extra pharma questions Flashcards
again, these aren't from past exams. (169 cards)
1
Q
A patient comes into the ER who has been poisoned. What is the first course of action?
a. find out what the poison is so you know how to treat it
b. stabilize the patient
c. take a history
A
b. stabilize the patient
he may die by the time you think of the right poison
2
Q
The lethal dose of Nicotine is 1mg/kg. How much Nicotine does it take to kill a 70kg person?
A
70mg
this question was done in class
3
Q
Drugs that end with -lol are
a. alpha receptor antagonists
b. beta receptor antagonists
c. anesthetics
A
b. beta receptor antagonists
4
Q
Drugs that end with -zosin are
a. alpha receptor antagonists
b. beta receptor antagonists
c. anesthetics
A
a. alpha receptor antagonists
5
Q
Drugs that end with -caine are
a. alpha receptor antagonists
b. beta receptor antagonists
c. anesthetics
A
c. anesthetics
6
Q
What are chelating agents?
A
an agent that binds to other substances to eliminate them from the body
7
Q
For what type of drug can we use the dose-response curve?
a. graded response drugs
b. quantal response drugs
c. both
A
c. both
8
Q
What is true about tachyphylaxis?
a. its a slow and gradual drug tolerance
b. increasing the dose will not help in reversing it
A
b. increasing the dose will not help in reversing it
9
Q
What’s the difference between side effect and adverse effect?
A
side effects occur through the same pharmacological action of the drug, while an adverse effect occurs via different mechanisms
10
Q
Which of the following is true?
a. ionized drugs can diffuse across cell membranes
b. acidic drugs are better absorbed in the intestine
c. basic drugs are better absorbed in the intestine
A
c. basic drugs are better absorbed in the intestine
11
Q
What is true about absorption?
a. the faster the gastric emptying, the more is absorbed
b. the more P-glycoprotein expression, the less the absorbtion
c. surface area is inversely proportional to absorption
A
b. the more P-glycoprotein expression, the less the absorption
12
Q
What would happen to a patient that has hypoalbuminemia when he takes the average recommended amount of a drug?
a. no effect
b. he needs more of the drug to compensate
c. toxicity
A
c. toxicity
13
Q
Which of the following is true about renal drug excretion?
a. only ionized, water soluble drugs can be excreted
b. only nonionized, fat soluble drugs can be excreted
c. large, protein bound drugs are excreted
A
a. only ionized, water soluble drugs can be excreted
14
Q
what occurs to drug metabolism when P450 enzyme degradation is reduced?
a. metabolism is inhibited
b. metabolism is induced
A
b. metabolism is enduced
15
Q
Phase 1 of drug metabolism is done by
A
microsomal oxidases and cytochrome P450 enzyme system (CYP450)
16
Q
Which of these doesn’t occur in phase 1?
a. oxidation
b. sulfication
c. reduction
d. hydrolysis
A
b. sulfication
occurs in phase 2
17
Q
Which of the following is a has bidirectional filtration?
a. glomerulus
b. proximal convoluted tubule
c. distal convoluted tubule
A
b. proximal convoluted tubule
18
Q
What occurs when the urine pH becomes lower (more acidic)?
a. more acidic stuff excreted
b. more basic stuff excreted
A
b. more basic stuff excreted
the basic drugs react to the acid, become ionized and can go out in urine form because it is water soluble
19
Q
Which of the following is NOT saturable?
a. glomerulus
b. proximal convoluted tubule
c. distal convoluted tubule
A
a. glomerulus
20
Q
Which is FALSE about hepatic excretion?
a. it works most efficiently when the molar weight is low
b. glucuronide is added to make things more excretable
c. drugs with a high extraction ratio are the most affected by the first pass effect
A
a. it works most efficiently when the molar weight is low
21
Q
Which of the following reduce the half-life of a drug?
a. heart failure
b. C-P450 induction
c. C-P450 inhibition
A
b. C-P450 induction
22
Q
Give an example of a substance that follows zero order kinetics
A
Alcohol
23
Q
True/False: T1/2 (half-life) is inversely correlated to concentration
A
False; T1/2 is not affected by concentration
24
Q
Which of the following is a false statement about steady-state concentration?
