Extra Cards (from AI) Flashcards

(35 cards)

1
Q

Who is credited with first using d-tubocurarine during ether anesthesia in 1942?

A

Griffith and Johnson

First documented use of d-tubocurarine in anesthesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What historical event related to NMBAs occurred in 1935?

A

H. King isolated curare from Chondodendron tomentosum

Isolation of curare marked significant progress in the understanding of neuromuscular blocking agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action for acetylcholine release at the presynaptic terminal?

A

Associated with the influx of calcium

NMBAs block both pre- and post-synaptic acetylcholine receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List three substances or conditions that can potentiate muscle relaxants by inhibiting calcium influx.

A
  • Magnesium (competitively inhibits calcium influx)
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Aminoglycosides

These substances can enhance the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two types of postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors based on their lifespan?

A
  • Mature (life span 2 weeks)
  • Immature (24 hour life span and are more easily depolarized)

Understanding receptor types is crucial for predicting response to NMBAs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the key characteristics of a Non-competitive Block (Phase I) caused by a depolarizing NMBA like succinylcholine.

A
  • Not metabolized by acetylcholinesterase
  • Drugs detach and re-attach to receptors
  • Cleared from the junction and hydrolyzed by plasma(pseudo)-cholinesterases
  • Initial binding causes fasiculation followed by relaxation
  • Perijunctional sodium channels are not activated after initial depolarization

Understanding the mechanism of depolarizing NMBAs is essential for clinical practice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What characterizes a Phase II (non-depolarizing) Block, and how is it typically reversed?

A

Characterized by tetany or train of four fade. Reversed by acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

This phase can occur with high doses of depolarizing relaxants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a Desensitization Block, and what can cause it?

A

Acetylcholine binds to the receptor but does not activate it. Caused by high concentrations of agonist, nicotine, inhalation anesthetics, barbiturates, alcohols, local anesthetics, phenothiazines, verapamil, and polymixin B

Desensitization blocks complicate the neuromuscular blocking process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a Channel Block, and can it be reversed by acetylcholinesterase inhibitors?

A

A non-competitive prevention of the opening and closing of the acetylcholine receptor. Cannot be reversed by acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

Understanding channel blocks is vital for managing NMBAs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Provide examples of drugs that cause a ‘closed channel block’ and an ‘open channel block.’

A
  • Closed channel block: Antibiotics, cocaine, quinidine, tricyclic antidepressants, naltrexone, naloxone
  • Open channel block: Pancuronium, gallamine, succinylcholine

Different blocks have distinct clinical implications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the primary function of acetylcholinesterase within the neuromuscular junction?

A

Hydrolyzes acetylcholine to acetic acid and choline

This process is crucial for terminating the action of acetylcholine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Beyond the neuromuscular junction, where else is acetylcholinesterase located?

A

In parasympathetic nerve endings

Inhibition leads to increased salivation and decreased heart rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What structural feature is characteristic of all NMBAs?

A

At least one quaternary amine group

Most NMBAs contain two amine groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which type of NMBA has a higher potential for histamine release?

A

Benzylisoquinolines (e.g., d-tubocurarine, mivacurium, and atracurium)

Steroidal NMBAs generally have less histamine release potential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of histamine release from NMBAs?

A
  • Erythema
  • Blistering
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypotension

Recognizing these symptoms is crucial for patient safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name two strategies to prevent or decrease histamine release during NMBA administration.

A
  • Slower, graduated, or repetitive administration
  • Pre-medication with H1 or H2 blockers

These strategies can mitigate adverse reactions during anesthesia.

17
Q

Define ‘Potency’ and ‘Onset’ as pharmacologic variables for NMBAs.

A
  • Potency: Effective dose (ED95 and ED50)
  • Onset: Interval between injection and maximal block

These variables are critical for dosing and timing in clinical settings.

18
Q

Define ‘Clinical duration of action,’ ‘Recovery Index,’ and ‘Total duration of action’ for NMBAs.

A
  • Clinical duration of action (DUR25 and DUR95): Interval between injection and recovery of twitch response
  • Recovery Index: Speed of offset of action
  • Total duration of action: Between injection and recovery of TOF ratio to >=0.7

Understanding these definitions helps in monitoring patient recovery.

19
Q

How are NMBAs typically administered, and what is the predictability of different routes?

