EXAMS Flashcards

Question

What is the diffenrence between intrinsic/extrinsic acids and plaque acid?

Answer 1

Plaque acid is less strong than intrinsic/extrinsic acids, thus take longer to effect enamel

Answer 2

1.High biodiversity in the biofilm 2.Low amount of acidogenic & aciduric bacteria 3.High numbers of Alkali producing bacteria 4.High resting pH of biofilm

Answer 3

Lifestyle changes

Answer 4

It is able to use it's acidity to dissolve hydroxyapatite and use calcium for creation of fluorapatite – this is great for xerostomic conditions.

Answer 5

Calcium is intact with a CPP and is able to penetrate deep into the caries lesion and release calcium for remin due to acidity produced by cariogenic bacteria

Answer 6

1.Change the ecology of the biofilm 2.Improve the saliva 3.Remove cause and re-establish new biofilm

Answer 7

Patient and dentist work collectively to develop a plan that satisfies the patient's needs.

Answer 8

1.Their oral health status 2.Waht will happen if nothing is done 3.Treatment options 4.What patient is required to do 5.IF they want to proceed

Answer 9

Full examination, with all histories and potential extra test like bitewing radiographs

Answer 10

Focus on hygiene instructions and removal of plaque and stains. Could potentially make a diet diary

Answer 11

Because it requires a removal of a large amount of healthy structure thus it is not ideal for a long term prognosis of the tooth.

Answer 12

MI philosophy indicates that maximum amount of tooth structure and affected dentine can remain intact IF infected dentine is removed and affected dentine is sealed.

Answer 13

Pits, fissures and enamel defects on occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth and cingulum and other smooth surfaces of the interiors

Answer 14

Approximal surfaces in relation to areas in contact with adjacent teeth

Answer 15

The cervical one-third of the crown, or following gingival recession, the exposed root

Answer 16

1.Aesthetics 2.Handling properties 3.Biocompatibility 4.Protect tooth bioactive 5.Function 6.Longevity 7.Radiopacity

Answer 17

1.Aesthetics 2.Toothstructure to bond 3.Strengthen tooth structure 4.Blood and moisture can be controlled 5.Where occlusal loads are not sever

Answer 18

Synthetic Organic resin (which is a viscous liquid) that is bonded to inorganic filler particles with a silane coupling agent made to set or light cured.

Answer 19

Barium or Strontium

Answer 20

1.Prophylaxis 2.Acid treatment – for microporosities – increase of surface area for interlocking in the area and create a macromechenical bond – increase of surface area by 2000 times 3.Wash and dry – stop the demin process and remove moisture 4.Fluid (unfiled) resin – flow into microporosities to create resin tags – chemical bonding 5.Unfilled resin polymerised 6.Composite resin placed 7.Polymerised

Answer 21

Etching – this will expose collagen – may cause pulpal fluid to flow up which can compromise the bond – etch for a little less Use a primer – wet or dry – dry: collagen is collapsed which rehydrated – wet: small amount of water remains – creation of hybrid zone Unfilled resin Polymerise Filled resin Polymerise

Answer 22

They bond chemically throguh ion exchange and can exchange ions with tooth and oral environment.

Answer 23

1.Polyacid attacks glass particles – calcium, strontium and fluoride are released 2.Precipitation of salts occurs = gelatation and gathering occurs 3.Maturation phase = acid/base reaction continues for a few days

Answer 24

GIC are vulnerable to take-up of extra water or water loss. This may create a loss in physical properties. This can be avoided by layering of unfilled resin of G-coat over the top.

Answer 25

1.Clean the surfaces with pumice and water – for better ion exchange 2.Use Polyacrylic acid – depending on % - to remove the smear layer and exposure the clean tooth surface for ionic exchange 3.Wash it off – stop the reaction 4.Dry but do not desiccate – stop flow of dentinal fluid 5.Place GIC 6.Protect in the moisture sensitive phase

Answer 26

When certain alloys are processed like silver or tin, they can harden when mixed with liquid mercury

Answer 27

1.Remove caries or remove failed amalgam 2.Consider depth of cavity – at least 2 mm into dentine 3.Remove unsupported enamel 4.Retention - macromechanical retention 5.Liner/base 6.Pack amalgam using a plugger – permite ect amalgam used in sim 7.Burnish 8.Carve using cuspal inclines 9.Articulating paper and adjustment 10.Polish 24 hours later

Answer 28

1.Visual Examination – clean, dry, illuminate well and use the tip of the explorer 2.Radiographs - just remember of superimposition, it is probably bigger than it is on radiographs 3.DIAGNOdent - measuring reflected light – little to no florescence in clean, healthy teeth

Answer 29

1.Caries - through bacterial acids, toxins and enzymes 2.Micro-leakage – due to unsealed margins – could cause sensitivity and recurrent caries – seal so bacteria can go into a dormant state 3.Mechanical damage – fracture, cavity preparation, cracked cusps, dehydration 4.Thermal damage – during cavity preparation friction, polishing, absence of insulation (base & liner) 5.Chemical damage – Hema & Tegma & other acids

Answer 30

1.Location 2.Commencement of pain 3.Character of pain 4.Frequency 5.Duration 6.Time 7.Precipitation factors 8.Other complains

Answer 31

Dentinal tubules contain an extension of the odontoblasts (odontoblastic process) in the part of the tubule that is proximal to the pulp. Around the odontoblastic process, coiled are small nerve extensions. The rest of the space inside a dentinal tubule is filled by dentinal fluid. If the fluid is disturbed through heat, cold, dehydration and even touch and pressure, it causes the fluid to move which activates the pulpal nociceptros around the odontoblastic processes this cause an action potential and signals for pain.

Answer 32

Because amalgam would not reach it's set, meaning it may chip away and create ecological niches for bacteria to thrive.

Answer 33

NOPE. Even if we have early demin, we can actually remineralise the enamel by changing conditions in the oral cavity to supersaturated condition! We can do it all the way upto cavitation!

Answer 34

1.When the demin is exclusive to the enamel 2.When there is affected dentine but no infected dentine

Answer 35

1.Tissue exposed – enamel only, enamel and dentine or exposed pulp 2.Surfaces involved 3.Check occlusion

Answer 36

It is a process of cutting the enamel, at 45%, to increase the surface area of enamel for bonding. This could be created with high speed diamond burs.. Make sure that the transition is smooth. Pls do both palatal and labial.

