Exotic Questions Flashcards
(128 cards)
1
Q
- What antibiotics should be avoided in rabbits, guinea pigs, chinchillas, and hamsters? Name 5 and say why?
A
a. Avoid antibiotics which target gram positive bacteria and can cause fatal intestinal dysbiosis
b. Antibiotics to avoid = penicillins, macrolides, tetracyclines, lincosamides, cephalosporins
2
Q
- What antibiotics can you use in rabbits? Name 6.
A
a. Enrofloxacin, TMS, chloramphenicol, metronidazole, azithromycin, penicillin G
3
Q
- What 2 antibiotics cause otoxicity in guinea pigs and chinchillas?
A
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Aminoglycosides
4
Q
- Give three differentials for the ulcerations in a tortoise shell.
A
Answer:
a. Superficial ulcer secondary to husbandy
b. Septicemic cutaneous ulcerative disease (SCUD)
c. Beneckea chitinovora infection
d. Mercury toxicity
5
Q
- What is an important risk of topical dips or bathing in small mammals?
A
a. Hypothermia due to all over wetting
6
Q
- A gerbil with erythematous skin and alopecia on the neck and dorsal midline presents for examination. You find the following mite on scraping. What should you tell owners about possible zoonosis?
A
Answer:
a. This is Ornithonyssus bacoti mite
b. It is zoonotic and can cause pruritic, papules/vesicles on the forehead and limbs in humans
7
Q
- Why should you not apply dips to the face of small mammals? (2 reasons)
A
a. Aspiration pneumonia or inhalation
b. Ingestion of topical products
8
Q
- Which flea preventative is toxic to rabbits?
A
a. Fipronil
9
Q
- What seasonal hair changes occur in ferrets? What season does this happen?
A
a. Thin hair occurs symmetrically in Spring in the Northern hemisphere, showing alopecia of the tail, perineum, and inguinal hair with underlying brown-red waxy deposits on the skin from the sebaceous glands
10
Q
- What 2 glands are responsible for odor in ferrets? Which are more important?
A
a. Sebaceous glands provide majority of musky odor and greasy feel to skin/fur
b. Anal glands produce minority of musky odor
11
Q
- Where are sebaceous glands located on the rabbit versus the ferret?
A
a. Rabbit = Chin, anal glands, and paired inguinal glands
b. Ferret = over entire body
12
Q
- How is the anal gland shaped in the prairie dog?
A
a. Triad of papillae
13
Q
- Match the ectoparasite with the species it can infest.
a. Ferret
b. Chinchilla
c. Mouse
d. Rabbit
e. Prairie dog
f. Guinea pig
g. Rat
h. Hamster
i. African hedgehog
j. Gerbil
- Ctenocephalides felis felis
- Ctenocephalides canis
- Trixacarus caviae
- Demodex merioni
- Demodex aurati and D. criceti
- Caparinia tripilis and C. erinacei
- Notoedres muris
- Pulex irritans
- Otodectes cynotis
- Sarcoptes scabiei
- Spilopsyllus cuniculi
- Chirodiscoides caviae
- Psorergates simplex
- Trimenopen jenningsi and T. hispidum
- Psoroptes cuniculi
- Cheyletiella parasitovorax
- Leporacarus gibbus
- Liponyssus bacoti
- Myobia musculi
- Notoedres cati
- Gyropus ovalis
- Demodex caviae
- Notoedres notoedres
- Linognathus cynomys
- Polyplex serrata
- Demodex cuniculi
- Cuterebra species
- Radfordia ensifera
- Haemodipsus ventricosus
- Radfordia affinis
- Giricola porcelli
- Polyplex spinulosa
- Myocoptes muculinus
A
Answers:
* A (Ferret) = 1, 2, 8, 9, 10
* B (Chinchilla) = 1, 2, 16
* C (Mouse) = 13, 18, 19, 25, 30, 33
* D (Rabbit) = 1, 2, 10, 11, 15, 16, 17, 20, 26, 27, 29
* E (Prairie dog) = 24
* F (Guinea pig) = 3, 7, 10, 12, 14, 15, 16, 21, 22, 31, 33
* G (Rat) = 7, 18, 28, 32
* H (Hamster) = 5, 10, 18, 20, 23
* I (African hedgehog) = 6
* J (Gerbil) = 4, 5
14
Q
- Describe the presentation of Psorptes cuniculi infestation in a rabbit. How is this treated?