A

Administered intravenously (IV) for rapid onset. IM or SQ is less predictable

Oral administration is not effective for NMBAs.

20
Q

How does age influence the pharmacokinetics of NMBAs in children and the elderly?

A
  • Children: Higher doses needed, more sensitive neuromuscular junction
  • Elderly: Delayed metabolism and excretion

Age-related changes impact drug effectiveness and safety.

21
Q

How do pregnancy and temperature affect NMBA pharmacokinetics?

A
  • Pregnancy: Increased potency and duration when magnesium is used
  • Temperature (Hypothermia): Increased duration

These factors must be considered in anesthetic management.

22
Q

Which two NMBAs are primarily metabolized by plasmacholinesterase?

A
  • Succinylcholine
  • Mivacurium

This metabolism is important for understanding their duration of action.

23
Q

How do homozygous and heterozygous atypical plasma cholinesterase affect the duration of NMBA blockade?

A
  • Heterozygous (1:480): Minimal effects
  • Homozygous (1:3200): Prolonged blockade for hours

The Dibucaine test is used to identify enzyme function.

24
Q

List several conditions or drugs that can cause acquired cholinesterase deficiency.

A
  • Cholinesterase inhibitors (neostigmine and pyridostigmine)
  • Pancuronium
  • Metoclopramide
  • Liver failure
  • Burn injury
  • Renal insufficiency
  • Pregnancy

Recognizing these factors is essential for managing NMBAs.

25
What is Hoffman Elimination, and which NMBAs undergo this type of metabolism?
* Spontaneous degradation of NMBAs to inactive metabolites * Atracurium and cisatracurium ## Footnote This process is significant for understanding drug clearance.
26
Which class of NMBAs undergoes hepatic metabolism?
Steroidal relaxants (rocuronium, pancuronium, vecuronium) ## Footnote Delayed recovery can occur with long-term use or in hepatic/renal dysfunction.
27
Describe the chemical structure of succinylcholine and its solubility.
Two quaternary positively charged polar amines, making it water-soluble and fat-insoluble ## Footnote This solubility profile affects its pharmacokinetics.
28
What are the primary clinical uses of succinylcholine?
* Rapid sequence intubation with aspiration risk * Counteracting laryngospasm ## Footnote Succinylcholine is unique in its rapid action for securing airways.
29
What is the typical onset of action and duration of succinylcholine?
* Onset: 20-40 seconds * Duration: 5-10 minutes ## Footnote This rapid onset is crucial for emergency procedures.
30
List several contraindications for succinylcholine administration.
* Neuromuscular diseases * Denervation * Immobilization * Burns * Disposition to malignant hyperthermia * Allergy * Homozygous atypical plasma cholinesterase * Sepsis/infection * Basal serum potassium >=5.5 mEq/L ## Footnote Awareness of contraindications is vital for patient safety.
31
What are some common side effects of succinylcholine?
* Cardiovascular effects * Fasiculations * Increased intragastric pressure * Increased intracranial pressure * Increased intraocular pressure * Myalgias ## Footnote Monitoring for these side effects is important during administration.
32
Which non-depolarizing NMBA is a short-acting benzylisoquinoline, and what are its approximate onset and duration?
Mivacurium (Mivacron). Onset: 2.5-4.5 minutes. Duration: 15-20 minutes ## Footnote Mivacurium's short action is useful in certain surgical settings.
33
Which non-depolarizing NMBA is an intermediate-acting aminosteroid, known for its rapid onset of action?
Rocuronium (Zemuron). Onset: 1-1.5 minutes. Duration: 35-50 minutes ## Footnote Rocuronium's rapid action makes it a popular choice in clinical practice.
34
Name two intermediate-acting benzylisoquinoline NMBAs and their approximate onset and duration.
* Cisatracurium (Nimbex): Onset 3-6 minutes, Duration 40-55 minutes * Atracurium (Tracrium): Onset 2-3 minutes, Duration 35-50 minutes ## Footnote These agents provide flexibility in surgical anesthesia.
35
Which non-depolarizing NMBA is a long-acting aminosteroid, and what are its approximate onset and duration?
Pancuronium (Pavulon). Onset: 3.5-6 minutes. Duration: 70-120 minutes ## Footnote Pancuronium's long duration is useful for prolonged procedures.