Exit Exam Alternative Flashcards

1
Q
  1. You have been called to a party for a 20 year old male who bystanders state had an episode of “Violent Shakes” before you arrived. The patient is conscious and agitated, BP 132/96, pulse 132, respirations are 28. He is diaphoretic and his pupils are dilated. Bystanders deny any drug or alcohol ingestion. What do you suspect?
    A) Grand mal seizure.
    B) Delirium tremens.
    C) Cocaine overdose.
    D) Heroin overdose.
A

Ans: A

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2
Q
  1. When a drug’s specific action is a negative Chronotropic effect, what effect will it have on the heart?
    A) Increased heart rate
    B) Decrease heart rate
    C) Increase force of muscular contractility
    D) Decrease force of muscular contractility
A

Ans: B

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3
Q
  1. A child has overdosed on ASA. You would expect all of the following except:
    A) Hypoventilation
    B) Metabolic acidosis
    C) Vomiting and dehydration
    D) Diaphoresis and fever
A

Ans: D

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4
Q
  1. The best possible score for a Glasgow coma scale
    A) Eye opening 4; verbal response 5; motor response; 6
    B) Eye opening 3; verbal response 4; motor response; 5
    C) Eye opening 6; verbal response 5; motor response; 4
    D) Eye opening 5; verbal response 5; motor response; 6
A

Ans: A

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5
Q
  1. Early signs of Lidocaine toxicity are:
    A) Seizures and hypertension
    B) Tremors & V Tachycardia
    C) Tremors and paresthesia
    D) Headache and seizures
A

Ans: D

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6
Q
  1. What position is JVD best observed:
    A) 30 degrees upright
    B) Fowlers
    C) Trendelenburg
    D) Supine
A

Ans: B

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7
Q
  1. ln addition to administering Pitocin to a patient experiencing postpartum hemorrhage, the Paramedic should also implement which of the following
    measures?
    A) IV volume expanders, antishock trousers, and EKG monitor.
    B) IV KVO, high-flow oxygen, and fundal massage.
    C) Massage fundus, IV Fluids, and allow newborn to breast feed.
    D) IV fluids, pack vagina and place mother in shock position.
A

Ans: C

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8
Q
  1. A patient who is hyperventilating may have which acid-base condition?
    A) Respiratory acidosis
    B) Respiratory alkalosis
    C) Metabolic acidosis
    D) Metabolic alkalosis
A

Ans: B

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9
Q
  1. A collection of the blood caused by a ruptured blood vessel that is enclosed in an organ, tissue or body space is a/an:
    A) Aneurysm
    B) Erythema
    C) Petichiae
    D) Hematoma
A

Ans: D

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10
Q
  1. You are transporting a 26-year-old multigravida whose last two babies were by Cesarean Section. She appears to be near full term and is having hard contractions 3-4 minutes apart. She suddenly complains of continuous lower abdominal pain, progressively worse, and gradually goes into shock. The most likely possibility is:
    A) Placenta previa
    B) Abruptio placenta
    C) Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
    D) Uterine rupture
A

Ans: B

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11
Q
  1. Cardiac output =
    A) Stroke volume x B/P
    B) Stroke volume + systolic B/P
    C) Heart Rate x Stroke volume
    D) Ejection Fraction x Contractile Force
A

Ans: C

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12
Q
  1. If a physician stops at the scene of your call and offers assistance, which of the following should you do before consenting to allow his/her assistance?
    A) Confirm that person is actually a medical doctor and not a Ph.D.
    B) Confirm that the physician is willing to come to the hospital with you and the patient.
    C) Let the physician speak to your medical control so they can work together.
    D) All of the above.
A

Ans: D

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13
Q
  1. A patient presents as follows: acting bizarre, skin is cool & clammy skin, slurred speech, and staggers. Vital signs are: Pulse 110 weak and thready, RR 24 regular and non-labored, BP 110/70, SA02 97% on RA, Glucose: LO. The diagnosis for this patient is:
    A) Hyperglycemia
    B) Diabetic Ketoacidosis
    C) Insulin Shock
    D) Brain Attack
A

Ans: C

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14
Q
  1. lf the heart rate increases, but the stroke volume remains the same, what happens to the cardiac output?
    A) Increases
    B) Decreases
    C) Remains the same
    D) The stroke volume must increase also
A

Ans: A

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15
Q
  1. The termination of a paramedic/patient care relationship before assuring that a health care provider of equal or higher training will continue care is called:
    A) False imprisonment
    B) Confidentiality.
    C) Malpractice.
    D) Abandonment.
A

Ans: D

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16
Q
  1. The pulmonary artery carries:
    A) Oxygenated blood to the lungs
    B) Deoxygenated blood to the lungs
    C) Oxygenated blood to the heart
    D) Deoxygenated blood to the heart
A

Ans: B

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17
Q
  1. lf a patient who is refusing care becomes unconscious, can the paramedic treat him?
    A) Yes, under the informed consent provision.
    B) Yes, under the emergency doctrine.
    C) Not without the police present.
    D) Not without permission of medical control.
A