A
a. Bilateral, intense pruritus and otitis externa, beginning as dry, grey-white crusted exudate in the ear canal then worsening to form layered crusts, with secondary excoriations and ear drooping
b. Treatment = ivermectin, moxidectin, or selamectin
15
Q
- Describe the presentations of Sarcoptes scabiei infestation in a ferret.
A
a. Generalized (more common) = focal to generalized alopecia with intense pruritus
b. Localized on the feet only = severe inflammation, swelling, and crusting of the paws with dystrophic claws that can slough
16
Q
- How long after infection with canine distemper virus do ferrets show signs?
A
a. 10 – 15 days after exposure
17
Q
- True/False – lagomorphs are competent leishmaniasis reservoirs.
A
a. True
18
Q
- What is CANV and how do you treat it?
A
a. Yellow fungus, the Chrysosporium anamorph of Nannizziopsis vriessi (CANV) is an ascomycetous teleomorphic fungus
b. CANV infection has been reported in a wide range of reptile species.
c. Slowly progressive and often fatal skin disease – progress from dry/hyperkeratotic plaques to exudative/necrotic ulcers, often affecting the mouth and other areas of the body (Including internally)
d. Medical treatment of confirmed cases involves itraconazole (10 mg/kg, PO, q 24 h for 6 weeks) and topical treatment with chlorhexidine solution. Serum biochemistry should be monitored for signs of liver toxicity. Surgical excision of lesions should be carried out if possible, and in conjunction with medical therapy.
19
Q
- What antiparasitic treatments are safe for ferrets? Name 5.
A
a. Pyrethrin sprays safe for cats
b. Imidacloprid
c. Selamectin
d. Lufenuron
e. Fipronil
f. Ivermectin
20
Q
- What 2 species of dermatophyte are commonly a problem in ferrets?
A
a. M. canis and T. mentagrophytes
21
Q
- A ferret presents with bilaterally symmetric alopecia. Give the most common cause for this finding.
A
Answer = Adrenocortical hyperplasia or neoplasia
22
Q
- What antibiotics can be given in rabbits, hamsters, and guinea pigs to avoid the risk of intestinal dysbiosis?
A
a. Chloramphenicol, aminoglycosides (not in rabbits!), fluoroquinolones, metronidazole, TMS, penicillin G, azithromycin
23
Q
- A ferret presents with these lesions. Describe the lesions and the most likely differential. What is your prognosis?
A
Answer:
* Red-brown rash on the inguinal, perianal area and medial thighs, extending to the distal limbs
* Brown small crusts on the face periocularly, on the muzzle, and around the lips with associated swelling in all areas
* Differential = canine distemper virus
* Prognosis = close to 100% mortality
24
Q
- What is the most likely cause of this rabbit’s clinical signs? Design a treatment plan for this rabbit.
A
Answer = Psoroptes cuniculi infestation, treat all rabbits using ivermectin, moxidectin, or selamectin; don’t remove crusts because they will cause pain
25
25. Give five diagnostic tests for a ferret with suspected adrenocortical hyperplasia or neoplasia.
a. Palpation = enlarged left adrenal gland
b. Tennessee adrenal panel = normal cortisol, elevated sex hormones
c. Ultrasound identifies affected adrenal gland
d. Chemistry panel = elevated ALT
e. Elevated urine cortisol/creatinine ratio
26
26. How is adrenocortical hyperplasia treated in ferrets? (2 ways)
a. Preferred = adrenalectomy (left easier than right)
b. Deslorelin acetate (synthetic GnRH analog) as slow release implant for 8 – 30 months relief
