the aircraft fuel supply from individual engines
Airframe mounted to isolate the aircraft fuel supply from individual engines
36
Ball type valves used in an aircraft fuel system are:
a) variable flow valves
b) partial flow valves
c) full flow valves
Full flow valves
37
The type of fuel booster pumps normally fitted to an aircraft are:
a) spur gear pumps
b) variable cam pumps
c) impeller centrifugal pumps
Impeller centrifugal pumps
38
To prevent fuel surges or sloshing during flight, an integral fuel tank would be fitted with:
a) wing span diaphragms
b) chordal diaphragms
c) pressure relief valves
Chordal diaphragms
39
The aviation fuel Jet B FSII can also be known as:
a) Avtur
b) Avtag
c) Avcat
Avtag
40
An aircraft fuel blank that is fitted to a pipe or component when it is removed would normally be made from either:
a) rubber or metal
b) rubber or cork
c) metal or wood
Rubber or metal
41
One of the requirements that a gas turbine fuel system should meet is that it will:
a) lubricate all parts of the fuel system
b) give efficient combustion under all operating conditions
c) have a low Reid vapour pressure on the ground
Give efficient combustion under all operating conditions
42
Typical aircraft booster and transfer pumps are:
a) positive displacement pumps
b) variable displacement pumps
c) non-positive displacement pumps
Non-positive displacement pumps
43
On a partial automatic refuel, the refuel valve to a certain tank will close when the:
a) high level float switch makes
b) associated pointers on the tank gauge coincide
c) aircraft is full
High level float switch makes
44
Centrifugal impeller pumps fitted in an aircraft low pressure fuel system are:
a) not positive displacement, so require a pressure relief valve
b) positive displacement, so require a relief valve
c) not positive displacement, so do not require a relief valve
Not positive displacment, so do not require a relief valve
45
An interference spider is fitted to many valves to:
a) assist in providing support for the valve assembly
b) ensure the valve is fitted the correct way
c) indicate the direction of flow
Ensure the valve is fitted the correct way
46
A high level float switch would be used to signal the:
a) refuel / defuel valve to open
b) refuel / defuel valve to close
c) fuel vent system to open
Refuel / defuel valves to close
47
Aircraft AC booster pumps are normally preferred on large aircraft as:
a) they have higher flow rates than all DC pumps
b) they can produce more pressure than DC pumps
c) a smaller sized pump can produce the required flow rate
A smaller sized pump can produce the required flow rate
48
Water contamination checks are normally carried out:
a) before refuelling takes place only
b) straight after refuelling takes place
c) before refuelling and after a specified time afterwards
Before refuelling and after a specified time afterwards
49
Jet pumps in the fuel system are operated by:
a) electrical motors that supply fuel through a venturi
b) a separate switch in the cockpit that turns on a fuel supply to the venturi
c) a tap-off from one of the booster pumps
A tap-off from one of the booster pumps
50
Suction valves are fitted in the aircraft system in order to:
a) assist booster pumps when excessive engine demands are present
b) permit recirculation of fuel during conditions of low engine demand
c) supply engine fuel when booster pump failure occurs
Supply engine fuel when booster pump failure occurs
51
On an automatic fuel heater, the actuator valve limits fuel temperature by:
a) spring pressure opening the high pressure air inlet
b) a wax charge contracting and expanding to open and close the air inlet
c) a differential switch which opens and closes the air inlet
A wax charge contracting and expanding to open and close the air inlet
52
The vent system of an aircraft is primarily designed to ensure that there is:
a) always a positive pressure above the fuel
b) not a large pressure difference between the outside and inside of the tank
c) the capability to refuel and defuel a tank
Not a large pressure difference between the outside and inside of the tank
53
The purpose of the outboard float valve fitted in the vent system of a large aircraft is to:
a) stop air entering the tank when it is full
b) close the refuel valves when tanks are full
c) minimise fuel transfer between tanks during manoeuvring
Minimise fuel transfer between tanks during manoeuvring
54
The electro-magnetic brake on a low pressure fuel valve is activated when power is:
a) removed from the valve, deactivated when power is applied
b) applied to the valve, deactivated when power is removed
c) either applied or removed from the valve
Removed from the valve, deactivated when power is applied
55
The fuel line of a fuel tanker supply line should contain a:
a) non return valve
b) 5 micron filter
c) pressure relief valve
5 micron filter
56
In order for an aircraft to meet JAR and BCAR requirements, the fuel supply system must:
a) meet engine demands with the aid of engine fuel pump
b) supply in excess of engine demand
c) supply in excess of engine demand with aid of engine pump
Supply in excess of engine demand
57
Centrifugal pumps are commonly used on aircraft LP fuel systems as they:
a) centrifuge the fuel giving it a positive displacement
b) centrifuge the fuel giving a vapour free outlet
c) do no require a relief valve and give a vapour free delivery of fuel to the engine
Do not require a relief valve and give a vapour free delivery of fuel to the engine
58
In certain conditions the intermittent transfer pump in the vent tank will continue to operate when:
a) both the high and low level switches are not made
b) only the high level switch is made
c) only the low level switch is made
Only the low level switch is made
59
When fuel jettison is selected:
a) the fuel tanks are completely emptied
b) both booster pumps increase speed to jettison fuel
c) the fuel to the engines is protected by NRVs
The fuel to the engines is protected by NRVs
60
If supersonic airflow is turned away from its previous direction then:
a) the airflow is slowed down but it is still supersonic
b) an expansion wave is formed and the pressure and density of the air behind the wave is decreased
c) an oblique shockwave is formed and the airflow immediately behind the shockwave is unchanged
An expansion wave is formed and the pressure and density of the air behind the wave is decreased
61
A rear pressure bulkhead could be classified as Primary Structure because if it failed in flight:
a) passengers and crew may be injured and an engine might fail
b) structural collapse could occur and passengers and crew could be injured
c) it would have a reserve of strength which would allow some weakening to occur
Structural collapse could occur and passengers and crew could be injured
62
Where an epoxy based primer has been used:
a) the top coat finish may be removed, leaving the primer coat intact
b) the removal of the top coat finish will also remove the primer, making skin inspections easier
c) polyurethane top coat finish cannot be used
The top coat finish may be removed, leaving the primer coat intact
63
The concept of failsafe:
a) is only for airframe and engine mounting structures
b) includes windows and windscreens
c) is to allow for variations in the structural inspection program
Includes windows and windscreens
64
Why is an inspection programme used on Fail Safe structures?