Ans: B

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18
Q
  1. Atropine works by:
    A) Stimulating the sympathetic nervous system
    B) Stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system
    C) Blocking the effects of the vagus nerve
    D) Stimulating the vagus nerve
A

Ans: C

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19
Q
  1. You are called to a home of a 23-year-old obese female approximately 8 months pregnant who has just had a Grand Mal seizure. You observe the patient is still having seizure activity. rapid pulse @ 145/min., BP -240/130,3+ edema of extremities. No history of epilepsy or head injury can be obtained. The most likely diagnosis is:
    A) Hypertensive crises
    B) CVA seizure
    C) Eclampsia
    D) Pre-eclampsia
A

Ans: C

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20
Q
  1. All of the following are elements of Cushing Triad except:
    A) Elevated BP
    B) Decreased pulse
    C) Irregular respirations
    D) Decreased peripheral vascular resistance
A

Ans: D

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21
Q
  1. You are unable to defibrillate a patient because the defibrillator doesn’t charge. The patient later dies, and the family learns that you failed to replace the battery -the morning according to your service’s routine procedures. You may be liable
    for:
    A) Negligence
    B) Malpractice
    C) Abandonment
    D) Wrongful death
A

Ans: A

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22
Q
  1. The principle of providing care equal to that of a similarly trained individual in the same or similar circumstances is called:
    A) Negligence
    B) Standard of care
    C) Duty to act
    D) The prudent person principle
A

Ans: B

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23
Q
  1. The pediatric patient that presents with sunken eyes, recent weight loss, and tachycardia should be evaluated to rule out:
    A) Polio
    B) Pertusis
    C) Anaphylaxis
    D) Dehydration
A

Ans: D

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24
Q
  1. You are called to the scene of a construction site accident. A 31-year-old male was working in a trench when the walls collapsed and he was completely
    covered by dirt. His coworkers have freed his abdomen, chest, and head, but he is still trapped from the waist down. The patient appears to be purple from the shoulders up and is having marked difficulty breathing. His eyes are bulging, and his lips appear swollen. You suspect:
    A) Myocardial infarction
    B) Tension pneumothorax
    C) Traumatic asphyxia
    D) Simple pneumothorax
A

Ans: C

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25
Q
  1. The normal PR interval is seconds
    A) 0.2 -0.4
    B) 0.4 -0.12
    C) 0.1 -0.20
    D) 0.12 -0.20
A

Ans: D

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26
Q
  1. The physician orders 5mcg/kg/min of dopamine for an 80 kg patient. You put
    400 mg of Dopamine in 250 ml D5W. What is the correct rate using a microdrip administration set?
    A) 15 gtts/min
    B) 30 gtts/min
    C) 40 gtts/min
    D) 120 gtts/min
A

Ans: A

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27
Q
  1. The APGAR score evaluates:
    A) Pulse, respirations, BP ,activity, color,
    B) Pulse, respirations, activity, color, grimace
    C) Pulse, reflex ability, appearance, BP
    D) BP, pulse, gestation, color, respiration
A

Ans: B

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28
Q
  1. The patient who is decorticate will move his hands and arms:
    A) Toward the body
    B) Over the head
    C) Extended away from the body
    D) None of the above
A

Ans: A

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29
Q
  1. A 60 y/o patient with a-fib develops signs of CVA. This is probably due to:
    A) Cerebral hemorrhage
    B) Pulmonary Hemorrhage
    C) Cerebral thromboembolus
    D) Cerebral embolus
A

Ans: C

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30
Q
  1. Select the answer which correctly arranges the stages of the grieving process in order.
    A) Denial- depression-anger-bargaining-acceptance
    B) Denial- anger-bargaining-depression-acceptance
    C) Bargaining -denial -anger -depression -acceptance
    D) Acceptance -depression -bargaining -denial -anger
A

Ans: B

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31
Q
  1. A 55 year old patient has a pulse rate of 50. There is a P for every QRS and the P-R interval is 0.16. The patient is cold and clammy and the BP is 70/50. Indicate the rhythm, and the initial treatment.
    A) Sinus bradycardia and Atropine 0.5 mg
    B) 1st. degree block and a fluid bolus
    C) Third degree block and Atropine 1 mg
    D) Sinus bradycardia and a Dopamine drip
A

Ans: A

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32
Q
  1. Arrange the below drug routes in order from quickest absorption to slowest.
  2. Subcutaneous injection
  3. Oral
  4. Intravenous
  5. Sublingual tablet
    A) 3-2-1-4.
    B) 1-3-4-2
    C) 3-4-1-2.
    D) 1-3-2-4
A

Ans: C

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33
Q
  1. You are treating a patient who is unconscious and hypotensive. His respiratory rate is 4bpm and his pupils are pinpoint. You note an empty syringe near his body. Treatment for this patient includes:
    A) Maintain airway, ventilate with 100% 02, EGG monitoring, nasal intubation.
    B) Maintain airway, ventilate with 100%02, EGG Monitoring, IV, Narcan.
    C) Maintain airway, EGG monitoring, IV, Narcan.
    D) Maintain airway, ventilate with 100% 02, EGG monitoring, IV, Epinephrine
A