27
27. What are two exotic species commonly develop infestations with this mite and how can you treat them?
Answer: Cheyletiella parasitovorax
a. Guinea pigs = ivermectin
b. Rabbits = ivermectin, selamectin, lime sulfur dips
28
28. What are 2 clinical signs of hyperestrogenism in ferrets (skin and internal)?
a. Vulvar swelling and alopecia
b. Petechia and ecchymoses due to secondary thrombocytopenia
29
29. What are the most common skin (3) and systemic (1) tumors in ferrets?
a. Mast cell tumor, basal cell tumor, sebaceous cell tumor
b. Lymphoma
30
30. A ferret presents with a blue hairless area. What has happened and why does this occur?
a. Blue fur syndrome, occurs when hair is clipped during the resting phase of the hair cycle due to melanin production by hair follicles about 1 – 2 weeks before hair regrowth
31
31. What is the most common ectoparasite in rabbits?
a. Psoroptes cuniculi
32
32. What 4 non-burrowing fur mites commonly affect rabbits?
a. Leporacarus gibbus, Cheyletiella parasitovorax, Sarcoptes scabiei and Notoedres cati
33
33. Describe the life cycle of a cuterebra mite.
a. Flies deposit eggs on the host (or on feces that are picked up), which hatch
b. Larvae enter through the nasal or oral openings of the hose
c. Larvae migrate and develop into subcutaneous cysts, each of which contains 1 larva that grows until a breathing hole/fistula forms
34
34. What is the common flesh fly in the United States?
a. Wohlfahrtia vigil
35
35. What is the common sucking louse in rabbits?
a. Haemodipsus ventricosus
36
36. Identify the Caparinia and Chorioptes mites:
Answer: A = chorioptes, B = caparinia
37
37. What is the most common Staphylococcal bacteria on rabbits?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
38
38. What is the incubation period of syphilis in rabbits (time to lesions and time to positive titer)?
a. 3 – 6 weeks lesions after exposure
b. 8 – 12 weeks positive titer after exposure
39
39. What unique characteristic do rabbit abscesses have?
a. They rarely rupture or drain/fistulate due to their thick capsule which contains caseous exudate – rabbit abscesses must be surgically excised
40
40. What are the five grades of ulcerative pododermatitis in rabbits (by clinical signs)? Where are the ulcers commonly located?
a. Location = caudal tarsus/metatarsus or metacarpus
b. Grades:
i. 1 = hair loss
ii. 2 = erythema and swelling
iii. 3 = ulceration and scab formation
iv. 4 = abscess formation with secondary infection of tendons and deeper tissues
v. 5 = osteomyelitis, synovitis, and tendonitis with irreversible abnormal gait and stance due to displaced superficial digital flexor tendon
41
41. What is the cause of blue-green coloration in moist dermatitis of rabbits?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections produce pyocyanin pigment
42
42. What is the cause of syphilis in rabbits and how is it transmitted (3 ways)?
a. Treponema cuniculi
b. Transmission = venereal, direct contact, vertical transmission from the birth canal passage of an infected doe
43
43. True/False – All rabbits with syphilis show clinical signs.
a. False = subclinical disease is common but can flare with overcrowing, poor sanitation, or other causes of stress
44
44. A rabbit presents with erythema and edema of the mucocutaneous junctions with associated papules, vesicles, ulcers, scale, and crusting. What is your primary differential and what test is useful?
a. Differential = Syphilis (Treponema cuniculi)
b. Testing = rapid plasma reagent test (human test)
45
45. A bird presents with scaly, crusted, grey lesions on the unfeathered regions of the body but minimal pruritus. Two other birds that have been in contact with this bird are also affected, but less severely. What is likely the cause of this problem and how do you treat it?
a. Knemidocoptes mites
b. Treatment = ivermectin or moxidectin topically for 2 – 3 treatments, 10 days apart
46
46. What is the recommended treatment for Chrysosporium anamorph of Nannizziopsis vriesii (CANV) in bearded dragons? (multiple choice)
a. Ketoconazole
b. Voriconazole
c. Terbinafine
d. Amphotericin B
b. Voriconazole
47
47. What is the prognosis of rabbit syphilis with treatment? What treatment is recommended?
a. Good = injectable penicillin G or chloramphenicol should be sufficient
b. Lesions resolve 1 – 3 weeks after starting treatment
48
48. What is the cause of necrobacillosis (aka: Schmorl's disease) in rabbits?
a. Fusobacterium necrophorum due to contamination of wounds by fecal material
49
49. What are the characteristics of the cause of myxomatosis in rabbits?
a. Myxoma virus – poxvirus family, linear dsDNA, enveloped virus, causes intracytoplasmic inclusions
50
50. How is myxomatosis transmitted and what are common susceptible reservoirs?
a. Transmission = insect bites, direct contact, mechanical vectors (birds, plants, fomites)
b. Susceptible reservoirs = Eastern cottontail, tropical forest rabbits, wild European rabbits, European hare
51
51. Contrast the clinical signs/prognosis of myxomatosis in the Eastern Cottontail rabbit versus the California virus strain.