a. it takes four to five half-lives to reach
b. at steady state, the dosing rate and elimination rate are equal
c. you can reach steady state concentration faster if you increase infusion rate
A
c. when you increase infusion rate you can reach steady state concentration faster
(higher infusion rate just makes the steady state concentration higher)
25
Which of the following is used to treat gout patients?
a. alcohol
b. salicylates
c. penicillin
b. salicylates (AKA- aspirin)
| it allows uric acid to be excreted by competing with it for the plasma proteins
26
Which of these has a side effect of cardiotoxicity?
a. debrisoquine
b. herceptin
c. paroxetine
b. herceptin
| side effect occurs if the target receptor isn't present
27
an antihypertensive drug
a. Vitravene
b. Paroxetine
c. Debrisoquine
c. Debrisoquine
28
an antidepressant that attaches to serotonin 2A receptors
a. Vitravene
b. Paroxetine
c. Debrisoquine
b. Paroxetine
29
1st anti-sense drug to be approved by FDA
a. Vitravene
b. Paroxetine
c. Debrisoquine
a. Vitravene
| works on genetic material, not protein
30
which of these genes makes you more likely to get brain tumors?
a. BRCA1/2
b. c-erbB1
b. c-erbB1
31
Which of these receptors have a long-lasting effect?
a. G protein-coupled receptors
b. Ionotropic receptors
c. Intracellular receptors
c. Intracellular receptors
| ex/ steroid hormones
32
Which of the following has a long postganglionic neuron?
a. sympathetic neuron
b. parasympathetic neuron
a. sympathetic neuron
33
Which of these cranial nerves do not belong to the parasympathetic system?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
e. 10
b. 5
34
Which of the following are not cholinergic?
a. preganglionic fibers
b. sympathetic postganglionic fibers
c. parasympathetic postganglionic fibers
b. sympathetic postganglionic fibers
| All postganglionic sympathetic fibers are adrenergic -except sweat glands, which are cholinergic
35
ED50 determines
a. efficacy
b. potency
c. affinity
b. potency
36
Which of the following reduces efficacy?
a. Competitive agonist
b. Non-competitve agonist
b. Non-competitive agonist
37
Which of the following can cause gene transcription?
a. extracellular receptor
b. intracellular receptor
b. intracellular receptor
38
What's the substrate of norepinephrine synthesis?
Tyrosine
39
What's the rate-limiting enzyme of norepinephrine synthesis?
tyrosine hydroxylase
40
Which of the following stops dopamine from going inside of vesicles?
a. reserpine
b. guanethidine
c. amphetamine
d. cocaine
a. reserpine
41
Which of the following stops vesicles release in the adrenergic neurons?
a. reserpine
b. guanethidine
c. amphetamine
d. cocaine
b. guanethidine
42
Which of the following stops NA reuptake?
a. reserpine
b. guanethidine
c. amphetamine
d. cocaine
d. cocaine
| Tricyclic antidepressants do the same thing
43
Which receptors modulate neurotransmitter release via negative feedback?
alpha 2 presynaptic receptors
| when activated, they inhibit adenylate cyclase and thus reduce cAMP
44
Which of the following metabolized NA inside the nerve terminal?
a. COMT
b. MAO
b. MAO
45
Where are beta 1 receptors most commonly located?
the heart
46
Where are alpha 1 receptors most commonly located?
smooth muscles of blood vessels
47
which method is prodominatly used to get rid of NA?
a. enzyme-mediated
a. uptake 1
c. uptake 2
a. uptake 1
| it's non-enzymatic
48
can phenylephrine be taken orally? Can it cross the blood-brain barrier?
yes, because its a non-catecholamine and won't get degraded via COMT and MAO. They can cross the BBB because they're more lipophilic and less polar than catecholamines
49
Which of the following have a longer effect?
a. catecholamines
b. non-catecholamines
b. non-catecholamines
50
Which is used for heart failure?