Ans: B

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34
Q
  1. A Physician has ordered you to administer 1 mg / kg of Lasix to a 184 pound female. The pre-filled syringe is labeled 20 mg per ml. How many ml’s must you administer to obtain the proper dose:
    A) 2 ml.
    B) 3 ml.
    C) 4 ml.
    D) 4.5 ml.
A

Ans: D

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35
Q
  1. A class of drug that is designed to increase blood pressure is known as a(n):
    A) Antianginal
    B) Vasopressor
    C) Anticonvulsant
    D) Diuretic
A

Ans: B

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36
Q
  1. After receiving an intramuscular injection of Penicillin, a patient develops a rash all over his body, has difficulty in breathing, and is wheezing audibly. His blood pressure is 70/40, Pulse is 122 weak and thready with no radial pulse present, Respiratory rate is 28 per min labored. SAO2 89% and skin is pale and diaphoretic. Treatment for this patient includes:
    A) Epinephrine 1:1,000 0.3 -0.5 mg SQ injection
    B) Benadryl 100 mg IVP
    C) Epinephrine 1 :10,000 0.3 -0.5 mg IVP
    D) Benadryl 50 ml SQ injection
A

Ans: C

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37
Q
  1. Administration of Morphine Sulfate may cause:
    A) Respiratory depression or arrest
    B) Hypotension
    C) Unconsciousness
    D) All of the above
A

Ans: D

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38
Q
  1. You are evaluating a 31 y/o female who is complaining of dizziness and chest pain. Her blood pressure is 70/40 with a pulse of 230. Her EKG shows Supraventricular Tachycardia. Which of the following is appropriate?
    A) Synchronized cardioversion
    B) Lidocaine 1.5 mg / kg IVP
    C) Unsynchronized shock.
    D) Adenosine 6 mg rapid IVP.
A

Ans: A

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39
Q
  1. In a cardiac arrest situation, atropine is administered in doses of:
    A) 0.5 mg every 3 to 5 minutes, not to exceed 0.04 mg/kg or 3 mg.
    B) 1.0 mg every 3 to 5 minutes, not to exceed 0.4 mg/kg or 3mg.
    C) 1.0 mg every 3 to 5 minutes, not to exceed 0.5 mg/kg or 4 mg.
    D) 1.0 mg every 3 to 5 minutes, not to exceed 0.04 mg/kg or 3 mg.
A

Ans: D

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40
Q
  1. Mr. Webster is complaining of extreme fatigue and a headache, which has developed over the past 12 hours. His wife reports that he has been eating everything in sight and has been frequently urinating today. Upon exam, you note that is he is hypotensive and has deep, rapid respiration. You conclude that he is experiencing:
    A) Transient Ischemic Attack
    B) Insulin shock
    C) Thyrotoxicosis
    D) Diabetic Ketoacidosis.
A

Ans: D

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41
Q
  1. A narcotic poisoning may result in _____________ pupils.
    A) Unequal
    B) Dilated
    C) Constricted
    D) Fixed
A

Ans: C

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42
Q
  1. Once a tourniquet is applied, the decision may be that you will:
    A) Take it off once bleeding has been controlled.
    B) Lose the limb to save the life.
    C) Replace it with an air splint when one is available
    D) Loosen it when the patient experiences paresthesia
A

Ans: B

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43
Q
  1. A structure or area closer to the trunk than a given point of reference is considered to be
    A) Superficial
    B) Palmar
    C) Distal
    D) Proximal
A

Ans: D

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44
Q
  1. While ventilating an intubated patient with the bag-valve-mask device you notice that it becomes more and more difficult to compress the bag. This may indicate.
    A) Decreasing lung compliance
    B) An occlusion of the endotracheal tube.
    C) Endobronchial intubation.
    D) All of the above.
A

Ans: D

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following manual airway maneuvers is the preferred method for all but spine-injured patients?
    A) Head-tilt with chin-lift
    B) Chin-lift alone
    C) Head-tilt with jaw-thrust
    D) Jaw-thrust alone
A

Ans: A

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46
Q
  1. The curved laryngoscope blade is also called a:
    A) Macintosh
    B) MacBurnie
    C) Miller
    D) Magill
A

Ans: A

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47
Q
  1. Hypertensive emergencies are related to other emergencies such as intracranial hemorrhage, pulmonary edema, AMI and aortic dissection. When hypertension is associated with these conditions treatment should be directed at the:
    A) Hypertension.
    B) Pulmonary edema.
    C) AMI.
    D) Primary problem.
A

Ans: D

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48
Q
  1. A drug that influences the rate of the heart is referred to as being
    A) Isotropic.
    B) Phototropic.
    C) Inotropic
    D) Chronotropic
A

Ans: D

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49
Q
  1. The initial dose of adenosine is
    A) 6 mg rapid IVP (within 1 to 2 seconds).
    B) 6 mg slow IVP (over 30 seconds to 1 minute).
    C) 3 mg rapid IVP (within 1 to 2 seconds).
    D) 3 mg rapid IVP (over 30 seconds to 1 minute).
A