a. Eastern Cottontail = masses < 1 cm diameter for 1 month often around the ears and eyes, rare systemic disease and death
b. California virus strain = eyelid edema first then spreading to the perineal region, genitals, and lips, lethargy and pyrexia, skin hemorrhage, seizures – almost 100% fatal
52
52. What is the uropygeal (preen) gland/its structure and what are its four functions?
a. Bilobed holocrine gland at the base of the tail
b. Functions:
i. Waterproofing and protecting feathers
ii. Secretions are source of vitamin D precursors
iii. Bacterial and fungal growth inhibition
iv. Maintaining moisture content and pliability of feathers
53
53. Describe the expected biopsy findings of myxomatosis in rabbits.
a. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells surrounded by mucin, endothelial cell proliferation, intracytoplasmic inclusions, sometimes epidermal cell hyperplasia and degeneration
54
54. What are 3 dermatoses caused by orodental disease in pet rabbits?
a. Poor coat condition (due to difficulty grooming)
b. Superficial dermatitis in the perioral region/forelimbs (caused by hypersalivation)
c. Alopecia
d. Fungal/bacterial dermatitis
55
55. An Eastern Cottontail presents to your practice. What is your primary differential and how could this have been prevented? List three other possible differentials.
* Myxomatosis, prevented through vaccination in other countries (not US) which cause rabbits to develop mild disease and usually recover with supportive care
* Other differentials = Shope fibroma virus, Shope papilloma virus, severe Psoroptes cuniculi infestation
56
56. How do you prevent infection with myxomatosis in pet rabbits? (3 ways)
a. Vaccination (multiple types – homolous, recombinant, and heterologous live attenuated Shope fibroma virus)
b. Avoid contact with wild rabbits
c. House pets indoors or in screened enclosures to prevent flea and fur mite transmission
57
57. Which of the following antibiotics is safe to give to guinea pigs? (multiple choice)
a. Cephalexin
b. Doxycycline
c. Clindamycin
d. Penicillin
e. Enrofloxacin
e. Enrofloxacin
58
58. What are the two types of Shope viruses in rabbits? Give their characteristics.
a. Shope fibroma virus = poxvirus, antigenically related to myxoma virus and used in vaccination against myxomatosis in live attenuated form; enveloped, linear, dsDNA
b. Shope papilloma virus = papovaviridae, non-enveloped, dsDNA circular virus
59
59. What does the term dysecdysis imply? (multiple choice)
a. A defect in the skin of a reptile
b. Abnormal shedding of the dead outer skin of a reptile
c. Abnormal wound healing in a reptile
d. Mycotic infection of the skin of a reptile
b. Abnormal shedding of the dead outer skin of a reptile
60
60. What are the clinical signs of beak and feather disease virus in birds – acute and chronic forms?
a. Acute = immune suppression causing secondary infections that are often fatal (such as aspergillosis)
b. Chronic = changes in feather coloration, deformed beak/nails, immune suppression and secondary infection
61
61. This parasite is found on a rabbit. What is its identity?
Answer: Leporacarus gibbus
62
62. An adult rabbit presents with non-pruritic, flaky dermatitis on the face and neck. Give three differentials.
* Sebaceous adenitis
* Thymoma-associated exfoliative dermatitis
* Cheyletiella parasitovorax or Leporacarus gibbus if non-pruritic
63
63. What is the causative agent of carp pox? Give its characteristics.
a. Cyprinid herpesvirus 1, dsDNA and enveloped virus
64
64. What do you expect to find on biopsy of sebaceous adenitis in rabbits?
a. Hyperkeratosis, follicular keratosis, follicular dystrophy
b. Perifollicular fibrosis and lymphocytic infiltrate effacing the sebaceous glands
65
65. Contrast the clinical signs of Trixacarus caviae and Chirodiscoides caviae in guinea pigs.
a. T. caviae = burrowing sarcoptic mite causing intense pruritus with self mutilation, brittle/easily epilated hair, anorexia of the ventral abdomen, neck, and shoulders
b. C. caviae = fur mite causing rare pruritus and alopecia of flanks and perineum
66
66. What is the most common chewing louse in guinea pigs?
a. Gliricola porcelli (the slender guinea pig louse)
67
67. What are the sucking lice in guinea pigs?
a. Trimenopen jenningsi and T. hispidum
68
68. What is the most common ringworm infection in guinea pigs?
a. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
69
69. What is the main clinical sign of poxvirus infection in guinea pigs?
a. Cheilitis
70
70. A guinea pig presents with cutaneous hemorrhage, delayed wound healing, and a rough haircoat. What is your primary differential and how does this develop in guinea pigs?
a. Vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy)
b. Guinea pigs lack L-gulonolactone oxidase enzyme, which synthesizes Vitamin C (used in collagen synthesis and integument) so vitamin C must be supplemented in guinea pigs
71
71. True/False – Cyprinid herpesvirus 1 can cause white, raised cutaneous nodules and mucoid plaques on the head and fins of carp.
a. True – it can cause papillomas that subsequently transform to cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma
72
72. What are two potential negative effects of skin disease in bats specifically, compared to other species?
a. Decreased echolocation if ear flaps are affected
b. Inability to fly if wing membranes are affected
73
73. What are the four most common antibiotics used in alpacas?
a. Procaine penicillin
b. Ceftiofur
c. Oxytetracycline
d. Enrofloxacin
74
74. A 3 yo, female intact guinea pig presents with bilateral symmetrical alopecia of the flanks and back. What is your primary differential and how is this treated?
Answer = ovarian cysts, treated by spaying
75
75. A guinea pig presents with matted fur under the chin. What is your first step in physical examination and how is this treated?
a. Physical examination = examine teeth for abnormalities
b. Treatment = correct dental abnormalities, clean affected area, topical antibiotics in case of secondary infection
76
76. What is the etiology of mucocutaneous fibropapillomas in alpacas?
a. Camelid papillomavirus, similar to BPV1
77
77. What is a predator avoidance mechanism in chinchillas?
a. Fur slip – spontaneous epilation of fur clumps when the coat is grabbed too roughly. Takes 4 – 6 months to regrow
78
78. A chinchilla develops paraphimosis. What should you check for on physical examination?
a. A fur ring, which wraps around the prepuce to cause paraphimosis
79
79. What is the sarcoptic mite in rats?
a. Notoedres muris
80
80. What are the two most common bacterial causes of abscesses on the face of alpacas? Is either zoonotic?
a. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis – zoonotic
b. Actinomyces spp. in tooth root abscess
81
81. What is the fur mite in rats and what signs does it cause?
a. Radfordia ensifera – self trauma to head and shoulders
82
82. What is the causative agent of knemidocoptiasis in birds?
a. Knemidocoptes mites, similar to sarcoptic dermatitis in mammals but lacking the intense pruritus seen in scabies
83
83. What is the sucking louse of rats? What two diseases can it be a vector for?
a. Polyplax spinulosa
b. Vectors = typhus and hemobartonellosis
84
84. A rat develops red staining of the paws and face. What is the etiology of this condition?
a. Coronavirus causes sialodacryoadenitis = red tears and self trauma due to porphyrin irritation on the face and paws
85
85. What is the most common mammary tumor in the rat?
a. Fibroadenoma (benign)
86
86. What is the name of this condition in rats? What is its cause?
Answer = sialodacryoadenitis, caused by a coronavirus
87
87. What is the problem with feeding old commercial guinea pig feed?
a. The Vitamin C in the feed degrades after 3 months, which can lead to vitamin C deficiency in the guinea pig
88
88. What are signs of mercury poisoning in tortoises and mammals (skin and systemic)?
a. Tortoise = peripheral neuropathy, skin discoloration/swelling/desquamation
b. Mammals:
i. Cutaneous = eczema, skin keratinization, non-healing ulcers
ii. Systemic = anuria, polydipsia, hematuria, melena
iii. Neurologic = CNS depression/excitation, blindness, ataxia, incoordination, tremors, abnormal behavior, hypermetria, nystagmus (cats), tonic-clonic convulsions