a. isoprenaline
b. phenylephrine
c. clonidine
d. dobutamine
d. dobutamine
| beta 1 agonist, causes tachycardia and increases heart contractility
51
Which is used for congested noses?
a. isoprenaline
b. phenylephrine
c. clonidine
d. dobutamine
b. phenylephrine
| it's an alpha 1 agonist that vasoconstricts blood vessels of nasal mucosa
52
Which is used for hypertension?
a. isoprenaline
b. phenylephrine
c. clonidine
d. dobutamine
c. clonidine
| it's a beta 2 agonist that decreases NA release, releasing resistant and reducing BP
53
Which is used for asthma?
a. salbutamol
b. phenylephrine
c. clonidine
a. salbutamol
54
what are amphetamine & tyramine and how do they work?
they're indirect adrenergic agonists that displace NA from vesicles so it can be released. They don't act on receptors.
55
Which of the following is true about alpha adrenergic antagonists?
a. they vasoconstrict arteries and veins
b. they vasodilate veins only
c. they vasodilate arteries only
d. they vasodilate arteries more than veins
d. they vasodilate arteries more than veins
56
How many of the following can be used to treat hypertension?
a. phentolamine
b. propranolol
c. prazosin
d. atenolol
e. yohimbine
b. propranolol
c. prazosin
(alpha 1 adrenergic antagonist)
d. atenolol
57
Which of the following can be used to treat pheochromocytoma?
a. phentolamine
b. prazosin
c. yohimbine
a. phentolamine
(non-selective alpha adrenergic antagonist)
pheochromocytoma = tumor that makes a bunch of catecholamines, causing higher BP
58
What can NOT be treated with alpha-adrenergic antagonists?
a. benign prostatic hyperplasia
b. raynaud's disease
c. hypotension
d. phaeochromocytoma
c. hypotension
59
Which of these is an alpha 2 antagonist?
a. prazosin
b. yohimbine
b. yohimbine
60
Which of these can you NOT use beta blockers for?
a. anxiety
b. asthma
c. tachycardia
d. for protection against MI
e. hypertension
f. angina pectoris
b. asthma
61
What stops choline uptake?
a. botulinum toxin
b. hemicholinum
c. acetylcholine
b. hemicholinum
62
Which of the following receptors is ligand gated?
a. adrenergic receptors
b. muscarinic receptors
c. nicotinic receptors
c. nicotinic receptors
63
Which of these relax the body when activated?
a. muscarinic receptors
b. nicotinic receptors
a. muscarinic receptors
64
what blocks post-synaptic receptors?
a. hemichilinium
b. vesamicol
c. botulinum toxin
d. atropine
e. latrotoxin
d. atropine
65
What blocks Ach release?
a. hemichilinium
b. vesamicol
c. botulinum toxin
d. atropine
e. latrotoxin
c. botulinum toxin
66
What enhances Ach release and is a main component of spider venom?
a. hemichilinium
b. vesamicol
c. botulinum toxin
d. atropine
e. latrotoxin
e. latrotoxin
67
Which blocks Ach storage?
a. hemichilinium
b. vesamicol
c. botulinum toxin
d. atropine
e. latrotoxin
b. vesamicol
68
Which of the following can be used to prevent blindness?
a. acetylcholine
b. pilocarpine
c. bethanechol
b. pilocarpine
| use to treat glaucoma, which can lead to blindness without treatment
69
Muscarinic agonists cannot be used if...