Ans: A

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50
Q
  1. Administration routes for sodium bicarbonate include
    A) IV only.
    B) ET only
    C) IV or ET
    D) IV,E.T, S.Q.
A

Ans: A

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51
Q
  1. Nitroglycerin is indicated for all of the following situations except
    A) Angina
    B) Chest pain
    C) Pulmonary edema
    D) Cerebral edema.
A

Ans: D

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52
Q
  1. The lumbar spine consists of
    A) 3 to 5 vertebrae
    B) 5 vertebrae
    C) 7 vertebrae
    D) 12 vertebrae
A

Ans: B

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53
Q
  1. Paralysis of the lower extremities only is called
    A) Paraplegia
    B) Quadriplegia
    C) Hemiplegia.
    D) Paresis
A

Ans: A

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54
Q
  1. The phrase full-thickness burn may be applied to
    A) A first-degree burn.
    B) A second-degree burn.
    C) A third-degree burn.
    D) Both answers (a) and (b).
A

Ans: C

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55
Q
  1. You are called to the scene of a patient who was involved in an altercation at the local pool hall. You find one victim in the back alley anxious and screaming for your assistance. You notice immediately that he has clammy skin and a dusky appearance. He has a respiratory rate of 40 and his breathing is shallow. He tells you that he has been hit multiple times in the chest, abdomen, and back with a pool stick by “two big guys.” While assessing his chest you notice multiple contusions to the right side with diminished respirations on the right. What would you suspect?
    A) Cardiac tamponade
    B) Hemothorax
    C) Ruptured diaphragm
    D) Pneumothorax
A

Ans: D

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56
Q
  1. Off-line (indirect) medical control primarily relies on:
    A) Stop lines
    B) Protocols
    C) ACLS algorithms.
    D) Paramedic Judgement
A

Ans: B

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57
Q
  1. If you receive a copy of a valid DNR order after you have begun resuscitation attempts, you are ethically obligated to:
    A) continue resuscitation until ordered to stop by medical direction.
    B) continue resuscitation attempts until the patient is transported to an emergency department.
    C) check the patient’s breathing and pulse before ceasing resuscitation efforts.
    D) cease resuscitation efforts.
A

Ans: D

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58
Q
  1. Under the tongue, between the cheek and gums, the eyes, the nose, and the ear and ear canal are sites where medications can be absorbed into the body through the:
    A) arterioles.
    B) capillaries.
    C) venules.
    D) mucous membranes.
A

Ans: D

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59
Q
  1. Administering an oral medication to a patient who cannot support his airway may result in:
    A) poor absorption of the medication.
    B) the need to repeat the dose of medication.
    C) aspiration into the lungs.
    D) harmful substances after the drug is metabolized.
A

Ans: C

60
Q
  1. An intramuscular injection is given at a:
    A) 15 degree angle.
    B) 45 degree angle.
    C) 90 degree angle.
    D) 100 degree angle.
A

Ans: C

61
Q
  1. As the blood stagnates in the capillaries and the waste products build up, the red blood cells clump together, forming columns called:
    A) washout
    B) septic shock
    C) ischemia
    D) rouleaux
A

Ans: D

62
Q
  1. The equipment or supplies required on every ambulance are known as:
    A) protocols
    B) standing orders
    C) indispensable supplies
    D) essential equipment
A

Ans: D

63
Q
  1. An exaggerated response by the immune system to a foreign substance is called:
    A) an allergic reaction
    B) an allergy
    C) thyrotoxicolosis
    D) an immune response
A

Ans: A

64
Q
  1. Scenario: Shortly after being stung by a bee, a patient experiences urticaria, stridor, and abdominal cramping. Which of the following signs or symptoms would probably also be present?
    A) bradycardia
    B) hypertension
    C) rhonchi
    D) wheezing
A

Ans: D

65
Q
  1. Scenario: You are called to the scene of a 28-year-old male who is complaining of hoarseness, a scratchy sensation in the back of his throat, and palpitations. The symptoms began about 30 minutes ago and have grown steadily worse. The patient took prescribed penicillin one hour ago. Management of this patient should include all of the following EXCEPT:
    A) 0.3 mg epinephrine 1:1000 SQ.
    B) administration of a beta-blocker.
    C) IV of NS at KVO rate.
    D) supplemental oxygen via nonrebreather.
A

Ans: B

66
Q
  1. Sublingual drugs are absorbed rapidly because the:
    A) patient chews them quickly.
    B) sublingual region is extremely vascular.
    C) drugs are typically smaller than in the oral route of administration.
    D) medication is given when the patient is awake and alert.
A

Ans: B

67
Q
  1. Incidents that generate large numbers of patients and often make traditional EMS response ineffective because of special surrounding circumstances are known as a(n):
    A) MCI
    B) MIC
    C) CISM
    D) MVA
A

Ans: A

68
Q
  1. Which level of trauma center commits resources to address all types of specialty trauma 24 hours a day, 7 days a week?
    A) Level I
    B) Level II
    C) Level III
    D) Level IV
A