Answer 37

1.Upper posteriors are affected first 2.Diffuses and affects the upper anterior next

Answer 38

1.Occlusal of lower affected first 2.Palatal of upper anterior

Answer 39

1.Identify teeth present, unerupted/missing, not imagted and restorations 2.Identify abnormalities that are present

Answer 40

1.Localised - 10% - 30% BOP 2.Generalised - >30% BOP No pain or no clinical attachment loss

Answer 41

Proximal clinical attachment loss of equal or above 2 teeth, non-adjacent OR Buccal/oral clinical attachment loss of 3mm with 3mm pocketing at 2 teeth or more

Answer 42

1.Teeth present/missing 2.Morphology of teeth 3.Wear - mild, moderate, sever 4.Crowding,spacingrotations 5.Axail inclanations 6.Shape of dental arch 7.Cruve of spee and wilsons curve 8.Angle molar classification/canine classification 9.Overbite (%) / overjet (mm) 10.Mediolateral

Answer 43

Ask, assess, acknowledge and address that can be used to adress a patient with dental anxiety

Answer 44

It stand for as low as reasonably possible - which is a concept used in radiography in order to reduce radiation exposure for both the operator and patient. 1.Keep your distance 2.Shield 3.Do not take unnecessary radiographs

Answer 45

It is able to provide some protection to the enamel. It also allows for binding of bacteria to the surface of the tooth

Answer 46

1. Stop 2. Place needle/sharp aside 3. Take off gloves 4. Wash hands with soap and water 5. Dry and cover with non-stick dressing 6. Apply pressure if bleeding 7. Let tutor know 8. Contact SADS registered nurse for risk assessment 9. Write up incident report - SLS

Answer 47

1.1-2mm attachment loss 2.Coronal third bone loss 3.No tooth loss 4.Maximum probing depth of below 4mm 5.Mostly horizontal bone loss 6.Extent variable

Answer 48

1.3-4mm attachment loss 2.Coronal third bone loss 3.No tooth loss 4.Maximum probing depth of below 5mm 5.Mostly horizontal bone loss 6.Extent variable

Answer 49

1.5mm or more attachment loss 2.Bone loss extending to middle or apical third of the root 3.Tooth loss due to periodontitis of 4 or less teeth 4.Probing depth of 6 mm or more 5.Vertical bone loss of 3 mm or more 6.Class II or III furcation 7.Moderate ridge defect

Answer 50

1.5mm or more attachment loss 2.Bone loss extending to middle or apical third of the root 3.Tooth loss due to periodontitis of 5 or more 4.Probing depth of 6 mm or more 5.Vertical bone loss of 3 mm or more 6.Class II or III furcation 7.Moderate ridge defect 8.Mastication disfunction

Answer 51

When there are no evidence of loss over 5 years

Answer 52

When there is a below 2 mm loss over 5 years.

Answer 53

When there is an above 2mm loss over 5 years

Answer 54

1. Differential diagnosis presentation 2. Consent for further tests 3. Further investigation and tests pefromance 4. Presentation of treatment with products and justification and potential timeline 5. Recall to check the results of the treatment

Answer 55

1.Recognise and acknowledge your patient's anxiety/fear 2.Invite your patient to talk about their anxiety/fear e.i. anything in particular that concerns them 3.Offer some piratical suggestions - try to work with a patient to accommodate for their needs.

Answer 56

1.Acknowledge the distress and the person's experience 2.Say wha has been, or will be, done to investigate the complaint 3.State wat has been done could be done to address the concerns 4.Mention any changes or action taken

Answer 57

Occurs at tissue damage before treatment. There is an emidiate onset which creates psychological response. It goes with resolution unlike chronic pain.

Answer 58

1.Warning about something 2.Reminding - for example healing promotion

Answer 59

Swearing can cause sympathetic response e.g. arousal - stressed induced analgesia due to increased fight or flight

Answer 60

There is a theory that motor activation has a modulatory effect in addition to arousal

Answer 61

The potential explanation is induced analgesia from stress

Answer 62

There are studies that show that local anaesthetic is more likely to fail in patient with high dental fear

Answer 63

Using biophsycosocial model

Answer 64

1. Amino esther - broken down by enzymes 2. Amide type - metabolised in the liver

Answer 65

The molecules bind to amino acids on amino acids, and simply blocking the channel. This does not allow for depolarisation thus stop the propagation of action potential.

Answer 66

To get through the phospho-lipid bi-layer of the cell membrane

Answer 67

We design it to be amphiphatic

Answer 68

It represent the balance between charged and uncharged molecles of the solution. I.E. at pKa 7.6 there is equal number of molecules, thus at pH 7.6 there will be am equal number of molecules

Answer 69

The uncharged RN molecules, represent the number of molecules that can pass through the phospho-lipid bi-layer as they are water soluble. Turns to RNH+ which actually bind to sodium channel.

Answer 70

The pH at the injecting site may alter the numbers of RN making it unable to diffuse into the cells.

Answer 71

This can decrease the number of RNs at the injection site thus will prolong the onset of the anaesthetic.

Answer 72

1.Decrease blood flow 2.Slow absorption of LA into blood stream 3.Maintain higher local concentrations of LA 4.Longer duration of LA action 5.Reduced bleeding

Answer 73

1. 2% Lignocaine (Xylocaine) with 1:80000 adrenaline 2. 3% Prilocaine (Citanest) with 0.03 iu/ml octapressin 3. 3% Mepivacaine (Scandonest Plain) - no vasocontrictor 4. 4% Articaine (Articadent) with 1:100000 adrenaline

Answer 74

1. Aspirating and non-aspirating syringes 2. Short (25mm) and long (40mm) needles 3. 25, 27 (the usual size, and 30 gauge needles 4. Glass cartridges

Answer 75

1. Topical 2.Block 3.Infiltration

Answer 76

1.Level - coronoid notch, 1cm above lower occlusal plane, midway between arches with mouth wide open, buccal pad 2.Angle - opposite premolars 3.Entry point - pterygotemporal depression

Answer 77

Around industrial revolution due to production of sucrose

Answer 78

Acid produced by bacteria

Answer 79

Acid produced by bacteria

Answer 80

1. The microbe should be found in all cases of the disease 2. The microbe can be grown on artificial medium 3. A pure culture of the organism should produce the disease in a susceptible animal 4. A high antibody titre to the microbe should be detected during the infection - may provide protection from subsequent re-infection

Answer 81

1. The microbe should be present n sufficient numbers to initiate the disease 2. The microbe should generate increased levels of specific antibodies 3. The microbe should possess relevant virulence factors 4. The microbe should cause disease in an appropriate animal model 5. Elimination of the microbe should result in clinical improvement

Answer 82

1890 hypothesis by Prof. Miller that said that non-specific bacteria and plaque on teeth as awhole is the reason for occurance of dental carries

Answer 83

Streptococcus mutans

Answer 84

1960s hypothesis by Prof. Keys, which states that dental caries relates to prevalence for Streptococcus mutans and diet

Answer 85

Disease results from shifts in the balance of the resident plaque microflora. Sugar = increased in pH = increase in acidoduric Streptococcus mutans

Answer 86

Around 71% of fissure caries have a high number of Mutans streptococci

Answer 87

It is a group of bacteria that is able to increase the pH of the nvironment. It is has an inverse relationship to Mutans streptococci

Answer 88

Lactobacilli

Answer 89

They dicrease with the depth of the lesion

Answer 90

The ability of an organism to cause infectious disease

Answer 91

1.Attache to host 2.Entry into host 3.Colonisation and growth within the host 4.Ability to avoid host defenses

Answer 92

They cause disease in compromised individuals

Answer 93

They are bacteria that can become pathogenic if environment changes

Answer 94

It is the pathogens abilityt o cause disease

Answer 95

1.Release of nutrients 2.Allow spreading to the next host, by inducing coughing or diarrhoea

Answer 96

When bacteria attaches to the pellicle in order to create biofilm. Bacteria has a receptor and pellicle has an adhesin

Answer 97

Breaks in skin

Answer 98

Type III secretion

Answer 99

1. Trace element shortage. Pathogen remove iron from iron binding proteins found, in transferrin and lactoferrin which creates competition for resources 2. Bacteria sense cell density and express virulence genes only when their numbers reach a certain quorum (quorum sensing)

Answer 100

They are enzymes that are produced by P. Gingivalis. They produce many virulence factors. Gingipains are aggresive endopeptidases (protein distruction)

Answer 101

T and B cells

Answer 102

Nope, that is why we have the CD system

Answer 103

Through INNATE-PAMPS which are structure that are common to all bacteria but are not present on host cells

Answer 104

Through use of different types of marking using immunoglubulins or cytokines

Answer 105

This leads to autoimmunity

Answer 106

1.Humoral immunity - using immunoglobulins 2. Cell mediated - using different T cells

Answer 107

Bone marrow, B cells stay in bone marrow or spleen. T cells go to the thymus

Answer 108

T cells have a straight, alfa+beta chain receptor. B cells have an immunoglobulin as a receptor

Answer 109

T lymphocytes reside in blood and lymph. B lymphocytes just in blood

Answer 110

It is the major receptor on T cells that use used to recognise antigens. It is one of the most important receptors in adaptive immunity and without it the entire adaptive immune system would not be able to function.