```
CHAP
Coronary insufficiency
Hyperthyroidism
Asthma
Peptic ulcer
```
70
Which can be used to stop vomiting and nausea?
a. benztropine
b. ipratropium
c. scopolamine
d. atropine
c. scopolamine
71
Which can be used to treat parkinson's disease?
a. benztropine
b. atropine
c. scopolamine
d. A & B
e. A & C
d. A & B
72
Which of the following conditions do muscarinic antagonists cause?
a. mydriasis
b. miosis
a. mydriasis (pupil dilation)
73
Which of the following does physostigmine NOT treat?
a. glaucoma
b. atropine poisoning (antimuscarinic syndrome)
c. parkinson's
d. alzheimer's
c. parkinson's
| physostigmine = reversible anti-cholinesterase
74
What does Echothiophate (an irreversible anti-cholinesterase) treat?
a. myasthenia gravis
b. glaucoma
b. glaucoma
75
Which of the following re-activate cholinesterases?
a. benztropine
b. atropine
c. pralidoxime
c. pralidoxime
76
What's used in electroconvulsive therapy to reduce trauma?
a. tubocurarine
b. suxamethonium
c. vecuronium
d. atracurium
e. rocuronium
b. suxamethonium
77
non-depolarizing blockers cause
a. rigid paralysis
b. flaccid paralysis
b. flaccid paralysis
78
Which of the following is used for patients with kidney disease?
a. tubocurarine
b. suxamethonium
c. vecuronium
d. atracurium
e. rocuronium
d. atracurium
79
Which of the following is a depolarizing NMB?
a. tubocurarine
b. suxamethonium
c. vecuronium
d. atracurium
e. rocuronium
b. suxamethonium
80
Which of these needs respiration support?
a. non-depolarizing NMB
b. depolarizing NMB
c. both
c. both
81
What are the adverse effects of depolarizing NMB?
```
P.A.R.K. B.I.T.
Pain
Apnea
Respiration depression
K - hyperkalemia
```
Bradycardia
Intraocular pressure
Temperature raises
82
why do only 20-30% of drugs have pediatric labeling?
clinical studies cannot test on babies because it would be unethical
83
Which of the following have a rapid onset of action?
a. tubocurarine
b. suxamethonium
c. vecuronium
d. atracurium
e. rocuronium
e. rocuronium
84
Which of the following has a side effect of hypotension and bronchospasm?
a. tubocurarine
b. suxamethonium
c. vecuronium
d. atracurium
e. rocuronium
a. tubocurarine
| it's not specific and causes histamine release, so it's not used often
85
Which of the following is true about acid labile drugs?
a. they're better absorbed by neonates
b. they're better absorbed by adults
a. they're better absorbed by neonates
86
Who requires a higher dose of aminoglycosides (ex/gentamicin) to get the same result?
a. neonates
b. teens
c. elders
a. neonates
| aminoglycosides are water soluble and neonates have the highest water content
87
What causes brain damage in neonates?
a. too little plasma proteins
b. high albumin levels
c. high bilirubin levels
c. high bilirubin levels
| aka kernicterus
88
which metabolism pathway does acetaminophen (AKA paracetamol) use in children?
a. glucuronidation
b. sulfate conjugation
b. sulfate conjugation
89
which of the following require a lower dose when administered to kids?
a. gentamicin
b. diazepam
c. digoxin
b. diazepam
| it has a longer half-life
90
What drugs can cause orthostatic hypotension when taken by the elderly? why?
antihypertensives and beta blockers can lead to orthostatic hypotension because the cardiovascular reflexes in the elderly are diminished
91
which of the following require a lower dose because elders cannot excrete it as well?
a. gentamicin
b. beta 1 agonists
c. digoxin
d. diazepam
c. digoxin
92
How should you adjust the dose of an anticoagulant (ex/warfarin) in the elderly? why?
decrease the dose because they highly bind to the serum albumin (which is low in the elderly)
93
Which of the following require a higher dose in the elderly?
a. gentamicin
b. beta 1 agonists
c. digoxin
d. diazepam
b. beta 1 agonists
| beta receptor response/sensitivity decreases
94
Which of the following is lipid soluble?
a. gentamicin
b. diazepam
c. digoxin
d. aminoglycosides
b. diazepam
| the rest are water soluble
95
Why do sulfonamides (drugs that inhibit folic acid synthesis) not affect humans cells adversely?
human cells don't have to make folic acid in the cells and can transport it into the cells instead
96
Which of the following is the best option for patients with neutropenia?