Ans: A

69
Q
  1. Careful, thorough documentation ________ frivolous lawsuits.
    A) encourages
    B) enables
    C) bolsters
    D) discourages
A

Ans: D

70
Q
  1. Scenario: A patient presents with a normal sinus rhythm with occasional ectopic beats. The ectopic beats appear with absent P waves and a normal QRS complex. The ectopic beat is a premature _____ contraction.
    A) atrial
    B) bundle
    C) junctional
    D) ventricular
A

Ans: C

71
Q
  1. An ECG rhythm that has no correlation between P waves and QRS complexes is known as a:
    A) 1st-degree AV Block.
    B) 2nd-degree AV Block Type
    C) 2nd-degree AV Block Type II.
    D) 3rd-degree AV Block.
A

Ans: D

72
Q
  1. The inability of the heart to meet the metabolic needs of the body is termed:
    A) cardiogenic shock.
    B) hypovolemic shock.
    C) neurogenic shock.
    D) septic shock.
A

Ans: A

73
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a medication commonly used during cardiac arrest resuscitation?
    A) adenosine
    B) atropine
    C) epinephrine
    D) Lidocaine
A

Ans: A

74
Q
  1. What is the antagonist for an overdose of a Calcium-Channel blocker?
    A) adenosine
    B) atropine
    C) epinephrine
    D) calcium chloride
A

Ans: D

75
Q
  1. Normal Lidocaine Drips should be initiated @ no less than _________ given that there are no precautions or contraindiations present.
    A) 1mg/min
    B) 2mg/min
    C) 3mg/min
    D) 4mg/min
A

Ans: B

76
Q
  1. The initial dose for Lidocaine in a stable Ventricular Tachycardia is?
    A) 0.5 mg/Kg
    B) 1mg/Kg
    C) 1.5mg/Kg
    D) 3mg/Kg
A

Ans: B

77
Q
  1. Scenario: A 62-year-old male fainted while going to the bathroom. His current vitals are blood pressure, 98/64; pulse, 42 and regular; and respirations, 24. His ECG displays a regular R-R complex, an abnormal P-R interval and wide QRS complex. Based on the information presented, the BEST treatment for this patient is:
    A) atropine 0.5 mg.
    B) epinephrine 1:10,000 1 mg.
    C) Isuprel 2-10 mcg/min.
    D) transcutaneous pacing.
A

Ans: D

78
Q
  1. The most critical treatment that a paramedic can perform for a patient in an unwitnessed ventricular fibrillation cardiac arrest is:
    A) CPR.
    B) defibrillation.
    C) intubation.
    D) IV therapy.
A

Ans: A

79
Q
  1. In PEA the first drug of choice would be:
    A) Epinephrine
    B) Atropine
    C) Lidocaine
    D) Oxygen
A

Ans: D

80
Q
  1. One kilogram equals:
    A) 2 pounds.
    B) 2.1 pounds.
    C) 2.2 pounds.
    D) 2.3 pounds.
A

Ans: C

81
Q
  1. In the START triage system, which of the following patients would be considered for immediate transport?
    A) an unconscious, breathing patient
    B) an unconscious, nonbreathing patient
    C) a patient with respirations of 24
    D) a patient with capillary refill of 2 seconds
A

Ans: A

82
Q
  1. The thick middle tissue layer of the heart is the:
    A) endocardium.
    B) epicardium.
    C) myocardium.
    D) pericardium.
A

Ans: C

83
Q
  1. The amount of blood ejected by the heart in one cardiac contraction is known as:
    A) Frank Starling Mechanism
    B) Ejection Fraction
    C) Cardiac Output
    D) Stroke volume
A

Ans: B

84
Q
  1. The intrinsic rate of the _____ is 40-60 beats per minute.
    A) AV Node
    B) Bundle branches
    C) Purkinje system
    D) SA node
A

Ans: A

85
Q
  1. The structure that conducts electrical impulses from the SA node to the AV junction is the:
    A) internodal pathways.
    B) bundle of His.
    C) Purkinje fibers.
    D) the bundle of branches
A

Ans: A

86
Q
  1. A cell’s capability to self-depolarize is known as:
    A) automaticity.
    B) conductivity.
    C) contractility.
    D) excitability.
A

Ans: A

87
Q
  1. All of the following electrolytes affect cardiac function EXCEPT:
    A) Ca++.
    B) Cl-.
    C) K+.
    D) Ph+.
A

Ans: D

88
Q
  1. According to _____, the more the myocardial muscle is stretched, the greater its force of contraction will be.
    A) Boyle’s Law
    B) Henry’s Law
    C) Poiseuille’s Law
    D) Starling’s Law
A

Ans: D

89
Q
  1. The rationale for ECG monitoring is to:
    A) determine cardiac output.
    B) determine stroke volume.
    C) evaluate the effectiveness of cardiac contractions.
    D) evaluate the heart’s electrical system for abnormalities.
A

Ans: D

90
Q
  1. The upward deflection on the ECG paper represents:
    A) artifact.
    B) isoelectric impulse.
    C) negative impulse.
    D) positive impulse.
A