Answer 111

MHC class I used used for activation of CD8+ cytotoxic pathway. MHC class II used for activation of helper CD4+ pathway

Answer 112

MADE in Germany

Answer 113

1.Neutralisaiton 2.Opsonisation - labeling 3.Cross linking and immobilisation

Answer 114

GIC main contain protective components that lower the number of Mutans Streptococci than with amalgam

Answer 115

It is actually belived that root caries have a polymicrobial aetiology, meaning it is usually not just one type of bacteria

Answer 116

1. Sugar transport - high and low affinity transport systems 2. Acid production for proliferation 3.Aciduricity - ability to survive in acidic environments 4.EPS production - contributions to plaque matrix 5.IPS production - allows for production of acit when sugar is not available

Answer 117

1.Sucrose-PTS 2.Trehalose-PTS 3.Multi Sugar TS

Answer 118

It aids in attachment to the biofilm structure to the tooth

Answer 119

They are extracellular enzymes that have a glucan-binding domain that aids in adherence

Answer 120

Because it allows for the binding mechanism relating to GTFs to start unlike glucose

Answer 121

1.Increase sucrose consumption 2.Resulting in increasingly acidic environment 3.This favours acidoduric bacteria 4.This drive demineralisation

Answer 122

1. Identify teeth present, unerupted/missing, not imagted and restorations 2. Identify abnormalities that are present

Answer 123

Odontogenesis - formation of tooth germ from primary epithelial band and dental lamina Bud stage: Formation of epithelial bud surrounded by condensing ectomesenchyme Cap stage: Formation of enamel organ and initiasl differentiation of enamel cell types. Dental sac and papilla form and begin genesis of dentine and PDL/cementum respectively. Bell stage: Occlusal shape is now formed IEE cells, all cells of the enamel organ are now differentiated, communication with epithelial band is severed and tooth germ is embedded in ectomesenchyme

Answer 124

Morphogenic: IEE cells gain polarity Histodifferential: IEE cells differentiate into preaameloblasts - stimulate odontoblasts from DP cells - differentiate into ameloblasts Initial secretory: formation of initial layer of aprismatic enamel on dentine Secretory: Formation of Tome's processes, secrertion of enamel matrix. Proximal end of Tome's process forms interod enamel, distal portion forms rod enamel. Protective: Ameloblasts lay dormant, 50% of the initial population has now apoptosed

Answer 125

It is the reduction in the amount of enamel matrix produced - presents as pitting, may caause sensitivity

Answer 126

It is the inability for sufficient organic material to be removed during maturation stage of amelogenesis - presents as variation in colour from white-yellow-brown, teeth are highly vulnerable to staining and tooth wear

Answer 127

It is insufficient inorganic material deposition during maturative stage - teeth adopt chalky, yellow appearance, highly vulnerable to staining and tooth wear

Answer 128

1. Hypoplasia 2. Hypomineralisation 3. Hypocalcification

Answer 129

1.Localised - 10% - 30% BOP 2.Generalised - \>30% BOP No pain or no clinical attachment loss

Answer 130

Proximal clinical attachment loss of equal or above 2 teeth, non-adjacent OR Buccal/oral clinical attachment loss of 3mm with 3mm pocketing at 2 teeth or more

Answer 131

1. Bacterial build in biofilm - dominance of gram negative and opportunistic bacteria 2. Gram negative bacteria release LPS 3. This triggers an inflammatory response 4. Influx of neutrophils (due to release of IL-8 by epithelial tissue) to form palisade 5. Release of pro-inflamatory cytokines and enzyme - chemotaxic agents for leukocytes & marcophages 6. Need for creation of space for cells - break down of collagen fibres and lateral prolifiration + apical migration of the junction epithelium - creation of the pseudo pocket due to oedema 7. End result - damage to collagen but no damage to periodontal attachmnet

Answer 132

Local: calculus and over hangs - more sites for harbouring of bacteria, xerostomia - reduciton in anti-microbial effect of saliva Systemic: Smoking - reduction in blood flow and immune function - more periodontopathogens arise,; Diabetes - increased formation of Advanced Glyation End Products - increased osteo clast function and oxidative stress - increased tissue destruction

Answer 133

Debridment. Remember that long axis to the tooth should be parallel to the terminal shank

Answer 134

Syncope can occur in patient when insulin administration is mistimed. Brain has an absolute need for oxygen, glucose and neural signalling. If a patient has type I diabetes and they miss their breakfast and take their medication, it can lead to hypoglycemia because the residue glucose will be taken up from the blood. Because brain requires a constant supply of glucose and is unable to do so in this situation, it shuts down.

Answer 135

1. Stop treatment 2. Lay patient in supine position 3. Provide refined carbohydrates 4. Monitor and supervise - get help if needed

Answer 136

Reduction in: 1. Oestrogen 2. Growth hormone 3. Aldosterone 4. Melatonin

Answer 137

Decreased production occurs upon completion of menstruation, leading to two distinct outcomes for 2 systems. For bone: 1. Reduced apoptosis of osteoclasts 2. Decreased IGF-1 formation leading to decreased formation of osteoblasts 3. Reduced osteoprotegerin formation For vasculature: 1. Reduced formation of coagulation factors 2. Reduced function of platelets

Answer 138

1. Reduced muscle mass 2. Increased adiposity

Answer 139

Reduce secretion leads to hyponatremia or hyperkaleamia

Answer 140

Reduced secretion which causes advanced sleep phase syndrome

Answer 141

Palatal of maxillary posteriors and anteriors as the tongue covers the lower teeth relatively well

Answer 142

Mostly lower posteriors

Answer 143

Ask, assess, acknowledge and address that can be used to adress a patient with dental anxiety

Answer 144

It stand for as low as reasonably possible - which is a concept used in radiography in order to reduce radiation exposure for both the operator and patient. 1. Keep your distance 2. Shield 3. Do not take unnecessary radiographs

Answer 145

It may damage the pulp because it is toxic thus it needs to be polymerised. Becomes a problem in wet environment or when placed in large increment.

Answer 146

1. Prophylaxis 2. Acid treatment – for microporosities – increase of surface area for interlocking in the area and create a macromechenical bond – increase of surface area by 2000 times 3. Wash and dry – stop the demin process and remove moisture 4. Fluid (unfiled) resin – flow into microporosities to create resin tags – chemical bonding 5. Unfilled resin polymerised 6. Composite resin placed 7. Polymerised

Answer 147

Etching – this will expose collagen – may cause pulpal fluid to flow up which can compromise the bond – etch for a little less Use a primer – wet or dry – dry: collagen is collapsed which rehydrated – wet: small amount of water remains – creation of hybrid zone Unfilled resin Polymerise Filled resin Polymerise

Answer 148

They bond chemically throguh ion exchange and can exchange ions with tooth and oral environment.