89
89. A 9 day old rat presents with ringtail. What are four risk factors for the development of this condition?
a. Low humidity
b. Dehydration
c. Deficiency in essential fatty acids
d. Elevated temperature
90
90. What is the etiology of zinc responsive dermatitis in alpacas?
a. Breeding females (especially those with dark coats – due to tyrosinase requirement) with not enough zinc mineral content in the diet
91
91. A 3 yo, female intact guinea pig presents with bilateral symmetrical alopecia of the flanks and back. How would you treat this patient? (multiple choice)
a. Ovariohysterectomy
b. Vitamin C supplementation
c. Enrofloxacin
d. Correction of dental abnormalities
e. Selamectin
a. Ovariohysterectomy
92
92. A 1-year-old indoor/outdoor Lionhead rabbit presents with a 2-week history of lethargy, anorexia, bilateral blepharoconjunctivitis, and numerous focal to coalescing cutaneous tumors on the face and perineum. The rabbit is fed a balanced diet and receives no ectoparasite control. A biopsy of the cutaneous tumors reveals undifferentiated mesenchymal cells surrounded by a mucinous matrix, endothelial cell proliferation, and intracytoplasmic inclusions in various cell types. What virus is responsible for the disease you suspect that this rabbit has? (multiple choice)
a. Myoxoma virus
b. Rabbit fibroma virus
c. Shope papilloma virus
d. Rabbit pox virus
a. Myoxoma virus
93
94. How is this condition treated in rats?
Condition = ringtail (avascular necrosis of the tail)
Treatment = tail amputation proximal to the constriction, correct husbandry and dietary deficiency to prevent recurrence
94
95. What is the common demodex mite in gerbils?
a. Demodex merioni
95
What are the common demodex mites in hamsters?
D. aurati = long bodied
D. criceti = short bodied
96
96. A gerbil presents with moist dermatitis on the nose and around the eyes with secondary self trauma and bacterial infections. What is the likely cause and how is it diagnosed?
a. Cause = increased porphyrin secretion from the Harderian gland due to stress – the secretion causes irritation
b. Diagnosis = Woods lamp shows porphyrin fluorescence
97
97. What is the causative agent of beak and feather disease?
a. Circovirus, (beak and feather disease virus) – a single stranded, circular DNA, non enveloped virus
98
98. List 5 functions of self-grooming in wild animals.
a. Hygiene
b. Removal of dirt and parasites
c. Chemocommunication
d. Thermoregulation
e. Antibacterial
f. De-arousal
99
99. What is the difference between tail slip in gerbils and tail slip in chinchillas?
a. In gerbils, it is a degloving injury caused by restraint through grasping the tail – amputation is required
b. In chinchillas, it is a predator escape mechanism where only the hair is shed and it will regrow in 4 – 6 months
100
100. What are the two scabies mites in hamsters?
a. Notoedres notoedres and N. cati
101
101. What are the clinical signs of scabies mites in hamsters?
a. Intense pruritus, self mutilation, alopecia, erythematous and papilloma-like crusting on the limbs, nose, pinna and genital area
102
102. A Syrian hamster develops papillomatous lesions on the face and perineum (cutaneous epitheliomas). What is the likely cause?
a. Hamster polyomavirus
103
103. What is the most common ectoparasite in mice?
a. Myocoptes musculinus
104
104. What color of mouse is susceptible to hypersensitivity reactions to Myobia musculi?
a. Black mice
105
105. What is the most common skin disease reported in alpacas?
a. Ectoparasites – Sarcoptes scabiei, Psoroptes, Chorioptes bovis, Pediculosis
106
106. What is your primary differential for this biopsy from a koala with crusted, fissured lesions on the face?
a. Cutaneous, intracorneal mite that forms tunnels through the stratum corneum (sarcoptic mange)
107
107. What is the most common ectoparasite of guinea pigs? (multiple choice)
a. Cheyletiella parasitovorax
b. Trixicarus caviae
c. Gliricola porcelli
d. Trimenopen jenningsi
e. Chirodiscoides caviae
b. Trixicarus caviae
108
108. Describe the clinical signs and treatment for Myobia musculi infestation in mice.
a. Signs = often asymptomatic unless hypersensitivity reaction occurs (esp. in black mice)
i. Alopecia, scaling, erythema with pruritus and self-mutilation on the head, neck, shoulders
b. Often present concurrent with Myocoptes musculinus infection
c. Treatment = injectable ivermectin, permethrin powder on the mouse and bedding
109
109. What ectoparasite in mice can be a vector for tularemia?
a. Polyplex serrate, a sucking louse
110
110. What type of mite causes alopecia with white nodules and comedones in mice?
a. Psoregates simplex, a follicular mite
111
111. What are the two types of Caparinia mites in hedgehogs? What animals do they infect?
a. Caparinia tripilis = infect pets
b. Caparinia erinacei = infect wildlife
112
112. What are four possible causes for vesicular dermatitis in reptiles?
a. Being housed in moist, dirty environments
b. Chemical burns
c. Being housed with cedar chips or shavings (topical reaction)
d. Topical Salmonella infection
113
113. What is the (1) common type of ringworm in hedgehogs?
a. Trichophyton erinacei
114
114. How long does the skin take to heal in a reptile on average? (multiple choice)
a. 3 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. 6 weeks
d. 10 week
c. 6 weeks
115
115. What is the host-specific sucking louse in prairie dogs?
a. Linognathus cynomys
116
116. What is the most common ectoparasite of guinea pigs? How do affected guinea pigs usually present with this infestation?