Ans: D

91
Q
  1. The QRS complex represents:
    A) Atrial depolarization.
    B) Atrial repolarization.
    C) ventricular depolarization.
    D) ventricular repolarization.
A

Ans: C

92
Q
  1. A normal QRS complex lasts:
    A) between 0.08 and 0.42 seconds.
    B) between 0.04 and 0.12 seconds.
    C) between 0.12 and 0.20 seconds.
    D) between 0.33 and 0.42 seconds.
A

Ans: B

93
Q
  1. Changes in the S-T segment might indicate any of the following EXCEPT:
    A) ischemia.
    B) injury.
    C) infarct.
    D) inotropy.
A

Ans: D

94
Q
  1. Scenario: A 72-year-old male is complaining of difficulty breathing. You attach him to the ECG and notice a rhythm of 42 with a corresponding pulse, a P-R interval of 0.16, and normal R-R intervals. Vitals are blood pressure of 90/52, respirations of 42. The patient also states that he feels very nauseated and dizzy. Treatment for this patient should include:
    A) atropine 0.5 mg IVP
    B) epinephrine 1:1000 0.3 mg SQ
    C) epinephrine 1:10,000 1 mg IVP
    D) Isuprel 2-10 mcg/min IVP
A

Ans: A

95
Q
  1. Which ECG is characterized by a P-R interval greater than 0.20 and a regular R-R interval?
    A) 1st-degree AV block
    B) 2nd-degree Type I AV block
    C) 2nd-degree Type II AV block
    D) 3rd-degree AV block
A

Ans: A

96
Q
  1. Scenario: A patient presents with a normal sinus rhythm with occasional ectopic beats. The ectopic beats appear with P waves and a QRS complex width of 0.10. The ectopic beat is a premature _____ contraction.
    A) Atrial
    B) Ectopic
    C) Junctional
    D) Ventricular
A

Ans: A

97
Q
  1. Scenario: You are managing a patient in the ED with symptomatic bradycardia and multifocal PVCs. Suddenly your patient slumps unconscious and goes into ventricular fibrillation. You check your defibrillator/monitor and all connections. You then confirm that your patient is pulseless. After activating the code team, your next action would be to:
    A) administer Lidocaine 1.5 mg/kg.
    B) begin CPR.
    C) cardiovert at 200 joules.
    D) defibrillate at 200 joules.
A

Ans: D

98
Q
  1. You are managing a patient in cardiac arrest the ECG shows ventricular fibrillation. Which of the following is the correct medication of choice and dose?
    A) Lidocaine @ .05 mg/kg IVP
    B) Atropine 1 mg IVP
    C) Lidocaine @ 1.5 mg/kg IVP
    D) Procainamide 50 mg/kg IVP
A

Ans: C

99
Q
  1. Scenario: A 58-year-old patient is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath. ECG shows a sinus tachycardia at 126; pulse is weak, and blood pressure is 92/52. Which pharmaceutical agent and dose would be MOST appropriate for this patient?
    A) Dopamine 2-20 mcg/kg/min
    B) Lasix 40 mg
    C) Morphine sulfate 5 mg
    D) Nitrostat 0.4 mg SL
A

Ans: A

100
Q
  1. All of the following Dysrhythmia’s are typically seen in cardiac arrest EXCEPT:
    A) asystole.
    B) pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
    C) atrial fibrillation.
    D) ventricular fibrillation.
A

Ans: C

101
Q
  1. The time an impulse takes to travel from the atria to the ventricles is known as the:
    A) P-R interval.
    B) QRS interval.
    C) QT interval.
    D) S-T segment.
A

Ans: A

102
Q
  1. An ECG rhythm that has a constant prolonged P-R interval and regular R-R interval with QRS complexes less than 0.12 seconds and occasional dropped QRS complexes is known as a
    A) 1st-degree AV Block.
    B) 2nd-degree AV Block Type
    C) 2nd-degree AV Block Type II.
    D) 3rd-degree AV Block.
A

Ans: C

103
Q
  1. Scenario: A patient is experiencing severe chest pain and is hemodynamically unstable. ECG shows a ventricular rate of 40. P-R interval is 0.24 and is constant for conducted QRS complexes. However, every 4th P wave does not conduct a QRS. Immediate management for this patient should include:
    A) adenosine 6 mg.
    B) atropine 1 mg.
    C) Lidocaine 1 mg/kg.
    D) transcutaneous pacing.
A

Ans: D

104
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an assessment priority when evaluating a patient suspected of suffering an AMI?
    A) blood pressure
    B) breath sounds
    C) ECG
    D) pupilary response
A

Ans: D

105
Q
  1. Scenario: Your patient is a 42 y/o male who was involved in a head on collision. He presents with JVD, distant heart sounds, S.O.B and a BP of 162/84 on the Rt arm and 142/76 on the left arm. What condition can be suspected?
    A) Tension pneumothorax
    B) Neurogenic Shock
    C) Pericardial tamponade
    D) Abdominal aortic aneurysm
A