a) to make sure that any cracks are within the limits stated in the maintenance manual
b) to provide information for a structural modification programme
c) to ensure that once structural redundancy has been lost that structural failure does not progress too far
To ensure that once structural redundancy has been lost, that structural failure does not progress too far
65
Doublers are used to provide:
a) additional strength around openings such as doors and windows
b) a way of joining two pieces of a longeron
c) an aerodynamic smoothing effect over path repairs on the outside of the aircraft's structure
Additional strength around openings such as doors and windows
66
After anodising using a solution of dichromate, why should the part be immersed in hot water? To:
a) improve corrosion resistance and to prevent a surface colour change
b) neutralise the anodising process and prevent a surface colour change
c) ensure that the part is clean and ready for painting
Improve corrosion resistance and to prevent a surface colour change
67
A landing gear structural fuse is fitted to:
a) allow the bogie assembly and brake system to give way under excessive loading
b) prevent damage to the torque links by allowing the link pivot bolt to shear under excessive load
c) prevent damage to primary structure by giving way under excessive loads
Prevent damage to primary structure by giving way under excessive loads
68
The impact strength of a laminated windscreen:
a) is highest at the centre of the panel
b) is based on the ability of the shock absorption of the interlayer
c) means that the glass will crack but not shatter
Is based on the ability of the shock absorption of the interlayer
69
The variable incidence stabiliser of a large transport aircraft in a prolonged cruise would be:
a) lowered to increase the download on the tailplane and decrease its drag
b) raised to move centre of pressure on the mainplane forward
c) lowered to compensate for centre of pressure movement due to loss of fuel weight
Lowered to compensate for centre of pressure movement due to loss of fuel weight
70
Effective low speed roll control on large transport aircraft can be improved by:
a) leading edge slats
b) differential spoilers
c) trailing edge flaps
Differential spoilers
71
When an aircraft enters a banked turn, low speed tip stalling can be prevented by:
a) the use of slotted ailerons
b) the use of roll spoilers on the down going wing
c) side slip and the keel effect
The use of slotted ailerons
72
When a roll manoeuvre has been completed:
a) a spring forces the roller in the feel and trim mechanism to the cam's centre, thus centring the aileron
b) the ailerons will only return to neutral when the trim unit is energised by the pilot
c) all loads in the cable tension regulators are released and the ailerons return to neutral
A spring forces the roller in the feel and trim mechanism to the cam's centre, thus centring the aileron
73
When a variable incidence tailplane is powered by hydraulic motors:
a) both the arming and command hydraulic solenoid valves must be energised before the hydraulic motor runs
b) Only the command hydraulic solenoid valve is required to be energised before the hydraulic motor runs
c) only the arming solenoid requires to be energised because direction commands come from the control wheel
Both the arming and command hydraulic solenoid valves must be energised before the hydraulic motor runs
74
When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to fly left wing low, an aileron trim tab that is fitted to the port aileron will move:
a) up, this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up
b) up, causing the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain in neutral
c) down and cause the left aileron to move up and the right aileron to move down
Up, this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up
75
A Mach trimmer is a device which:
a) automatically compensates the trim changes in the transonic region
b) prevents the aircraft from exceeding its Critical Mach number
c) switches out the trim control to prevent damage in the transonic region
Automatically compensates the trim changes in the transonic region
76
An aileron is mass balanced to:
a) make it easier to move
b) eliminate flutter
c) move the aileron C of G rearwards
Eliminate flutter
77
The temperature of the engine bleed air is reduced initially by the:
a) primary heat exchanger in the air conditioning pack
b) pre-cooler and air from the engine fan
c) bleed air regulator in conjunction with the temperature control switch
Pre-cooler and air from the engine fan
78
In the 'bootstrap' air conditioning system, the charge air:
a) is compressed, passed through a heat exchanger then drives a turbine
b) drives a turbine, is then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger
c) drives a turbine, then passes to a heat exchanger
Is compressed, passed through a heat exchanger and then drives a turbine
79
In a Cold Air Unit (or Air Cycle Machine), the air is:
a) cooled by evaporation of a regrigerant
b) cooled by expansion through a valve
c) compressed, passed through a heat exchanger and expanded through a turbine
Compressed, passed through a heat exchanger and expanded through a turbine
80
If a cabin altitude of 8000 ft is selected on the cabin pressure controller:
a) a cabin altitude of 8000 ft will be maintained at all aircraft altitudes from sea level
b) a cabin altitude of 8000 ft will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 ft until the maximum cabin pressure differential is reached
c) sea level cabin altitude will be maintained to 8000 ft and 8000 cabin altitude thereafter
A cabin altitude of 8000 ft will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 ft until the maximum cabin pressure differential is reached
81
Isobaric control applies to:
a) the point at which the cabin altitude reaches the controller setting and stabilises
b) a control of cabin blower air to maintain a constant ambient temperature
c) a continual adjustment of pressure to maintain the cabin value at the same ratio below the outside pressure
The point at which the cabin altitude reaches the controller setting and stabilises
82
Depressurisation of an aircraft cabin after landing is achieved by:
a) manual pilot control through equalising control valves on the pressure console
b) ground automatic relief valves receiving signals from air/ground sensors and engine thrust levers
c) electric signals from wheel tacho spin-up on touch-down
Ground automatic relief valves receiving signals from air/ground sensors and engine thrust levers
83
During a steep dive in a pressurised aircraft:
a) there is a tendency for the internal cabin air pressure to be lower than the external air pressure and this may cause the cabin to be crushed
b) there is a tendency for the internal cabin air pressure to be higher than the external air pressure and this may cause the cabin to explode
c) the differential in air pressure is compensated for by the duplicated discharge valve opening at a maximum pressure of 2.5 psi
There is a tendency for the internal cabin air pressure to be higher than the external air pressure and this may cause the cabin to explode
84
In a continuous wire type of fire detector of the resistance type, the resistance of the insulating material:
a) decreases with an increase in temperature and allows more current to pass to the control unit