Answer 149

1. Cute the GIC and create space for resin 2. Etch 3. Put unfilled resin on the GIC and etch enamel – GIC has irregular shape = micro-mechanical bonding 4. Cure 5. Place resin 6. Cure

Answer 150

When GIC if covered around with another material

Answer 151

When GIC is exposed outside the tooth – to the oral environment

Answer 152

1. Clean the surfaces with pumice and water – for better ion exchange 2. Use Polyacrylic acid – depending on % - to remove the smear layer and exposure the clean tooth surface for ionic exchange 3. Wash it off – stop the reaction 4. Dry but do not desiccate – stop flow of dentinal fluid 5. Place GIC 6. Protect in the moisture sensitive phase

Answer 153

Due to their thermal properties

Answer 154

1. Remove caries or remove failed amalgam 2. Consider depth of cavity – at least 2 mm into dentine 3. Remove unsupported enamel 4. Retention - macromechanical retention 5. Liner/base 6. Pack amalgam using a plugger – permite ect amalgam used in sim 7. Burnish 8. Carve using cuspal inclines 9. Articulating paper and adjustment 10. Polish 24 hours later

Answer 155

1. Clean surface – remove debris 2. Etch (orthophosphoric acid 37%) 3. Wash - stop reaction 4. Dry well – frosty appearance 5. Flow in fissure – no bubbles 6. Light cure it 7. Check occlusion

Answer 156

1. Clean surface – pumice 2. Condition with polyacrylic acid 3. Wash 4. Dry - leave moist 5. Place in fissure 6. Apply protective coat 7. Cure 8. Check occlusion

Answer 157

Hydrodynamic theory

Answer 158

Dentinal tubules contain an extension of the odontoblasts (odontoblastic process) in the part of the tubule that is proximal to the pulp. Around the odontoblastic process, coiled are small nerve extensions. The rest of the space inside a dentinal tubule is filled by dentinal fluid. If the fluid is disturbed through heat, cold, dehydration and even touch and pressure, it causes the fluid to move which activates the pulpal nociceptros around the odontoblastic processes this cause an action potential and signals for pain.

Answer 159

1. Varnishes - copalite – used to block dentine tubules – bad longevity 2. Liners - cover the dentine – placed under restorations – used for shallow cavity – CaOH cement (Life) - very alkaline - GIC line bond LC 3. Bases - similar to liners but are thicker – use as dentine replacement – ZnPO4 cement is an example – Zinc Oxide-Eugenol is another example – GIC like the Fuji series

Answer 160

1. Prepare cavity 2. Condition the cavity 3. Mix Fuji Bond LC 1:1 4. Apply 5. Cure 6. Etch the enamel 7. Wash dry 8. Use unfilled resin 9. Cure 10. Add filled resin This will make sure that RMGIC is able to release fluoride and create a chemical bond with resin

Answer 161

1. Non-immunological defences 2. Physico-chemical barriers 3. Immunological barriers

Answer 162

Lactoferrin is an iron binding found on mucosal surfaces. Lactoferrin is able to deprive microbes of essential iron by binding iron in saliva, lowering the ability to aquire oxygen. Lactoferrin also enhances lysozyme action.

Answer 163

Mucins are able to agglutinate microbe and aid their removal

Answer 164

Lysozyme. It is able to hydrolyse peptidoglycans which are present on bacterial cells walls. It than triggers autolysins which cause bacterial degradation.

Answer 165

Histatins are small peptides which are secreted by submandibular and parotid glands. They are able to interfere with membrane integrity of the bacterial membrane.

Answer 166

Defensins are small antimicrobial peptides that are present in the granules of phagocytic cells thus are able to kill bacteria there

Answer 167

The rate of saliva production is relatively high during the day and decreases significantly during the night time

Answer 168

1. P.Gingivalis 2. P. Intermidia 3. T. Forsythia

Answer 169

1. Adherence to and colonisation of epithelial cells 2. Disruption and manipulation of the inflammatory response 3. Degradation of host proteins and tissues

Answer 170

Gingival crevicular fluid

Answer 171

No. Gingivitis is a result of bacterial accumulation which could be the same type of bacteria or transition of bacteria from gram positive to gram negative.

Answer 172

It is able to remove tissue breakdown products, introduce inflammatory mediators and antibodies

Answer 173

1. Diagnosis presentation 2. Consent 3. Further investigation and tests 4. Recall to check the results of the treatment

Answer 174

It is our genotype + environment

Answer 175

Somatic cells have a diploid number of chromosomes. Gametes have a haploid number of chromosomes

Answer 176

Differences in the DNA code between alleles at the same locus may give rise to dominance or recessivness which couple with sex linkage, may give rise to simple modes of inheritance.

Answer 177

The two alleles for a heritable character segregate during gamete formation and end up in different gametes

Answer 178

Each pair alleles segregates independently of each other pair of alleles during gamete formation

Answer 179

Growth 1 phase S phase – genetical replication phase Growth 2 pahse Mitotic phase – PMAT Cytokinesis

Answer 180

1. Somatic – only affects the host. 2. Germline - may affect the offspring.

Answer 181

It occurs on non-sister chromatids.

Answer 182

The potential traits of the offspring can be predicted.

Answer 183

They are genes that regulate the development of structure in the embryo. They perform they are functions on and off and are unequally distributed throughout the embryo in terms of effect.

Answer 184

They are molecules that upregulate or downregulate the activity of certain genes

Answer 185

They are positional cues for cells during development; this establishes cell signalling networks to control gene expression

Answer 186

4 – C-7,-17,-12 and -2.

Answer 187

It is a law that is used to calculate allele frequencies in non-evolving populations, with assumption that shuffling of alleles has no effect on the overall gene pool. Deviations from this law result in evolution. Due to limitations above this law cannot be used in natural populations but it help us to understand how the evolution occurs.

Answer 188

1. No new mutations 2. No migration in or out of the population 3. No selection 4. Random mating 5. Very large population

Answer 189

Collect all frequency of 2 genes occuring (i.e. 2xWW, 3xWw and 1xww) and devide by the total number of samples

Answer 190

We calculate all appearances and devide by the total number (i.e 10xwhitw 20x purple = 10/30 and 20/30)

Answer 191

add the frequency of all aleles and devide by the total number (i.e. 10xW 15xw)

Answer 192

1. High level of evidence 2. Eandom assignment 3. Groups are exchangeable

Answer 193

1. Parallel-arm RCTs 2. Cross-over RCTs 3. N-of-1 'single patient' RCT

Answer 194

1. Selection 2. Randomisation 3. Treatment and control group establishment and intervention 4. Follow up measures 5. Analysis

Answer 195

1. Selection 2. Randomisation 3. Treatment and control group and intervention 4. Washout period 5. Swap of control and treatment groups for second intervention 6. Outcomes of interventions 7. Analysis

Answer 196

1. One patient is selected 2. They go through periods of treatment and non-treatments – the pattern is also random 3. Outcomes of interventions are recorded 4. Data is analysed

Answer 197

1. Time baseline 2. Time goes on 3. We observe 4. Analysis 5. Outcome

Answer 198

1. Select a group 2. See if they were exposed or not 3. Analyse 4. Outcomes

Answer 199

Have a snapshot and see the prevalence of health problems in a population

Answer 200

The study is conducted before data is gathered.