Ans: C

106
Q
  1. Scenario: A 6 year old child presents in a tripod position with drooling. He has an axillary temperature reading of 104.4 degrees fahrenheit. You suspect:
    A) Epiglottitis
    B) Croup
    C) Bronchiolitis
    D) Asthma
A

Ans: A

107
Q
  1. Which of the following medications will cause the pupils to dilate?
    A) adenosine
    B) atropine
    C) epinephrine
    D) Lidocaine
A

Ans: B

108
Q
  1. What is the antagonist for an overdose of a benzodiazapine?
    A) narcan
    B) mag sulfate
    C) romazicon
    D) labatelol
A

Ans: C

109
Q
  1. Which of the following medications should be pushed slowly?
    A) Adenosine
    B) Morphine
    C) Atropine
    D) Epinepherine
A

Ans: B

110
Q
  1. One of the contra indications for the administration of Cardizem is:
    A) Administer with Supraventricular Tachydysrhythmias
    B) Administer with Systolic blood pressure < 90 mm Hg.
    C) Administer to decrease re-absorption of Calcium in the Myocardium
    D) Administer for rates exceeding 150 Beats per minute.
A

Ans: B

111
Q
  1. What class of medication is Calcium Chloride?
    A) Narcotic
    B) Antidysrhythmic
    C) Electrolyte
    D) Beta blocker
A

Ans: C

112
Q
  1. The subsequent dose for Lidocaine in a stable Ventricular Tachycardia is?
    A) 0.5 mg/Kg IVP
    B) 1mg/Kg IVP
    C) 1.5mg/Kg IVP
    D) 0.5mg/Kg SQ
A

Ans: A

113
Q
  1. Scenario: A 62-year-old male fainted while going to the bathroom. His current vitals are blood pressure, 108/64; pulse 62 and irregular; respirations, 24. His ECG displays an irregular rhythm with normal P-R interval and QRS complex. The MOST likely cause of the patient’s syncopal episode is:
    A) AV-node ischemia.
    B) digitalis toxicity.
    C) excessive vagal tone.
    D) fibrotic disease.
A

Ans: C

114
Q
  1. All of the following might cause pulseless electrical activity EXCEPT:
    A) cardiac tamponade.
    B) electrocution.
    C) hypovolemia.
    D) tension pneumothorax
A

Ans: B

115
Q
  1. Scenario: You are arrival on a MVA that involves a school bus full of children and an SUV with 5 patients. The first patient you contact has a distal pulse of 42bpm/regular/strong and cap refill of 2 seconds, RR 20bpm/non-labored, and he is AAOx3 with a laceration to his forehead. Using the START triage system, this patient would be tagged with a ___________ ribbon.
    A) Green
    B) Yellow
    C) Red
    D) Black
A

Ans: B

116
Q
  1. Implanted pacemakers that sense and fire only when the heart rate drops below a set rate are known as:
    A) AV sequential pacemakers.
    B) demand pacemakers.
    C) dual-chambered pacemakers.
    D) fixed-rate pacemakers.
A

Ans: B

117
Q
  1. Which of the following regimens is NOT recommended for the CHF patient?
    A) ECG evaluation
    B) IV of NS wide open
    C) Morphine sulfate
    D) Positive pressure ventilation
A

Ans: B

118
Q
  1. The condition in which excess fluid accumulates between the visceral and parietal pericardium is known as:
    A) cardiac tamponade.
    B) cor pulmonale.
    C) hemothorax.
    D) 3rd-space edema.
A

Ans: A

119
Q
  1. Scenario: A patient presents with a history of myocardial infarction, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and pedal edema. It would be safe to conclude that this patient is experiencing:
    A) cardiogenic shock.
    B) hypovolemic shock.
    C) neurogenic shock.
    D) septic shock.
A

Ans: A

120
Q
  1. The most critical treatment that a paramedic can perform for a patient in an witnessed cardiac arrest showing ventricular fibrillation is:
    A) CPR.
    B) defibrillation.
    C) intubation.
    D) IV therapy.
A

Ans: B

121
Q
  1. When presented with asystole, the paramedic should perform all of the following EXCEPT:
    A) take a 12-lead ACG.
    B) check for a pulse.
    C) check for lead placement.
    D) confirm rhythm in more than one lead.
A

Ans: A

122
Q
  1. The process of passing an electrical current through the heart during the R wave of the cardiac cycle to terminate tachydysrhythmias is known as:
    A) defibrillation.
    B) rapid synchronized pacing.
    C) synchronized cardioversion.
    D) transcutaneous pacing.
A

Ans: C

123
Q
  1. Which of these conditions can be caused by either ischemic or hermorrhagic lesions to a portion of the brain?
    A) seizure
    B) sepsis
    C) spina bifida
    D) stroke
A

Ans: D

124
Q
  1. One of the most common causes of PEA is?
    A) Pneumothorax
    B) Hyperkalemia
    C) Hypovolemia
    D) Drug Overdose
A

Ans: C

125
Q
  1. The majority of ischemic strokes are caused by:
    A) Thromboembolism
    B) Atherosclerotic occlusion
    C) Aneurysmal rupture
    D) Acute hypertension
A