a. bacteriostatic antibiotics
b. bacteriocidal antibiotics
b. bacteriocidal antibiotics
97
anaerobic bacteria are aminoglycoside resistant because of
a. acquired resistance
b. innate resistance
b. innate resistance
98
Which gene does imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, target?
a. BRCA1 gene
b. BRCA 2 gene
c. BCR-ABL gene
d. CBL gene
c. BCR-ABL gene
99
When does a cancer tumor have exponential growth?
a. smallest tumor size
b. largest tumor size
c. neither
c. neither
| has the biggest growth in between those periods
100
according to the log kill hypothesis, how many cancer cells do cancer drugs kill when they're administered?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 40%
d. 90%
b. 20%
101
Which of the following is NOT true about antineoplastic agents?
a. spermatogenic cells are affected
b. the more drugs that are used, the less the chance of resistance
c. the therapeutic index is very low
d. alopecia is a rare side effect
d. alopecia is a rare side effect
| it occurs with most agents
102
Which of these drugs is time independent?
a. cell-cycle phase independent
b. cell-cycle phase dependent
a. cell-cycle phase independent
| a depends on dose and b depends on time
103
Which of the following methods do antimetabolites use to stop cancer growth?
a. inhibits growth promoting hormones
b. stops blood supply
c. stops DNA synthesis precursors
d. inhibits protein synthesis
c. stops DNA synthesis precursors
104
How do monoclonal antibodies work?
a. bind to DNA to deactivate it
b. bind to GF receptors to inhibit their activation
c. bind to tubulin to stop microtubule assembly
b. bind to GF receptors to inhibit their activation
| a is for cytotoxic antibodies
105
What are alkylating agents and how do they work?
chemicals that form covalent bonds and rapidly destroy (DNA, RNA, etc.) Examples are nitrogen mustards and platinum compounds
106
What stage of cell replication do vinca alkaloids and taxanes interfere?
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. telophase
b. metaphase
107
a high dose of atropine causes
a. bradycardia
b. hypoglycemia
c. constipation
d. hypothermia
c. constipation (and dry skin)
108
a high dose of atenolol causes
a. bradycardia
b. hypoglycemia
c. constipation
d. tachycardia
a. bradycardia
| its a beta-adrenoceptor antagonist
109
how does a penicillin idiosyncratic allergy occur?
penicillin binds to tissue proteins and forms immunogens (antigens that makes humoral or cell-mediated immune response)
110
Which of these patients cannot metabolize suxamethonium?
a. patients with high plasma cholinesterase
b. patients with high acetylcholinesterase
c. patients with low acetylcholinesterase
d. patients with abnormal plasma cholinesterase
d. patients with abnormal plasma cholinesterase
| it's resistant to acetylcholinesterase
111
what can an acetylator polymorphism lead to?
a. hemolytic anemia
b. paralysis
c. peripheral neuropathy
d. apnea
c. peripheral neuropathy
| isoniazid-induced
112
primaquine can lead to hemolytic anemia in patients with
a. abnormal plasma cholinesterase
b. deficient in glucose-6-phosphate enzyme
c. acetylator polymorphism
b. deficient in glucose-6-phosphate enzyme
113
Which of these drugs result in angina after treatment?
a. primaquine
b. atropine
c. atenolol
d. penicillin
c. atenolol
| type E; withdrawal effect
114
Which of the following is FALSE about adverse drug reactions?
a. occurs in 10-20% of patients
b. usually discovered during drug trials
c. may mimic natural diseases
b. usually discovered during drug trials
115
Which of these occur before the drug is administered?
a. Pharmaceutical interactions
b. Pharmacokinetic interactions
c. Pharmacodynamic interactions
a. Pharmaceutical interactions
116
Which of these occur without concentration change?
a. Pharmaceutical interactions
b. Pharmacokinetic interactions
c. Pharmacodynamic interactions
c. Pharmacodynamic interactions
117
Which of the following can NOT chelate tetracycline?
a. antiacids
b. iron
c. calcium
d. warfrin
d. warfrin
118
Which of these is an enzyme inhibitor?