Answer 201

The study is conducted after the data is made available.

Answer 202

Reduce costs and it is more efficient

Answer 203

1. Simple random sample – equal chance being selected 2. Stratified random sample – equal participation of sexes, races and other parameters 3. Systematic - non-random – a set process e.g. every tenth person 4. Clustered - geographic areas are selected, after the clusters of multiple people are selected 5. Convenience sampling – just recruit people where we actively recruit people with needed traits

Answer 204

It is causal interference. What can we do to reduce the problem.

Answer 205

It is casual interference. What can we do to reduce the problem.

Answer 206

It starts with a known outcome that is classified as a "case". Non-cases are treated as a control group.

Answer 207

1. A group of people with a known disease are classified as cases 2. A group of people who are known not to have a disease are used as controls 3. Both groups are sampled and separated into exposed and none exposed 4. We get 4 groups thus 4 data steams 5. Odds are calculated

Answer 208

Ecological studies are epidemiological evaluations in which the unit of analysis is populations, or groups of people, rather than individuals. Example: Is the prevalence of dental caries lower in fluoridated areas?

Answer 209

It relates to the way we conduct studies. It cannot be reduced by increasing sample size.

Answer 210

They are a way of reviewing all the data and results from studies about a specific question in a standardized systematic way

Answer 211

It is the ability to understand and share other people's emotions.

Answer 212

It can cause cytoplasmic acidification thus unabling functions of certain enzymes.

Answer 213

The protons in weak acids want to stay together, that is why they dissociate partially in water

Answer 214

Lip - 4-7 weeks Palate - 6-9 weeks

Answer 215

1. An aromatic portion that provides lipid solubility 2. An intermediate chain with either an ester or amide linkage 3. A terminal amide that provides water solubility

Answer 216

1. Unchanged lipid soluble molecules that are referred to as the base - more of it exist the better LA works - it can defuse through the cell membrane 2. Positively charged molecules RNH+ - this is the molecules that is able to inhibit the work of the Sodium channels in neurons which disables the propagation of action potential - it can not defuse through the cell membrane

Answer 217

1.When pH is low, there is a large number of RNH+ as RN is converted into RNH+ 2. IF pH is high, there is a large number of RN

Answer 218

1. The LA must diffuse through the nerve sheath 2. The LA must bind at receptor sites in the nerve membrane

Answer 219

1. The pKa of the solution 2. The pH of the LA solution 3. The pH of the site of injection

Answer 220

Acts as an anti-bacterial preservative but has the potential to cause allergy

Answer 221

Acts as an anti-oxidant for the vasoconstrictor and also tends to lower the pH of the LA solution. May cause allergy problems

Answer 222

Makes the solution isotonic

Answer 223

Added to some LAs to adjust the pH

Answer 224

Used to dilute the solution and increase its volume

Answer 225

1. Increased rate of absorption into the blood stream 2. Decreased duration of action and effectiveness 3. Increased bleeding at the site of injection, and 4. Possible overdose reactions due to high blood levels

Answer 226

1. Syringe 2. Needles 3. Cartridge

Answer 227

1.Short, 25 mm length, 27 gauge 2.Long, 40 mm length, 27 gauge

Answer 228

1. Lidocaine hydrochloride - Lignospan 2. Prilocaine hydrochloride - Citanest 3. Mepivacaine hydrchloride - Scandanest 4. Articane hydrochloride - Septanest 5. Bupivacaine hydrochloride - Marcaine

Answer 229

Benzocaine, 15-30 seconds applied to the area of anaesthetic

Answer 230

1. Supraperiosteal infiltration - diffusion through cortical bone 2. Nerve block - depositing solution to a nerve trunk

Answer 231

Labial, buccal or palatal

Answer 232

1. Maxillary - blockes whole of maxillary nerve 2. Tuberosity - blocks posterior superior alveolar nerves 3. Infraorbital - blocks anterior superior alveolar nerves 4. Nasopalatine - anaesthetises palate back to canines 5. Greter palatine - anaesthetises palate as far forward as canines

Answer 233

1. Position the patient 2. Pull lip or cheek firmly out 3. Define the fornix 4. Wipe if necessary, then apply small amount of typical 5. Insert needle, bevel towards bone, in the fornix 6. Keep close to bone without touching, insert 2-3 mm, parallel to long axis of tooth 7. Inject slowly (1-2ml depending on the procedure)

Answer 234

1. Define point of entry 2. Apply topical 3. Insert needle, approximately at right angles to the palate, at junction of alveolar process and horizontal plate 4. Advance needle gently 2-3 mm 5. Inject slowly approx. 0.5 ml

Answer 235

1. Buccally beyond third molar 2. Through greater palatine foramen

Answer 236

Wide area of LA, including maxillary sinus

Answer 237

1. Infiltration that is only possible in incisor region 2.Inferior alveolar nerve block

Answer 238

1. Level - palpate the coronoid notch, find the deepest point 2. Entry point - locate pterygotemporal depression. It is between the pterygomandibular fold medially and the ramus of the mandible laterally 3. Angle - the angle of insertion is along a line drawn from the opposite lower second premolar to the pterygotemporal depression

Answer 239

It is close to the ramus between the ramus and sphenomandibular ligament that runs from the spine of the spenoid to the lingula

Answer 240

It is medial and anteriorly to the inferior alveolar nerve and in close proximity to the lateral surface of medial pterygoid muscle.

Answer 241

1. Position patient in chair 2. Palpate the right ramus with the left index finger and define the coronoid notch 3. Slide finger medially so that the ball of the finger lies in the retromolar area between the external and internal oblique ridges 4. Hold syringe in right hand, with the barrel parallel to the occlusal plane. Insert the needle halfway between the fingertip and PMF, with the barrel over premolars on the left hand side 5. Advance the needle with minimum force until it touches bone 6. Withdraw slightly, aspirate, inject 1-2 ml 7. Move barrel towrds midline, withdraw half the amount of insertion, inject for lingual nerve about 0.5 ml 8. Complete withdrawal

Answer 242

1. Inject just medial to anterior border of mandible, distal buccal to the last molar tooth around the level of the lower occlusal plane 2. Hold the syringe parallel with the occlusal plane on the same side 3. Advance the neddle until the needles gently touches the mucp[eriosteum/bone, then slightly withdraw and then inject

Answer 243

1. Hold lip between finger and thumb and pull anteriorly and downwards 2. Insert needle just lateral to the fornix, distal to second premolar 3. Direct the needle medially, anteriorly and inward into the canal. Inject slowly

Answer 244

The posterior superior alveolar nerve

Answer 245

The middle superior alveolar nerve

Answer 246

The anterior superior alveolar nerve

Answer 247

DRSABCD: Danger Response Send help Airway Breathing Circulation Defibrillation

Answer 248

1. If above the mylohyoid line, the infection would progress lingually, eroding the lingual cortical plate and entering the sublingual space. This will elevate the tongue and create diffuculties with breathing 2. If below the mylohyoid line, the infection would progress down into the submandibular space. This may causes swelling near the angle of the ,and able to potentially causing trismus and therefore diffuculties chewing..