Ans: A

126
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding stroke are true?
    A) It is the leading cause of death in the USA
    B) Paramedics must be prepared to administer fibrinolytics promptly in the field
    C) It is the leading cause of disability in the USA
    D) Approximately 2/3 of patients die who suffer an acute stroke
A

Ans: C

127
Q
  1. The on-scene prehospital stroke examination consists of:
    A) Speech, facial symmetry, arm strength
    B) Speech, facial symmetry, reflexes
    C) Speech, reflexes, arm strength
    D) Reflexes, facial symmetry, arm strength
A

Ans: A

128
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for ischemic stroke?
    A) Cigarette smoking
    B) Hypertension
    C) Diabetes mellitus
    D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
A

Ans: D

129
Q
  1. Each of the following is a correct statement regarding asprin, EXCEPT:
    A) Should be chewed for rapid effect
    B) Decreases platelet stickiness
    C) Promotes bleeding
    D) Lyses blood clots
A

Ans: D

130
Q
  1. An acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction, regardless of the degree of coronary artery atherosclerosis, is mainly the result of:
    A) Plaque formation
    B) Thrombotic occlusion
    C) Coronary artery spasm
    D) Ventricular aneurysm
A

Ans: B

131
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most typical result of an acute right coronary artery occlusion?
    A) Ventricular tachycardia
    B) Sinus tachycardia
    C) Anterior wall infarction
    D) Inferior wall infarction
A

Ans: D

132
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions would cause a false reading on the SAO2 monitor?
    A) Multiple sclerosis
    B) Sickle cell crisis
    C) Cyanide poisoning
    D) Carbon monoxide poisoning
A

Ans: D

133
Q
  1. Where does decontamination begin in a hazardous material incident?
    A) Cold zone
    B) Warm zone
    C) Hot zone
    D) Neutral zone
A

Ans: B

134
Q
  1. The tissue that connect bone to muscle is known as:
    A) Fascia
    B) Tendon
    C) Ligament
    D) Epicondyle
A

Ans: B

135
Q
  1. The maximum amount of fluid given to a trauma patient should be no more than_____.
    A) 500 ml’s
    B) 1000 ml’s
    C) 2000 ml’s
    D) 3000 ml’s
A

Ans: D

136
Q
  1. Which of the following personnel are ultimately responsible for the scene of a multiple casualty incident?
    A) Incident commander
    B) Triage officer
    C) Operations Chief
    D) Staging officer
A

Ans: A

137
Q
  1. Which of the following can not penetrate paper and is dangerous if ingested?
    A) Alpha rays
    B) Beta rays
    C) Gamma rays
    D) Radio Isotopes
A

Ans: A

138
Q
  1. Scenario: Your patient is a 23 y/o patient that was involved in a shallow water diving accident. He presents with shallow respirations at a rate of 4 times per minute and a heart rate of 84. His lung sounds are clear and his SAO2 is 84 percent. Patient tells you he is having a really hard time breathing and can not feel his arms or legs. Pt. has no movement from the shoulders down. What location do you suspect the spinal injury has occured?
    A) C-1
    B) C-3
    C) C-7
    D) T-1
A

Ans: B

139
Q
  1. The ligament that suspends the liver and can cause massive bleeding in trauma known as the:
    A) Ligimentum arteriosum
    B) Ligimentum venosum
    C) Ligimentum teres
    D) Ligimentum liverosum
A

Ans: C

140
Q
  1. In any hazmat incident, your vehicle and crew should always be ___________ from the incident.
    A) Uphill, Upwind
    B) Uphill, Downwind
    C) Downhill, Upwind
    D) Downhill, Downwind
A

Ans: A

141
Q
  1. The best way to prevent infection is:
    A) Proper BSI while dealing with patients
    B) Taking antibiotics prophylatically
    C) One baby asprin a day
    D) Handwashing
A

Ans: D

142
Q
  1. Surfactant is:
    A) A lubricating substance that increases alveolar surface tension during breathing
    B) Produced by the mucous cells of the left and right mainstem bronchi
    C) A proteinaceous substance that decreases surface tension on the alveolar walls
    D) Quickly destroyed in patients who have a severe upper airway obstruction
A

Ans: C

143
Q
  1. Laryngeal spasm and edema would MOST likely result from:
    A) Croup
    B) Inhalation injury
    C) Viral pharyngitis
    D) A mild asthma attack
A

Ans: B

144
Q
  1. The nasal cannula is of MOST benefit of patients:
    A) Who require high oxygen concentrations
    B) With an exacerbation of emphesema
    C) With mild hypoxemia and claustrophobia
    D) Who are hypoxic and are mouth breathers
A

Ans: C

145
Q
  1. Murphy’s eye, an opening on the distal side of ET tube allows ventilation to occur:
    A) Whether the tube is in the trachea or in the esophagus
    B) Even if the tip of the tube is occluded by blood or mucus
    C) If the tube is inserted into the right mainstem bronchus
    D) Even if the ET tube does not enter the patient’s trachea fully
A

Ans: B