a. warfarin
b. phenobarbital
c. cimetidine
d. chronic alcohol consumption
c. cimetidine
| the rest are enzyme inducers
119
Which TWO of these increase bleeding risk
a. warfarin
b. phenobarbital
c. cimetidine
d. chronic alcohol consumption
a. warfarin (anticoagulant)
&
c. cimetidine (histamine)
120
what inhibits active tubular secretion?
a. probenecid
b. atenolol
c. salbutamol
a. probenecid
121
Which of the following reduces the effectiveness of salbutamol?
a. NSAIDs
b. Iron
c. Beta-receptor antagonists
d. Cocaine
c. Beta-receptor antagonists
| salbutamol is a beta 2 agonist
122
Which of the following reduces the effectiveness of atenolol?
a. NSAIDs
b. Iron
c. Cocaine
c. Cocaine
123
What does taking atenolol with grapefruit juice cause?
taking grapefruit juice and a calcium channel blocker (atenolol) may lead to hypotension because of the inhibition of an isoenzyme in the intestine
124
how do you calculate TI (therapeutic index)?
Toxic dose (50%) / Effective dose (50%)
125
how do you calculate the margin of safety?
TD1 / ED99
| dose that makes 1% of the population get toxicity divided by the effective dose that treats 99% if the population
126
How do you elicit emesis?
syrup of ipecac
127
Which of the following can you use 2 hours after the ingestion of the toxic substance?
a. activated charcoal
b. gastric lavage
b. gastric lavage
| activated charcoal can be used an hour after
128
Which of the following method is more useful in enhancing urinary excretion?
a. acidification of urine
b. alkalization of urine
b. alkalization of urine
| acidification poses the risk of metabolic acidosis
129
Which of the following is used in acetaminophen (panadol) poisoning?
a. atropine
b. dextrose
c. n-acetylcysteine
d. ethanol
c. n-acetylcysteine
130
What do you use to alkalize the urine?
sodium bicarbonate
131
Which of these is used for small, water-soluble drugs?
a. hemoperfusion
b. hemodialysis
c. neither
b. hemodialysis
| used for salicylates and alcohols
132
Which of the following about volume distribution is true?
a. when volume distribution is high, drugs are more likely to bind to plasma proteins
b. when volume distribution is low, drugs are more likely to bind to plasma proteins
b. when volume distribution is low, drugs are more likely to bind to plasma proteins
133
treat acetylcholinesterase inhibitor poisoning with
atropine
134
treat antimuscarinics poisoning with
physostigmine
135
EC50 measures
a. quantal response
b. graded response
b. graded response
| ED50 is for quantal response
136
Which of the following has a lower (more acidic) gastric pH?
a. neonates
b. adults
c. elderly
c. elderly
137
Which of the following is most affected in an elderly patient?
a. phase 1
b. phase 2
a. phase 1
138
T/F: alpha-adrenergic blockers cause tachycardia
False; they cause REFLEX tachycardia. Blood pressure decreases (bradycardia) due to the antagonists and your body compensates by increasing heart rate.
139
"After a receptor is stimulated, a period of time is required before the next drug-receptor interaction can take place" Which of the following best describes this statement?
a. desensitization
b. inactivation
c. refractory
d. down-regulation
c. refractory
140
Which of the following measures quantal response?
a. effective dose (ED)
b. effective concentration (EC)
a. effective dose
141
Which of the following measures graded response?
a. effective dose (ED)
b. effective concentration (EC)
b. effective concentration
142
Which of the following reduces potency?
a. Competitive agonist
b. Non-competitve agonist
a. Competitive agonist
143
Which of the following antagonism type works without receptor involvement?
a. physiological antagonism
b. chemical antagonism
c. inverse antagonist
b. chemical antagonism
144
Which of the following antagonism type works with two receptors?
a. physiological antagonism
b. chemical antagonism
c. inverse antagonist
d. pharmacokinetic antagonism
a. physiological antagonism
145
Which antagonist type is usually used for constitutively active receptors?