Answer 249

1. Caries reach the root 2. Pulpal progression 3. Root progression 4. Progression to the apex 5. Progression into other tissues and cavities

Answer 250

Usually the source is second and third molar because their roots are entirely below the attachment of mylohyoid muscle. The infection starts in the periodontal pocket and spreads to the musculature of the floor of the mouth. Infection pierces through the lingual cortical plate of the mandible. The infection moves lingually rather than buccally, as the lingual aspect of the tooth socket is thinner and provides the path of least resistance. The infection than moves into sublingual space.

Answer 251

Oral commensal flora includes opportunistic bacteria, which can cause disease in compromised situations. For bacteria to become pathogenic they must: 1.Avoid host defences - both specific and non-specific 2.Adhere to host surfaces 3.Gain entry to the pulp and periapical soft tissues 4.Gain adequate nutrients in the new environment

Answer 252

1. Gram positive streptococci 2. Peptostreptococci 3. Staphylococcus aureu

Answer 253

1. Exposed dentinal tubules 2. Cavitated carious lesions 3. Micro leakage of restoration 4. Injury

Answer 254

1.Express Pattern Recognising receptos 2.Secrete antibacterial products 3.Release cytokines for chemo attraction of defence molecules

Answer 255

When odontoblasts receive signal about presence of bacteria near the pulp they are able to react by up regulating the production of reactive dentine (tertiary dentine) which creates a barrier between the pulp and the bacteria. If odontoblasts die, pulp is able to create reperative dentine. The main cells in deploying reparative dentine are the pulp fibroblasts or stem cells.

Answer 256

Secretion of neuropeptides causing vasodilation, vascular permeability increased, and promotion of immune cells. This also promotes tertiary dentine formation

Answer 257

Reffere to V3 of therapeutic guidlines

Answer 258

Non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium. Labial mucosa has many elastic finred for flexibility and blood supply.

Answer 259

Thin orthokeratinised stratified squamous epithelium followed by a lamina propria.

Answer 260

It is predominantly supplied by external carotid artery, specifically via the facial artery.

Answer 261

Through superior and inferior labial veins into the facial vein into external jugular and into subclavian vein

Answer 262

The supply to the muscles is via the facial nerve and sensory via trigeminal nerve

Answer 263

1.Cell size 2. DNA damage

Answer 264

1. DNA damage 2. DNA replication completeness

Answer 265

Chromosomes attachment to spindle

Answer 266

1. Physical signals - contact inhibition - when cell inhibit replication when they come in contact 2. Chemical signals - availability of growth factors or other hormones

Answer 267

1. Cyclins 2. Cyclin-dependent kinases

Answer 268

1. Tobacco use 2. Excessive sun exposure to the lips 3. Heavy alcohol use 4. HPV 5. Immune deficiencies

Answer 269

1. Epigenetic alteration of oral epithelial cells can cause abnormal expression of genes such as GLUT-1 transportes and diwn expression of p53 anti-tumor gene 2. Inhibits systemic immune functions of the host, causing defects in CD4+ and CD3+ T cell activity 3. Oxidative stress on tissues

Answer 270

1. UV rediation is carcinogenic 2. Causes excess bond to form between DNA, this lead to mutations in cells

Answer 271

The mechanism by which alcohol consumption causes cancer are not fully understood but maybe oxidative damage

Answer 272

The mechanism by which alcohol consumption causes cancer are not fully understood but maybe oxidative damage

Answer 273

HPV affects the gene p16, which regulates the cell cycle - causes it to be overexpressed

Answer 274

Depressed immune function means that immune surveillance amd recognition of cancer cells is also depressed. This decreases the likely hood that early malignant cells are recognised and terminated by white blood cells

Answer 275

1. Information gathering 2. Diagnosis explanation 3. Informed consent 4. Post op instructions

Answer 276

1. Acknowledge the fear, show empathy 2. FInd out what is the pt particularly feel fearful about 3. Familiarized with the procedure as the operator and show confidence 4. Familiarise patient with the procedure in order to minimise surprise and pain 5. Positive encourgment during the procedure 6. Using topical gel to minimise the paint at injection site 7. Use method of distractions

Answer 277

1. Pterygotemporal depression 2. Pterygomandibular fold 3. Lingula 4. Coronoid notch

Answer 278

1. Anaesthesia is supplied to the gingiva, mucoperiosteum, lower lip and mandibular teeth 2. Useful for procedures such as root canals, extraction of teeth and periodontal treatment

Answer 279

1. Accessory innervation from other nerves, such as nerve to mylohyoid nerve 2. Long buccal nerve is unable to be anaesthetised 3. Type 4 bifid mandibular canal, an anatomical variation causing difficulty for IANB to effecgtively anaesthetise as there are two mandibular foramina where IAN enters at the same time 4. Mandibular prognathism where the lingula is located higher, making a larger height difference between the lingula and coronoid notch

Answer 280

1. Pain during administration 2. Insufficient Anaesthesia 3. Iatrogenic and Self-Inflicted Damaged of Anaesthetised Tissues

Answer 281

1. Needle Breakages 2. Skin paleness 3. Tissue Necrosis

Answer 282

1. Increased tissue pressure 2. Injection performed too quickly 3. Injecting too large a volume 4. Incorrect technique 5. pH/temp of anaesthetic

Answer 283

If the patient expresses one of the key signs/symptoms, pull the needle back slightly and if necessary to increase patient comfort, the direction of needle insertion should be altered before injecting the anaesthetic

Answer 284

1. Incorrect technique 2. Incorrect site 3. Injection into an inflammed area

Answer 285

Carefully explain potential reasoning for insufficient anaesthesia and gain informed consent for examination and possibly a second dose

Answer 286

1. Accidental damage due to numbness 2. Burn wounds caused by smoking or hot foods thay go unnoticed

Answer 287

The companions of these patients should be warned of the possible injuries and should be told to keep watch on them for anaesthetic period. They should not allow them to smoke, eat or drink during this time.

Answer 288

Operator factors: Technical errors - poor technique Patient factors: 1. Pathological processes 2. Infection/inflammation 3. Psychological causes 4. Accessory innervation

Answer 289

It is the absence of all sensory modalities

Answer 290

An abnormal sensation (tingling) whether spontaneous or evoked

Answer 291

An unpleasant abnormal sensation, wether spontaneous or evoked

Answer 292

Increased sensitivity to stimulation, excluding special senses

Answer 293

The restriction of range of motin of the jaws

Answer 294

1. Heat therapy 2. Analgesics 3. Muscle relaxants 4. Physiotherapy 5. No further dental treatment 6. Antibiotic therapy potentially 7. Reference to oral surgeon

Answer 295

Rheumatic heart disease is a condition in whch rheumatic fever causes damage to the heart tissue or any of the valves

Answer 296

It is when bacteria are able to infect heart tissue. This disease is strongly associated with rheumatic heart disease

Answer 297

It is a multi system disease that results from mistreatment of Scarlet Fever, which is caused by Type A streptococcus bacteria

Answer 298

About 1 ppm

Answer 299

It is a broad spectrum mouth rinse. It has bacteriostatic levels and is able to stick around the mouth for around 5 hours. It blocks adherence and interferes with ATP'ase ion channels. IT DOES NOT UPSET THE NORMAL MICROBIAL ECOLOGY. DO NOT USE WITH FLUORIDE.