a. Trixicarus caviae (burrowing sarcoptic mite)
b. Intense pruritus with excoriations, alopecia, and brittle hairshafts mainly on the ventral abdomen, neck, and shoulders
117
117. What is the most common injury in sugar gliders?
a. Self mutilation of the scrotum, feet, and surgical sites
118
118. A 3 year old, female intact guinea pig presents with bilaterally symmetric alopecia over the flanks and back. What do you expect to find on ultrasound and how do you treat it?
a. Ovarian cysts can be seen on AUS
b. Treatment = ovariohysterectomy is definitive treatment
119
119. When is the skin metabolically active in a reptile?
a. Only during ecdysis (shedding)
120
120. What is the most common etiology for shell ulcers in chelonians? How are they treated?
a. Most common etiology = inadequate husbandry
b. Common treatment = restriction from water for most of day, debridement to remove necrotic material, other sealant/repair options
121
121. What are the clinical signs of this mite in the hedgehog?
Answer: Caparinia tripilis
a. Severe pruritus
b. Dry, scaling skin
c. Lichenification of the pinnal margins
d. Failure to roll up, causing stress, hypothermia, and loss of nocturnal behavior
122
122. Give four differentials for these findings in a hedgehog.
Answer:
a. Trichophyton erinacei infection
b. Caparinia tripilis infection
c. Demodicosis
d. Notoedres
123
123. Subcutaneous abscesses are very common in rabbits, usually resulting from entry of bacteria via skin wounds, or secondary to bacteriemia. Which of the following is true regarding rabbit abscesses? (multiple choice)
a. Rupture, fistula formation, and drainage often occur
b. Rabbit abscesses have a thick capsule and contain a thick caseous exudate
c. Pasteurella multocida and S. pseudintermedius are common isolates from rabbit abscesses
d. Treatment of choice is routine lancing and drainage
b. Rabbit abscesses have a thick capsule and contain a thick caseous exudate
124
124. A guinea pig presents with cutaneous hemorrhage, delayed wound healing, and a rough haircoat. What disease do you suspect? (multiple choice)
a. Trixacarus caviae infestation
b. Vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy)
c. Cystic ovaries
d. Trichophyton mentagrophytes infection
e. Pemphigus foliaceus
Answer: B (L-gulonolactone is minimally functional)
125
125. Which of the following statements is true regarding infestation on this mite in domestic rabbits? (multiple choice)
a. It is a burrowing ear mite and is the most common ectoparasite of the rabbit
b. The life cycle is completed in less than 3 weeks, and the mites can survive off the host for 6 to 41 days
c. Adult mites are saddle shaped, with inward curving claws, hook-like mouthparts, and short hairlike setae at the distal end of their limbs.
d. The dermatitis and pruritus associated with infestation appears to be related with hypersensitivity to the mite’s antigens in the saliva and feces
e. Healthy rabbits with subclinical disease may carry high-grade infestations for months to years and present only very mild pruritus
Answer: d
d. The dermatitis and pruritus associated with infestation appears to be related with hypersensitivity to the mite’s antigens in the saliva and feces
(this is a Psoroptes cuniculi mite)
126
126. A household of six indoor-only mini Rex rabbits, ranging from 5 to 14 months of age, present with a two month history of progressive scaly, dry, erythematous dermatitis with patchy alopecia over the dorsal neck, trunk, hind end, and abdomen. Two of the rabbits are pruritic with evidence of barbering. The cat in the household is also pruritic. A DTM/PCR was negative. What is the most likely diagnosis? (multiple choice)
a. Psoroptes cuniculi
b. Spilopsyllus cuniculi
c. Sarcoptes scabiei
d. Cheyletiella parasitovorax
d. Cheyletiella parasitovorax
127
127. What nutrient must be supplemented in guinea pigs because they lack L-gulunolactone oxidase? (multiple choice)
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
e. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin C
128
128. What type of parasite is this in a guinea pig?
Answer: Trixicarus caviae