a. physiological antagonism
b. chemical antagonism
c. inverse antagonist
d. pharmacokinetic antagonism
c. inverse antagonist
146
Which of these receptors has the fastest transmission?
a. G protein-coupled receptors
b. Ionotropic receptors
c. Intracellular receptors
b. Ionotropic receptors
147
T/F: Potency always goes hand in hand with efficacy, so the more potent the drug the more efficacy it has
False, this is not always true. A drug can be potent but not effective
148
Which of the following is FALSE about the equilibrium dissociation constant (KD)?
a. it's inversely proportional to the affinity constant
b. it's the drug concentration that covers 50% of the available receptors
c. it's the drug concentration that produces 50% of the maximum response
c. it's the drug concentration that produces 50% of the maximum response
(this is the definition of effective concentration, not KD)
149
Which of the following describes a full agonist?
a. doesn't have spare receptors
b. at 50% if the maximum response, 10% of the receptors are occupied
c. at 50% if the maximum response, 50% of the receptors are occupied
d. the biological effect is proportional to the drug concentration
b. at 50% if the maximum response, 10% of the receptors are occupied
(it has spare receptors)
150
What can you assume about a patient with high SNP score?
a. they have many mutations
b. they're predisposed to cancer
c. they have many polymorphisms that effect clinical phenotype
c. they have many polymorphisms that effect clinical phenotype
151
How do aminoglycosides (ex/gentamicin) affect Acetylcholine release?
a. reduce Ach release
b. increase Ach release
c. no effect
a. reduce Ach release
| it prolongs skeletal muscle paralysis due to this
152
Which of the following describes neostigmine?
a. direct acting agonist
b. anticholinesterase
c. induces plasma cholinesterase
b. anticholinesterase
| causes excessive drug effect by stopping plasma cholinesterase, which metabolizes the drug
153
Which of the following can be used to treat paralytic ileus?
a. acetylcholine
b. pilocarpine
c. bethanechol
c. bethanechol
| also for urinary retention
154
Which of the following can be used to prep for cataract surgery?
a. acetylcholine
b. pilocarpine
c. bethanechol
a. acetylcholine
155
How does atropine effect the CNS at a high dose?
a. depressant
b. stimulatory
b. stimulatory
156
Why is atropine contraindicated in children?
a. they get toxicity
b. they metabolize it rapidly
c. causes a rapid increase in body temperature
c. causes a rapid increase in body temperature
157
Which can be used to treat asthma?
a. benztropine
b. ipratropium
c. scopolamine
d. atropine
b. ipratropium
158
How does atropine effect the CNS at a high dose?
a. depressant
b. stimulatory
b. stimulatory
159
How do anticholinesterases effect the CNS?
a. depressant
b. stimulatory
b. stimulatory
160
What does neostigmine treat?
a. myasthenia gravis
b. glaucoma
a. myasthenia gravis
161
how do you treat anticholinesterase poisoning?
atropine
162
how do you treat atrophine poisoning?
physostigmine
163
Which of the following most accurately describes vecuronium?
a. Depolarizing blocker
b. Non-depolarizing blocker
c. Causes histamine release
b. Non-depolarizing blocker
164
Which of the following most accurately describes Mivacurium?
a. Depolarizing blocker
b. hydrolyzed by acetylcholinesterase
c. hydrolyzed by plasma cholinesterases
c. hydrolyzed by plasma cholinesterases
165
Which of the following best describes probenecid?
a. activator of passive tubular secretion
b. activator of active tubular secretion
c. inhibitor of passive tubular secretion
d. inhibitor of active tubular secretion
d. inhibitor of active tubular secretion
166
Which of the following food products decreases tetracycline absorption when taken together?
a. avocado
b. milk
c. oranges or other citrus
b. milk
167
Which of these is used for large, fat-soluble drugs?
a. hemoperfusion
b. hemodialysis
c. neither
a. hemoperfusion
168
What is a complication of hemoperfusion?
clotting
169
Which of these is used for drugs with large volume distribution?
a. hemoperfusion
b. hemodialysis
c. neither
c. neither
| don't waste your time with any dialysis type