Answer 300

It is a process in which there is preference to targeting bacteria without causing damage to host cells

Answer 301

Antibiotics - natural substances produced by certain groups of microorganisms Chemotherapeutic substances - they are chemically synthesised in a lab Semisynthetic antibiotics - hybdri compounds, chemically modified antibiotics

Answer 302

Cidal - killing the bacteria Static - gives immune system time to attack by stopping the bacteria from dividing

Answer 303

1. Non-toxic to host 2. Spectrum which does not include normal microflora 3. Bactericidal rather than bacteriostatic 4. Bacterial resistance not readily induced 5. Does not induce allergic reaction in host 6. Retains activity in body tissues and fluids 7. Soluble and stable in water 8. Inexpensive to produce

Answer 304

Penicilin, is a b-lactama antiobiotic, which inhibits X-linking of peptide side chains by targeting the enzyme transpeptidase. Penicillin is a suicide inhibitor.

Answer 305

Standard stuff like spectrum of activity, toxicit, stability in body and so on.

Answer 306

Macrolides, aminoglycosides, lincomycin & clindamycin

Answer 307

Disadvantage: They are not selectivity toxic Advantage: Some of them can be used in cancer treatments

Answer 308

Quinolones, rifampicin, 5-nitroimidazoles

Answer 309

They are antibiotics that disorganise structure or inhibit function of bacterial membranes

Answer 310

They are relativley broad, targeting both gram positive and gram negative bacteria. Even tho, these antibiotics could cross react with cephalosporins, but at a very low probability.

Answer 311

It maintaince slightly less of broad spectrum of work, but it is good for patient with B-lactam allergy

Answer 312

They reduce activity of gram-positive bacteria and are good for treating multi-resistant organisms.

Answer 313

1. Altered permeation/Efflux 2. Altered target site 3. Drug inactivation

Answer 314

1. Is an antibiotic indicated on clinical grounds? 2. Have appropriate investigations been performed? 3. What organisms are most likely to cause this infection? 4. Which agent is best? 5. Is an antibiotic combination appropriate 6. Are any host factors relevant? 7. What is the best route of administration? 8. What is the appropriate dose? 9. Can therapy be modified when lab results are obtained? 10. What is the optimal duration of therapy?

Answer 315

1.Oxygen deprivation - hypoxia 2. Physical agents - mechanical trauma, temperature extremes, radiation 3. Chemical agents 4. Infectious agents 5. Immunological reaction - collateral damage, autoimmune reactions 6. Genetic changes - deficiency of functional proteins, susceptibility of cells 7. Nutritional imbalances

Answer 316

1. Cell response depends on type, duration and intensity of injury 2. Consequences of injury depend on the type, state and adaptability of the cell 3. Cell injry has detrimental effects on several cellular/biochemical mechanisms

Answer 317

1. Nitochondrial damage - decrease in ATP production 2. Entry of Ca2+ - loss of calcium homeostasis - activation of enzymes regulating apoptosis 3. Membrane damage - leading to loss of cellular components and increase in enzymatic digestion 4. Protein misfolding due to DNA damage

Answer 318

Free radicals are chemical species that have a single unpaired electron. They are highly reactive thus are damaging to the cells. One of the free radicals is oxygen

Answer 319

1. Lipid perioxidation which damage the cell membrane 2. Protein modification - which causes breakdown and misfolding of proteins 3. DNA damage - leading to mutation

Answer 320

1. Hydropic change - cellular swelling, cells incapable of maintaining ionic and fluid homeostasis 2. Fatty change - hypoxic injury, metabolic injury and hepatocytes

Answer 321

1. Necrosis 2. Apoptosis

Answer 322

It occurs as a result of irreversible cell injury. It is unregulated form of cell death due to ischaemia, toxins, infections and trauma. Elicits a host reaction - inflammation.

Answer 323

Denaturation of intracellular proteins and enzymatic digestion of irreversibly injured cell resulta in: Inability to maintain membrane integrity Elicit an inflammatory response Increased eosinophilia Nuclear changes

Answer 324

1. Coagulative necrosis 2. Liquefactive necrosis 3. Caseous necrosis

Answer 325

1. Preservation of tissue architecture 2. Eosinophilic, anucleate cells 3. Removal of necrotic cells by phagocytosis

Answer 326

1. Enzymatic digestion of necrotic cells 2. Infections, production of pus

Answer 327

1. Collection of fragmented necrotic cells 2. Granulomatous inflammation Usually hapens during tuberculosis

Answer 328

It is programmed cell death. Activation of intracellular enzymes. Degradation of nuclear DNA and nuclear and cytoplasmic proteins.

Answer 329

1. Embryogenesis 2. Involution of hormone-dependent tissues due to hormone withdrawal 3. Protection against autoimmune disease 4. Resolution of inflammatory and immune response

Answer 330

1. Cell shrinkage 2. Condensation of nuclear chromatin 3. Formation of membrane bound apototic bodies 4. Phagocytosis of apoptotic cells or apoptotic bodies 5. Absence of inflammation

Answer 331

1. Hypertrophy - An increase in the size of particular tissue by increase in cell size. 2. Hyperplasia - An increase in the size of a particular tissue by increase in cell number. Is reversible. 3. Metaplasia - An acquired form of altered differentiation. Transformation of one mature differentiated cell type to another. Is riversible 4. Dysplasia - An increased cell growth with atypical morphology. May be reversible in early stages. 5. Neoplasia - Abnormal, uncoordinated and excessive cell growth

Answer 332

1. Multiplicated growth - increase in cell number 2. Auxetic growth - increase in cell size 3. Accretionary growth - increase in intercellular tissue compartment 4. Combined patterns of growth

Answer 333

Important to remember that following the removal of the stimulus causing the hypertrophy or hyperplasia, the tissue return to normal. Meaning, these conditions are reversible.

Answer 334

It is the decrease in size of an organ or cell. Could be physiological or pathological

Answer 335

It is a protective process that deals with infection and injuries but it does cause damage to surrounding tissues

Answer 336

1. Initial insult 2. Inflammation 3. Tissue damage 4. Resolution 5. Repair

Answer 337

1. Redness 2. Heat 3. Swelling 4. Pain 5. Loss of function

Answer 338

1. Increased vascular permeability - formation of fluid exudate 2. Movement of neutrophils into the extravascular space - formation of cellular exudate 3. Arteriolar vasoconstriction 4. Capillary dilatation 5. Arteriolar dilatationn 6. FLuid exudation into extravascular space

Answer 339

1. Dilution of toxins 2. Entry of antibodies 3. Transport of drugs 4. Fibrin formation 5. Delivery of nutrients and oxygen 6. Stimulation of the immune response

Answer 340

1. Destruction of normal tissues 2. Swelling 3. Inappropriate inflammatory response

Answer 341

1. Resolution 2. Suppuration 3. Repair and organisation 4. Fibrosis 5. Chronic inflammation

Answer 342

An abscess

Answer 343

A granuloma is a collection of macrophages and or their derivatives. Basically it is a small area of inflamation

Answer 344

1. Inflammation 2. Reparative dentine formation 3. Fibrosis and reduced cellularity 4. Granulation tissue formation

Answer 345

1. Limited capacity for drainage 2. Limited access for repair 3. Limited space for swelling 4. Concentrated stimulus 5. Limitations of material to treat

Answer 346

It occurs due to untreated pulpal necrosis and acute inflammation in periapical tissues.

Answer 347

It can turn into periapical granuloma. Due to granulation process a granuloma could form.