b) decreases with an increase in temperature and allows less current to pass to the control unit
c) increases with an increase in temperature and allows more current to flow to the control unit
Decreases with an increase in temperature and allows more current to pass to the control unit
85
A fire extinguisher bottle which has been discharged by actuation of the fire extinguisher system is indicated by the absence of a:
a) red disc at the indicator
b) yellow disc at the indicator
c) green disc at the indicator
Yellow disc at the indicator
86
A typical fire bottle pressure relief indicator disc will show when:
a) the extinguisher has operated normally and is in need of charging
b) the pressure in the extinguisher has dropped below operating value and needs recharging
c) an overpressure of overtemperature event has occurred leading to bottle discharge overboard
An overpressure of overtemperature event has occurred leading to bottle discharge overboard
87
An aircraft using inertia controlled switches as part of an automatic fire extinguisher system will operate in the event of an aircraft crash whenever:
a) the aircraft experiences a decelerating force that causes the spring inside the switch to expand allowing the contacts to make
b) a decelerating force that breaks the cover of the switch allowing the electrical contacts to make
c) the G force on the aircraft causes a snap over of the bow spring inside the switch, allowing the contacts
The G force on the aircraft causes a snap over of the bow spring inside the switch, allowing the contacts
88
If an electrical test was being carried out on part of a fire warning system, an approved method of testing a:
a) unit type expansion detector would be to use a 250 volts insulation resistance tester to check resistance between the detector's terminals
b) continuous type detector is to carry out a resistance test between the centre electrode and element sheath, where the reading should not normally be more than 1 megaohm
c) unit type detector for continuity of associated wiring is to operate the test switch to see if the warning lamps illuminate, proving the system
Unit type detector for continuity of associated wiring is to operate the test switch to see if the warning lamps illuminate, proving the system
89
In the event of failure of both Elevator and Aileron Computers (ELAC) in the pitch system:
a) control operation is taken over by the Stabiliser and Elevator Computer (SEC)
b) the system reverts to manual
c) the system is operated by the manual trim
Control operation is taken over by the Stabiliser and Elevator Computer (SEC)
90
Active Load Control systems are used in aircraft fitted with:
a) fly-by-wire systems to increase lift during manoeuvring
b) conventional power operated control systems to reduce wing bending loads under conditions of high lift
c) fly-by-wire control systems to provide better control responses at low speeds
Fly-by-wire systems to increase lift during manoeuvring
91
A pre-armed set of lift dumpers would automatically deploy on landing if the aircraft was:
a) travelling at 90 knots, the weight-on-wheels switch was made and the throttles were in any position
b) travelling at 50 knots, the throttles were at idle and the weight-on-wheels switch was made
c) at a speed of 90 knots, the weight-on-wheels switch was made and thrust reverse was selected
Travelling at 50 knots, the throttles were at idle and the weight-on-wheels switch was made
92
On an aircraft fitted with a fly-by-wire system, complete failure of the electronics system will cause operation of:
a) alternate control law
b) direct control law
c) mechanical back-up
Mechanical back-up
93
During Mach trimming operations:
a) the elevators are displaced to a new neutral position by the neutral shift rod mechanism
b) control column movement will not occur during stabiliser displacement
c) the engine thrust is normally adjusted to prevent CRIT Mach being exceeded
The elevators are displaced to a new neutral position by the neutral shift rod mechanism
94
As an aircraft fitted without differential ailerons enters into a roll to the right, the aileron on the left hand wing will go:
a) down, producing more lift and drag
b) down, producing more lift but less drag
c) up, producing less lift and more drag
Down, producing more lift and drag
95
The fuel supplied or transferred in the LP fuel supply of a modern large aircraft would normally be delivered by a:
a) centrifugal type DC driven pump because they are not positive displacement, do not require a relief valve and would give a vapour free supply
b) spur gear type pump that has a non-positive displacement as it can deliver a fuel supply that is in excess of engine demand
c) non-positive impeller type ac pump as it allows for a smaller size pump to be used because the same size DC pumps produce a lower output
Non-positive impeller type ac pump as it allows for a smaller size pump to be used because the same size DC pumps produce a lower output
96
The pilot of an aircraft would be given a warning of ice formation in the fuel system by:
a) the filter by-pass opening indicating that the actuator valve in the automatic fuel heater had operated
b) the wax charge in the fuel heater contracting and making a fuel temp micro switch filter
c) pressure differential switch on the filter operating, indicating that the manual fuel heater needs opening
Pressure differential switch on the filter operating, indicating that the manual fuel heater needs opening
97
In a variable volume hydraulic pump, there is always a small flow through the pump to:
a) equalise pressures
b) eliminate back pressures
c) dissipate heat
Dissipate heat
98
To prevent ACOV (automatic cut-out valve) hammering in a non-self idling system:
a) a pressure relief valve operates to the return line
b) the ACOV is by-passed when the system is not being used
c) back pressure from the accumulator is utilised
Back pressure from the accumulator is utilised
99
Seals in a hydraulic system are manufactured from:
a) natural rubber when used with mineral fluid
b) synthetic rubber when used with mineral fluid
c) natural rubber in all cases
Synthetic rubber when used with mineral fluid
100
A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system:
a) to maintain a back pressure to the accumulator
b) to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure
c) relieve excessive pressure to return
To ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure
101
A component in a hydraulic system which ensures instantaneous action when a service is selected is:
a) an engine driven pump
b) a selector
c) an accumulator
An accumulator
102
When a ram air is extended in order to generate hydraulic pressure, full system hydraulic pressure is usually achieved approximately 4 to 5 seconds after extension because:
a) the turbine clutch engages progressively
b) the solenoid valve in the pump assembly incorporates a hold-off relay which delays operation to allow the propeller to reach operating speed before being loaded by the pump
c) a volumetric fuse is incorporated in the turbine to allow the propeller to reach operating speed before being loaded by the pump
A volumetric fuse is incorporated in the turbine to allow the propeller to reach operating speed before being loaded by the pump
103
Flushing is normally required in hydraulic systems after:
a) extensive removal and replacement of pipelines or components
b) excessive temperature has occurred
c) when the aircraft is recovered from short term storage
Extensive removal and replacement of pipelines or components
104
When hydraulic system pressure control and relief units fail to function properly, how are most systems protected against over pressurisation:
a) controlled leakage past the main hydraulic pump drive shaft packings
b) a shear section on the main hydraulic pump drive shaft
c) a shuttle valve interconnecting the main and emergency systems
A shear section on the main hydraulic pump drive shaft
105
If the control piston of a variable volume hydraulic pump has jammed and the hydraulic system pressure gauge indicates a steady level of excess system hydraulic pressure, then it is possible that the control piston has jammed in the fully:
a) extended position and the system full-flow relief valve is operating
b) retracted position and the automatic cut-out valve is operating
c) extended position and the pressure reducing valve is operating
Extended position and the system full-flow relief valve is operating
106
Case pressure is maintained in a spur gear hydraulic pump to:
a) act as servo pressure for the pump
b) prevent air ingress in case of seal failure
c) improve internal lubrication
Prevent air ingress in case of seal failure
107
When taking a sample of hydraulic fluid from a system during condition monitoring, it is taken from the:
a) drain point on the reservoir
b) fluid side of the system accumulator after decompression
c) return ground test connection whilst operating the system
Drain point on the reservoir
108
Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised to:
a) reduce the possibility of the hydraulic oil boiling at high altitude, and to prevent cavitation
b) prevent aeration of the hydraulic fluid during manoeuvres and to ensure that the correct fluid contents level is maintained
c) provide a head of pressure during pump failure
Reduce the possibility of the hydraulic oil boiling at high altitude, and to prevent cavitation
109
The principle of thermal anti-icing is to:
a) pump engine bleed air through tubes to change the shape of the aerofoil to break off the ice
b) pass engine bleed air along the aerofoil leading edge surfaces to raise their temperature to prevent the formation of ice
c) use electrically heated mats in leading edges to prevent the formation of ice
Pump engine bleed air along the aerofoil leading edge surfaces to raise their temperature to prevent the formation of ice
110
The serrated rotor ice-detector head will:
a) close a set of contacts, switch a warning lamp and apply heat to clear ice
b) close a set of contacts because of increased rotor torque and illuminate an 'ice' warning
c) rotate constantly at 5000 rpm within 0.5 in of a knife-edge
Close a set of contacts because of increased rotor torque and illuminate an 'ice' warning
111
The distributor is installed flush with the aerofoil leading edge so there is no aerodynamic penalty in the:
a) pneumatic de-icing system
b) fluid de-icing system
c) electrical de-icing system
Fluid de-icing system
112
Glaze ice forms:
a) only in dense clouds where small droplets strike the structure, converting their kinetic energy into heat, allowing the water to spread before freezing
b) in wet snow or sleet conditions where the wet snow flakes give up some kinetic energy as heat
c) in rain conditions where the droplets are large and supercooled, the droplets give up some of their kinetic energy as heat which delays freezing
In rain conditions where the droplets are large and supercooled, the droplets give up some of their kinetic energy as heat which delays freezing
113
Runback icing occurs on an aircraft surface because, as the aircraft passes through certain climatic conditions:
a) the moisture in the atmosphere is heavily supercooled and freezes upon impact with the surface causing the ice to run back over the wing as the aircraft moves through the cloud
b) only a small part of a large water molecule that is slightly supercooled would freeze upon impact allowing the rest of the molecule to move rearwards, freezing as it goes
c) the large water particles present in a heavily supercooled atmosphere take longer to freeze than others, allowing the water particles to hit the leading edge and run rearwards before they freeze
Only a small part of a large water molecule that is slightly supercooled would freeze upon impact, allowing the rest of the molecule to move rearwards, freezing as it goes
114
A landing gear position and warning system will provide a warning on the flight deck when the throttle is:
a) advanced and gear is not down and locked
b) retarded and gear is not down and locked
c) retarded and gear is down and locked
Retarded and gear is not down and locked
115
The electronic anti-skid unit uses:
a) a DC wheel speed sensor to provide phase conscious frequency output directly to proportional to speed
b) an AC wheel speed sensor to provide polarity conscious signals to a convertor unit for frequency control
c) an AC wheel speed sensor to provide a DC output signal whose voltage is in proportion to the frequency of the input
An AC wheel speed sensor to provide a DC output whose voltage is in porportion to the frequency of the input
116
Hydrogen embrittlement on a bogie undercarriage would happen through:
a) lack of lubrication of susceptible components
b) continued operation at high altitude and low temperatures
c) cycles of cold/dry and hot/humid atmospheric conditions found on long haul flights
Lack of lubrication of susceptible components
117
A bogie landing gear provides two types of shock absorption, one type:
a) absorbs the shocks of landing and the other absorbs the shocks of braking
b) reduces the shocks of the front wheels when the bogie strikes the runway and the other type absorbs landing shocks
c) is the brake compensating rods which prevent the front wheels bouncing off the runway and the other type absorbs the main landing shocks
Reduces the shocks of the front wheels when the bogie strikes the runway and the other type absorbs landing shocks
118
To prevent a very rapid extension of an oleo shock strut after initial compression on landing:
a) the metering pin gradually reduces the size of the orifice as the shock strut extends
b) various types of valves or orifices are used which restrict the reverse fluid flow
c) the air is forced through a restricted orifice in the reverse direction
The metering pin graudally reduces the size of the orifice as the shock strut extends
119
The function of the bogie undercarriage tilt jack is to:
a) assist with the absorption of the initial landing loads and to dampen bogie movement on uneven surfaces
b) act with the nose wheel steering causing the bogie to turn in the same direction, reducing the turning circle
c) equalise the heavy braking effort on the bogie brake units when the aircraft tilts forward on its shock absorbers
Assist with the absorption of the initial landing loads and to dampen bogie movement on uneven surfaces
120
To reduce the temperature of the oxygen during the charging process:
a) a thermal inductor is used fitted to the bottle
b) a thermal compensator is used
c) an oxygen heat exchange mainfold is fitted in series with the supply line
A thermal compenator is used
121