Answer 348

It is the replacemenet of dead or injured cells and tissues by cells and tissues of the indentical type.

Answer 349

It is replacement of dead/injured cells by "repair" tissue which is usualy fibrous connective tissue - scar tissue

Answer 350

Primary intention - the wound is closed up for example using sutures - results in decreased area of repair Secondary intention - the wound is left open - results in increased area of repair

Answer 351

Increase in blood vessels. Process by which new blood vessels grow into damaged, ischaemic or necrotic tissues. Activated by vascualr endothelial growth factor (VEGF). Released by hypoxic cells and macrophages

Answer 352

1. Nutrition 2. Infection 3. Metabolic disorders other

Answer 353

Through secondary intention plus bone regeneration. It is dependent on the site of fracture, normal vs pathologic bone and type of fracture.

Answer 354

It is a condition where the site of extraction did not create an adequate blood clot and there is exposed bone. Could lead to necrosis of lamina dura and bone.

Answer 355

It is a bundle or nodule of thick neural tissues that forms after injury to a nerve.

Answer 356

Literally means "new growth". A neoplasm is a lesion that arises from genetic a mutations in cells. Abnormal growth of cells.

Answer 357

Neoplastic cells or tumour parenchyma and tumour stroma

Answer 358

It is influenced by the stromal components

Answer 359

Benign tumour have no potential for metastasis. Malignant tumours have potential for metastisis

Answer 360

It is process of transformation of a normal cell to a neoplastic cell by causing permanent genetic alterations.

Answer 361

It is the integration of viral genome into host DNA or viral proteinsthat lead to interference. One of these coudl be HPV wich cuases cervical carcinoma

Answer 362

Ionisng radiation UV radiation

Answer 363

Many carcinomas are thought to arise as a result of progression and invasion of pre-existing epithelial dysplasia. Dysplasia could be a pre-neoplastic lesion. When dysplastic changes are maked and involve the entire thickness of the epithelium the lesion is referred to as carcinoma in situ which is a pre-invasive stage of cancer.

Answer 364

It is changes in a normal epithelial lining. Such could be architectural changes such as drop shaped rete pegs, loss of polarity of basal cells. Superficial mitoses. Irregular epithelial sratification and so on

Answer 365

Nuclear pleomorphism, abnormal variation in nuclear size, abnormal variation in nuclear shape, cellular pleomorphism, abnormal variation in cell size.

Answer 366

Epithelial dysplasia

Answer 367

They encode proteins that promote normal cell growth and proliferation. Genetic alterations can alter the transcription of oncogenes or the behaviour of their products. Abnormal expression of oncogenes drive normal cells towards the neoplastic state

Answer 368

1. Pressure on adjacent tissues 2. Obstruction to the the flow of fluid 3. Production of a hormone 4. Transformation into a malignant neoplasm 5. Anxiety

Answer 369

1. Pressure on and destruction of adjacent tissue 2. Formation of secondary tumours 3. Blood loss from ulcerated surfaces 4. Obstruction of flow 5. Production of a hormone 6. Paraneoplastic effects causing weight loss and debility 7. Anxiety and pain

Answer 370

It is the most common primary malignant neoplasm of the oral cavity. It arises from the oral mucosal epithelium. Clinical features Age: any age Sex: More males than females Hugh risk sites: lower lip, anterior floor of mouth, lateral border of tongue and other Early clinical features: fixed white patch, exophytic papillary or wart-like lesion, speckled leukoplakia Early lesions are usually painless while symptoms of late lesions may include: pain, parathesia, loss of function, enlarged lymph nodes, radiographic changes

Answer 371

The degree to which the tumour tissue resembles the tissue of origin. Well differentiated - resemble mature cells. Poorly differentiated - slight resemblance to mature cells.

Answer 372

Refers to a lack of differentiation of tumour cells, however often equated with poor differentiation at a tissue level.

Answer 373

Carcinoma in situ - Pre-invasive scc Grade 1 - well differentiated scc Grade 2 - moderately differentiated scc Grade 3 - poorly differentiated scc Grade 4 - anaplastic scc

Answer 374

T = size of primary tumour N = condition of regional lymph nodes M = presence/absence of distant metastases

Answer 375

T1 = primary <2 2cm diameter T2 = primary 2-4 cm diameter T3 = primary > 4 cm diameter T4 = primary > 4 cm diamtere and invading local structures

Answer 376

N0 = No nodes clinically N1 = Palpable nodes N2 = Contralateral or bilateral nodes N3 = Fixed palpable nodes

Answer 377

M0 = No distant metastasis M1 = Evidence of distant metastasis

Answer 378

Stage 1: T1 N0 M0 Stage 2: T2 N0 M0 Stage 3: T3 N0 M0; Any T with N1 Stage 4: Any T with N2 or N3; Any T, Any N with M1

Answer 379

It is the ability to recognise self from nonself, thus immune cells do not attack body's own cells or commensal organisms

Answer 380

1. Central tolerance - negative selection and elimination of autoreactive T cells - usually within thymus and bone marrow 2. Peripheral tolerance - limited selection, deletion or tolerise - in the paripheral after exiting centra organs

Answer 381

1. Apoptosis - induced by pro-apoptotic proteins 2. Clonal anergy - long-lived functional unresponsiveness 3. Suppression - use of T cells to supress immune function in order to reduce autoimmunity

Answer 382

Loss of immune tolerance lead to autoimmunity like Type I diabetes or Multiple sclerosis

Answer 383

Unknown. Cqauses are heterogeneous & multifunctional

Answer 384

Immune responses can cause tissue injury and disease known as hypersensitivity disease. It is an excessive or inappropriate immune responsee. Mostly harmless. Can lead to host tissue damage

Answer 385

Type I - Immediate hypersensitivity Type II - Bound antigen Type III - Immune complex Type IV - delayed hypersensitivity

Answer 386

ACID Type I - Allergic Type II - Cytotoxic Type III - Immune complex deposition Type IV - Delayed

Answer 387

BLUE TO THE SKY ORANGE TO THE THIGH. Remove the blue cap, put orange to the thigh, hard squeeze and hold for 10 seconds.

Answer 388

Gloves, rubber dam, gutta percha, impression material, bite blocks and more

Answer 389

1. Irritative dermatitis - non-immunological reaction 2. Hypersensitivity type I - immunological 3. Hypersensitivity type IV - immunological

Answer 390

Any type of immunodeficiency leads to the individual being immunocompromised

Answer 391

1. Primary immunodeficiency - when you are born with it 2. Secondary immunodeficiency - mostly acquired

Answer 392

Malnutrition

Answer 393

1. T cell defects - leading to fungi, viruses and parasites 2. B cell defects - hypogammaglobulinemia 3. Phagocyte defects

Answer 394

Due to lowered immune function, many opportunistic batcteria are able to thrive in an oral environment. MHC receptors on CD4+ are unable to perform their function, thus opportunistic pathogens are able to trhive like Herpes simplex viruses.

Answer 395

Aggresive preventive care. Patient with immunodeficiency are extremely vulnerable to a range of oral opportunistic bacteria.

Answer 396

Virus - the tiny infectious particle. Virion - an entire mature virus particle

Answer 397

1. Virus inserts its genome into its host 2. Takes over the host's functions

Answer 398

1. Nucleic acid types & structure 2. Replication strategy 3. Capsid morphology 4. Presence or absence of lipid envelope

EXAMS Flashcards

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