In some oxygen systems, orange streamers released from the discharge fitting shows:
a) excess gas pressure has been used during system charging
b) the supply ring-main pressure has risen too high
c) the storage pressure of the cylinder has risen excessively
The storage pressure of the cylinder has risen excessively
122
A pneumatic system dehydrator removes moisture by using:
a) a compressor to remove water by centrifugal force
b) a dessicant
c) a heated chamber
A dessicant
123
No bleed air is delivered from an auxiliary power unit. A possible cause may be:
a) the butterfly shuttle valve is stuck on 'close'
b) pressure interlock circuits have failed
c) the unit speed has held at 75% RPM
The unit speed has held at 75% RPM
124
During engine ground running, an air leak is felt from the ground card service connector. This is caused by the:
a) blanking cap seal leaking
b) bleed air control valve being stuck in the open position
c) check valve leaking
Check valve leaking
125
The APU is selected to provide air to the aircraft cabin conditioning and pressurisation system. The air supply from the APU is shut off automatically when the APU:
a) fire warning switch arms the fire extinguisher
b) is operating over 95% RPM
c) pressure relief valve operates due to excessive system pressure
Fire warning switch arms the fire extinguisher
126
Temperature control of a multi-stage pneumatic compressor is:
a) not required as temperature is controlled by ambient air decrease as altitude is increased
b) provided by a multi-stage cooler attached to each compressor
c) by means of the fins machined on the compressor body
By means of the fins machined on the compressor body
127
From the engine compressor, air is delivered to the main storage bottle via the following components in order:
a) oil and water trap, dehydrator, filter non-return valves
b) non-return valves, dehydrator, oil and water trap filter
c) oil and water trap, dehydrator reducing valve, non-return valves
Oil and water trap, dehydrator, filter, non-return valves
128
A 'frise' aileron is an aileron designed to:
a) move further up than down
b) incorporate mass balance
c) correct for adverse aileron yaw
Correct for adverse aileron yaw
129
On an aircraft, when the rudder is moved:
a) no rolling moment is created
b) a pitching moment is created
c) a small rolling moment is created
A small rolling moment is created
130
A symmetrical aeroplane fin will provide a side-load:
a) only when the rudder is moved
b) if a suitable angle of attack develops due to either yaw or rudder movement
c) only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw
If a suitable angle of attack develops, due to either yaw or rudder movement
131
When a trailing edge flap is lowered during flight, the aircraft trim changes because of a change:
a) of the angle of attack
b) in the position of the centre of pressure
c) in the position of the centre of gravity
In the position of the centre of pressure
132
An aileron control could be balanced aerodynamically by:
a) making the up aileron move through a larger angle than the down aileron
b) attaching a weight to the control surface forward of the hinge
c) setting the hinge back into the control surface
Attaching a weight to the control surface forward of the hinge
133
Tuck under occurs when:
a) the aircraft is at Mcrit
b) a shock stall warning occurs on the inboard portion of a straight wing
c) a shock stall warning occurs on the outboard portion of a swept wing
The aircraft is at Mcrit
134
The limit loads on a structure are:
a) those loads to be at a maximum within the flight envelope
b) the loads to be taken including the safety factor
c) the maximum loads the aircraft can be loaded to for take-off
Those loads to be at a maximum within the flight envelope
135
Negative load limit factors are usually:
a) always the same as positive load limit factors
b) more than positive load limit factors
c) less than positive load limit factors
Less than positive load limit factors
136
When applying etch primers, the paint shop humidity should be:
a) not more than 75% and not less than 30%
b) not less than 30% and not more than 70%
c) not more than 50% and not less than 30%
Not more than 75% and not less than 30%
137
The wings wash out/wash in is checked using:
a) the aircraft manufacturer's incidence board
b) a tape measure and a 5 lb spring balance
c) an inclinometer and a dihedral board
The aircraft manufacturer's incidence board
138
The compressor in a regrigeration system is designed to:
a) supply liquid refrigerant to the evaporator at a suitable pressure
b) raise the pressure of the refrigerant vapour from evaporator to condensing pressure
c) raise the pressure in the evaporator to assist in the evaporation of the refrigerant
Raise the pressure of the refrigerant vapour from evaporator pressure to condensing pressure
139
The humidity in the cabin may be increased by:
a) using an atomised water spray in the main cabin distribution duct
b) injecting water into the compressor of the air cycle machine
c) uniformly saturating the air as it enters the air cycle machine compressor
Using an atomised water spray in the main cabin distribution duct
140
When a pressurised aircraft is climbing, the cabin:
a) pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure
b) differential pressure is maintained constant
c) pressurisation system remains inoperative until 8000 ft is reached
Pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure
141
A firewire test of a capacitive system is achieved by:
a) operation of a push button introducing an additional circuit to lock on a relay giving a fire warning
b) applying direct heat through an electrical element to operate a fire warning
c) operation of a switch to apply a higher potential than normal, dropping the overal circuit resistance to give a fire warning
Operating of a push button introducing an additional circuit to lock on a relay, giving a fire warning
142
The 'systron donner' pneumatic detector circuit:
a) integrity responder diaphragm opens when the helium averaging gas escapes to atmosphere because of unit damage
b) alarm responder diaphragm closes during test procedures causing a warning annunciation
c) alarm responder protection circuits uses a 2.8 kΩ resistor to drop voltage spikes
Integrity responder diaphragm opens when the helium averaging gas escapes to atmosphere because of unit damage
143
Before installing cartridge units to extinguishers:
a) a continuity and insulation check must be carried out using a 250 volt insulation tester
b) the date of manufacture should be checked to ensure sufficient time remains of its 5 year installation life
c) they should be inspected for signs of distortion, corrosion, chafing and other damage
They should be inspected for signs of distortion, corrosion, chafing and other damage
144
The 'Kidde' fire detection system features:
a) two conductors, one soldered to the outer case, surrounded by a dielectric of ceramic beads in a eutectic salt
b) two conductors, one positive, one negative, surrounded by a dielectric of ceramic beads only
c) one conductor, insulated from an inconel outer case, in a packing of eutectic salt dielectric
Two conductors, one soldered to the outer case, surrounded by a dielectric of ceramic beads in a eutectic salt
145
A fire or overheat detection system component:
a) can be used a single unit in multiple fire zones provided it has the one power source
b) for any fire zone may pass through another fire zone provided it is protected against false warnings in transit zones
c) can only ever be used for a single fire zone
Can be used as a single unit in multiple fire zones, provided it has the one power source
146
The fully charged weight of an extinguisher should be checked:
a) to include blanking caps, washers, cartridge units and switch cable assembly
b) at the periods specified in the relevant maintenance schedule and before installation
c) only if it is suspected that extinguishant has leaked or a thermal discharge has occurred
At the periods specified in the relevant maintenance schedule and before installation
147
Fire extinguisher squibs are checked for continuity by:
a) pressing a test switch on a test panel which illuminates a green light
b) using an AVO meter
c) pressing a test switch on the squib assembly which illuminates a green light adjacent to the squib
Pressing a test switch on a test panel which illuminates a green light
148
In an aircraft, having active load control, if an up gust causes the left wing to bend upwards, the movement can be opposed by applying up aileron:
a) and spoilers on the left wing to oppose the effect of the gust
b) only, on the left wing to oppose the effect of the gust
c) and spoilers on the right wing to allow the left wing to ride out the gust
And spoilers on the left wing to oppose the effect of the gust
149
In a fly-by-wire system, when the autopilot is engaged:
a) the side stick controllers of both pilots will follow autopilot movements
b) only the engaged side stick will follow autopilot movement
c) both side sticks remain still
Both side sticks remain still
150
In a ram mounted Power Flying Control Unit (PFCU), to stop movement when the desired position is reached, feedback is provided by:
a) a link joining the ram eye end to the strip assembly
b) movement of the PFCU body
c) a spring unit which applies a stick centring force
Movement of the PFCU body
151
In a ram mounted power operated control, negative feedback is used to control limits. This means that:
a) as the actuator body moves, the selector valve body moves, until the internal drillings are covered, stopping fluid supply
b) an electrical potentiometer senses position through control movement and closes a selector solenoid valve
c) a mechanical linkage connected to the servo valve will close the hydraulic input unit
As the actuator body moves, the selector valve body moves, until the internal drillings are covered, stopping fluid supply
152
If the diaphragm of a 'Q' feel pot is ruptured in flight, the feel force will:
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain unchanged
Decrease
153
Aircraft fuel tanks are vented in order to:
a) ensure a positive head pressure for a submerged booster pump
b) limit pressure differential between the tank and atmosphere
c) eliminate vapour locks
Limit pressure differential between the tank and atmosphere
154
Electrically signalled hydraulic pressure systems send signals to a indicator of which type:
a) moving coil
b) synchronous motor
c) direct reading
Moving coil
155
Standy-by hydraulic systems usually:
a) have a dedicated reservoir and pump
b) share the reservoir and pump with the main system
c) share a common reservoir only with the main system
Have a dedicated reservoir and pump
156
On some hydraulic systems, a solenoid-operated depressurising valve is used to:
a) isolate the reservoir if debris is detected by the micron filter bypass system
b) offload the pump during engine start
c) depressurise the accumulator for servicing purposes
Offload the pump during engine start
157
Lack of servo pressure to a constant pressure pump causes the:
a) system flow to go to maximum to be controlled by the pressure relief valve
b) pump to failsafe to minimum stroke and maintain minimum flow
c) pump to go to maximum stroke and pressure will be controlled by the automatic cut-out valve
System flow to go to maximum to be controlled by the pressure relief valve
158
After a fluid de-icing distribution panel has been installed, a:
a) test flight only is required after replenishment
b) functional check only is required in accordance with two Ops manual
c) functional check and test flight is required after replenishment
Functional check and test flight is required after replenishment
159
The most efficient method of rain removal from a windscreen uses:
a) a foam based repellent sprayed by electric motor
b) a liquid stream of water/ethanol mix under air pressure
c) high pressure, high temperature engine compressor bleed air blown across the screen
High pressure, high temperature engine compressor bleed air blown across the screen
160
In a multi disc brake unit, the brakes are usually released by:
a) springs in the adjuster assemblies moving the pressure plate back to maintain a working clearance in the assembly
b) the side thrust of the segmented rotor pushing the back plate until clearance is obtained
c) the reverse selection of the pistons in the piston housing by the auto braking, anti-skid system
Springs in the adjuster assemblies moving the pressure plate back to maintain a working clearance in the assembly
161
Spongy brakes are usually a result of:
a) internal leakage through perished seals
b) external leakage through faulty fitments
c) air in the system
Air in the system
162
The maximum oxygen content in aircraft tyres IAW Air Worthiness Notice No 70 is:
a) 5% by volume
b) 10% by volume
c) 15% by volume
5% by volume
163
The inflatable harness on some crew oxygen masks:
a) acts as an economiser bag
b) ensures the mask can be fitted one-handed, correctly
c) makes it easier to grasp and adjust when putting the mask on
Ensures the mask can be fitted one-handed, correctly
164
A thermal compensator is used to:
a) reduce the temperature of oxygen produced by an oxygen generator
b) prevent over-pressurisation of the oxygen storage system
c) reduce the temperature of the oxygen during the charging process
Reduce the temperature of the oxygen during the charging process
165
Stick pusher operation:
a) raises the elevator and spoiler units when the aircraft reaches a specified angle of attack and speed combination
b) drives flaps and slats to provide balancing drag through cross-feed controls
c) at a critical angle of attack/speed ratio, drives the controls to lower the elevator trailing edge
At a critical angle of attack/speed ratio, drives the controls to lower the elevator trailing edge
166
If an aircraft has slats permanently fitted behind the wing leading edge:
a) then it may fly normally at high angles of attack
b) the airflow over the wing will be seriously affected at very high speeds
c) the stalling speed will be much higher
Then it may fly normally at high angles of attack
167
A split flap may provide a 60% increase in lift, but:
a) it causes sudden and large forward movement of the centre of pressure
b) would need to be balanced by an opposite movement of the elevator trim tab
c) will suddenly lose lift when the wing stalls
Will suddenly lost lift when the wing stalls
168
Trim tabs:
a) must always be balanced to prevent flutter
b) should have minimum system backlash
c) can be repainted without re-balancing being carried out
Should have minimum system backlash
169
An anti-servo tab is used to:
a) reduce the amount of aerodynamic balance on an all-moving stabiliser
b) assist movement of the elevator at high speed
c) provide pitch-down control at high speeds
Reduce the amount of aerodynamic balance on an all-moving stabiliser
170
The effect of changing the amount of sweepback on a wing of an aircraft has the effect of:
a) delaying the onset of an incipient shockwave as sweepback is increased and reducing the critical Mach number
b) increasing the critical Mach number and delaying the formation of shock waves as sweepback is reduced
c) decreasing the relative speed that air travels over the wing as sweepback is increased and increasing the critical Mach number
Decreasing the relative speed that air travels over the wing as sweepback is increased and increasing the critical Mach number
171
Aircraft built to the requirements of CS 25 require 'safe flight and landing' following a control jam or severance. This is achieved by:
a) providing electrically actuated standby power control units
b) duplicating the aileron and elevator control run and providing a disconnect unit
c) using manual trim and engine control adjustment to create asymmetric lift
Duplicating the aileron and elevator control run and providing a disconnect unit
172
The aircraft structure used in fatigue testing is:
a) taken from the production line
b) specially built for use in the fatigue testing program
c) the example of the aircraft type which has been in operation on passenger carrying duties for the longest period
Taken from the production line
173
A longeron may:
a) run the whole length of a wing upper skin
b) be part of the cargo loading system
c) be part of a passenger seat track
Be part of a passenger seat track
174
Air supplied for conditioning and pressurisation is:
a) hottest from an engine compressor bleed
b) hottest from a compressor driven by an engine gearbox
c) the same for both the above sources
Hottest from an engine compressor bleed
175
On take off, when pressurisation is initiated, the cabin rate of climb will:
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain zero
Increase
176
Inward vent valves are fitted in order to:
a) limit positive differential
b) limit negative differential
c) increase ventilation
Limit negative differential
177
The standard altitude at which aircraft cabin altitude warning horn will sound is triggered at:
a) 14000 feet
b) 10000 feet
c) 8000 feet
10000 feet
178
If airspeed is a function of the difference between pitot and static pressures and the speed of sound is a function of static pressure and density, then a mach number is the resultant of the:
a) airspeed divided by the speed of sound
b) speed of sound times airspeed
c) speed of sound divided by airspeed
Airspeed divided by the speed of sound
179
In a pneumatic type continuous length fire detector, the hydrogen gas:
a) detects a rapid rise in temperature at some point along the length of the detector
b) detects an increase in temperature along the entire length of the detector
c) slows the expansion of the helium gas when there is a slow rise in temperature
Detects a rapid rise in temperature at some point along the length of the detector
180
In a smoke detector using a photo-electric cell, the test lamp is connected:
a) in series with the beacon lamp
b) both in series and parallel with the beacon lamp
c) in parallel with the beacon lamp
In series with the beacon lamp
181
If a fire extinguisher is discharged intentionally, external indication is by means of:
a) a coloured disc being pushed from its housing by means of a plunger
b) a coloured disc being pushed from its housing by extinguishant gas pressure
c) the extinguishant gas being visible through a window on the outside of the aircraft
A coloured disc being pushed from its housing by means of a plunger
182
The differential expansion switch operates on the principles of:
a) a difference in the electrical properties between two metals producing a signal when heated
b) coefficient of linear expansion between different metals opening contacts when heated to give a fire warning
c) one bi-metallic switch bending to open circuit the switch, releasing relay contacts for fire warning
One bi-metallic switch bending to open circuit the switch, releasing relay contacts for fire warning
183
On aircraft using the system, an aileron lock-out mechanism is used to:
a) prevent damage to free aileron movement when aircraft is parked in high winds
b) isolate outboard ailerons from the lateral control system during high speed flight
c) limit aileron movement on approach with flaps at maximum down position
Isolate outboard ailerons from the lateral control system during high speed flight
184
A static friction check is carried out by:
a) moving the cockpit controls to ensure that the surfaces and any indication are shown in the correct direction
b) pulling the control system through its full range using a spring balance attached to the column
c) moving the controls in both directions from neutral and measuring range of movement
Pulling the control system through its full range using a spring balance attached to the column
185
LP cocks are often used as:
a) cross-feed valves, split field electric motor operated with electromagnetic braking and limit switch control
b) flow control devices, fitted in jettison systems
c) unit control devices for external fuelling control with solenoid operated warnings
Cross-feed valves, split field electric motor operated with electromagnetic braking and limit switch control
186
A fuel system for a multi-engined aircraft typically has:
a) two electrical booster pumps in series in each tank, paralleled with the engine LP pump
b) an electrical booster pump and ejector unit in series in each tank, also in series with the engine LP pump
c) two parallel mounted electrical booster pumps feeding a one line valve controlled engine LP pump
Two parallel mounted electrical booster pumps feeding a one line valve controlled engine LP pump
187
Any pressure build up of the refuelling inlet line when the refuel/defuel valve is closed is:
a) relieved via the non-return valve and spring loaded refuel solenoid plunger, to the tank
b) vented to atmosphere through an HP safety valve in the fuel connector unit
c) shunted to the by-pass ducting for exhaust relief
Relieved via the non-return valve and spring loaded refuel solenoid plunger, to the tank
188
When refuelling or defuelling an aircraft:
a) ground power units may operate when positioned under a wing and away from the fuel source
b) ensure the aircraft is at least 15 feet from any building with engine exhaust in any direction
c) no smoking signs must be displayed not less than 15 metres from the fuelling area which must have proper fire extinguishers
No smoking signs must be displayed not less than 15 metres from the fuelling area which msut have proper fire extinguishers
189
Pressure relay valves are fitted before a pressure:
a) relief valve
b) sequence valve
c) gauge
Gauge
190
Hand pump fluid supply is drawn from:
a) a stack pipe higher than the normal fluid supply
b) the bottom of the reservoir
c) a stack pipe tapped into the top of the reservoir
The bottom of the reservoir
191
A shuttle valve is used for:
a) maintaining fluid pressure when the emergency system fails
b) change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure
c) preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack
Change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure
192
Relief valves are used in hydraulic systems:
a) for one direction flow only
b) as damage preventing units
c) to control the speed of the ailerons
As damage preventing units
193
What is the advantage of a variable displacement pump over a fixed displacement pump:
a) higher operating pressure
b) the pump is unloaded when not required
c) it has no requirement for lubrication
The pump is unloaded when not required
194
Filter blockage indicators usually work on the principle of:
a) coplanar areas
b) differential pressures
c) permanent magnets
Differential pressures
195
Which of the following warnings, relevant to the hydraulic system, are normally given to the pilot:
a) low pressure and low quantity
b) high pressure and high temperature
c) low pressure, overheat and low quantity
Low pressure, overheat and low quantity
196
The considered most dangerous type of aircraft icing is:
a) glaze, because of its spoiling effect on surface airflow
b) glime, because it can accumulate in intakes and cooling ducts
c) dry, because it can sometimes occur on wing surfaces where integral fuel tanks are fitted
Glaze, because of its spoiling effect on surface airflow
197
When servicing an oleo shock strut, it is filled with:
a) mineral oil at its full extended position, then charged with air to the specified pressure
b) hydraulic fluid when compressed then inflated with nitrogen to the specified pressure
c) air when fully compressed, to bring it to a charged position, then topped up with hydraulic fluid
Hydraulic fluid when compressed, then inflated with nitrogen to the specified pressure
198
Heat dissipation in wheel units is achieved by:
a) design, where wheels are vented and flared
b) additional heat conscious binding particles incorporated in tyre construction
c) vented, conditioned air from engine units
Design, where wheels are vented and flared
199
If a wheel tie-bolt is found defective:
a) the tyre should be scrapped and the bolt replaced
b) the wheel should be removed and the complete set renewed
c) providing it is the only one, replacement can be delayed until the next wheel removal
The wheel should be removed and the complete set renewed
200
Oxygen generators which are time or life expired:
a) can be transported in aircraft provided that they are prepared for transport in accordance with the Dangerous Goods Act regulations
b) can be transported in cargo only aircraft provided that they are prepared for transport in accordance with the Dangerous Goods Act regulations
c) cannot be transported in cargo only aircraft, even if they are prepared for transport in accordance with the Dangerous Goods Act regulations
Can be transported in cargo only aircraft, even if they are prepared for transport in accordance with the Dangerous Goods Act regulations
201
If an aircraft is flying at cruising speeds, how are demands for more bleed air satisfied:
a) the pressure regulator and shut-off valves are operated by the crew
b) the high stage valve is operated by the high pressure regulator
c) the throttles are opened progressively to provide compressor air
The high stage valve is operated by the high pressure regulator
202
On landing, crew report toilet water heater is off, with no indication. A possible cause may be that the water heater:
a) has reached its pre-determined temperature for normal use
b) has exceeded its maximum temperature and the overheat switch has operated
c) is unable to heat the water to its normal temperature for use and the system has shut down
Has exceeded its maximum temperature and the overheat switch has operated
203
When the aircraft is at an altitude of 30000 feet, vacuum toilets operate by:
a) blowers creating a vacuum in the storage tanks
b) differential pressure between the cabin and the atmosphere
c) suction pumps fitted in the toilet waste storage tank
Differential pressure between the cabin and the atmosphere
204
The potential range of movement or travel for most controls is the same in both directions, however in which direction do the elevators have the greater movement:
a) up
b) down
c) lateral
Up
205
Elevators usually have a greater range of travel in the up direction, but what is the reason for this:
a) provide extra force when pulling out of a dive
b) provide extra force when in a climb
c) provide extra force when rolling to the left or to the right
Provide extra force when pulling out of a dive
206
On a Delta wing aircraft that is climbing and banking left at the same time, the elevons on:
a) both wings would be deployed up, but the elevon on the left would be in a lower position
b) the right hand wing would be retracted slightly to allow for the turn
c) the right wing would be deployed up and the elevon on the left deployed down
Both wings would be deployed up, but the elevon on the left would be in a lower position
207
Before installation of a fire extinguisher cartridge, a check should be made that:
a) the five year storage life has not been exceeded
b) a suitable firing power supply is available at the electrical connector when selected
c) if used before, the cartridge has enough of its three year installation life remaining
The five year storage life has not been exceeded
208
When the booster pump is operating normally:
a) extra flow is induced through the suction valve to provide maximum flow
b) the suction valve is kept closed by the pump pressure in the delivery pipeline
c) the suction valve is selected open when the tank is low to prevent cavitation
The suction valve is kept closed by the pump pressure in the delivery pipeline
209
A cascade device:
a) ensures the tanks are defuelled in the correct order
b) allows fuel from the jettison system to be discharged away from the aircraft
c) prevents damage to the inside of the tank during refuelling
Prevents damage to the inside of the tank during refuelling
210
In a high pressure hydraulic system, o ring seals are usually fitted:
a) alone
b) in pairs
c) with a back-up ring
With a back-up ring
211
If a hydraulic fluid is subjected to a pressure of 5000 psi, it will compress approximately:
a) 1%
b) 5%
c) 10%
1%
212
Constant speed of a Ram Air Turbine is achieved with the aid of:
a) a volumetric fuse
b) an electric motor
c) weights subject to centrifugal force
Weights subject to centrifugal force
213
To increase the longitudinal control at high speed:
a) the elevator is fitted with an anti-balance tab
b) the rudder is fitted with an anti-balance tab
c) a variable incidence tailplane is fitted
A variable incidence tailplane is fitted
214
The purpose of the leading edge droop flap is to:
a) give more cambered section for high-speed flight
b) increase the wing area for take-off and landing
c) increase leading edge camber and delay separation of airflow
Increase leading edge camber and delay separation of airflow
215
Incipient shockwaves first appear:
a) on the aircraft's nose
b) on the thickest part of the wing
c) at the engine intakes
On the thickest part of the wing
216
In pressurised aircraft, the pressure loads across cabin floors are supported by:
a) longerons
b) floor beams
c) intercostals
Floor beams
217
When doing an aircraft symmetry check using plumb bobs and floor measurements, the aircraft:
a) should be fully fueled
b) need not be in the rigging position
c) must be in the rigging position
Must be in the rigging position
