Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Neuro > Eye Diseases > Flashcards

Eye Diseases Flashcards

(108 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the components of a basic eye exam?

A

Vision, pupils, confrontation visual fields, extra-ocular motility, direct ophthalmoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What region of the retina is tested in visual acuity tests?

A

Fovea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is meant by vision results like “20/XX” (ex. 20/20, 20/80)?

A

It means the patient can read at 20 feet what a “normal” person can see at XX feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is fluorescein angiography?

A

Dye is injected into the arm and photographs are taken of the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is optical coherence tomography?

A

Non-contact digital optical instrument that generates cross sectional images of the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is it important to check visual fields in a patient complaining of visual loss who has an otherwise normal eye exam?

A

Patients can have normal tested vision but have a visual field defect due to a brain lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If a patient has abnormal motility and visual loss, what do you need to be concerned about?

A

Multiple cranial nerve palsies, may need brain/orbit imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should you see on fluroscein angiography if a patient has ophthalmic artery occlusion?

A

The ophthalmic artery supplies both the central retinal artery and the ciliary arteries, so you would see delay in filling of both circulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the most common causes of “red eye” and what history and findings are important?

A

Conjunctivitis - discharge from eye, follicles on conjunctiva, recent illness

Uveitis - light sensitivity, progressive symptoms

Corneal ulcer - contact lens wearer

Allergy - itchy and teary eye

Subconjunctival hemorrhage - very red, minimal symptoms

Dry/irritated eye - lack of sleep, dust exposure, burning/sharp pain

Chemical injury

Angle closure glaucoma - check intraocular pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the symptoms of a cataract?

A

Changes in refraction, contrast, glare, decreased night vision, overall blurred vision (later symptom)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the causes of cataracts?

A

age, UV exposure, diabetes, uveitis, steroids, trauma, medications/medical conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the difference between open angle glaucoma and angle closure glaucoma?

A

Open angle - slowly progressive and generally not symptomatic in mild to moderate disease

Angle closure - acute, accompanied by severe pain, nausea, headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are treatments for glaucoma?

A

Medically: beta-blockers, alpha-agonists, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, prostaglandin analogs, systemic carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

Surgery: laser procedures, incisional surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can a ruptured globe be recognized, and how is it managed?

A

Usually occurs post-trauma - diagnosed with CT scan and siedel test

The globe should not be touched - it should be shielded and ophthamology should be consulted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What conditions require an ophthamology consult?

A

Acute glaucoma, corneal ulcers, ruptured globes, severe chemical injury, significant flashes/floaters, decreased vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the limbus?

A

The edge of the cornea - the point where the sclera and conjunctiva began

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the conjunctiva?

A

A clear membrane attached to the eyelids and the limbus to prevent foreign objects from accessing the orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is conjunctivitis?

A

hyperemia (engorgement) of the conjunctival blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is episclera?

A

Outermost layer of the sclera, situated between the sclera and conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is episcleritis?

A

Benign, often self-limiting inflammation of the episclera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is scleritis?

A

inflammation of the sclera that is painful and tender to the touch, can cause vision loss if it affects the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What systemic disorders are associated with scleritis?

A

rheumatoid arthritis, granulomatosis with polyangitis, polyarteritis nodosa, and lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the five layers of the cornea?

A

epithelium (outermost), Bowman’s layer, stroma, Descemet’s membrane, endothelium (innermost)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How much of the total refractive power of the human eye is from the cornea?

A

40 of the 60 total diopters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is myopia?
near-sightedness
26
What is hyperopia?
far-sightedness
27
What is the most common risk factor for corneal ulcers?
history of contact lens wearing
28
What is the effect of herpes virus in the cornea?
It can infect different layers, herpetic keratitis of the epithelial layer is the most common
29
What should the initial treatment be for chemical injury to the eye?
Copius high volume and pressure irrigation
30
What are cataracts?
Opacification of the lens as a result of aging or disease
31
How are different types of cataracts categorized?
By their location - capsule, nucleus, or cortex of the lens
32
What type of cataract is typically age related? What are the symptoms?
Nulcear cataract Symptoms = myopia, decreased contrast sensitivity, yellow tint to vision
33
Which eye disease is most directly related to a smoking history?
cataracts
34
What is glaucoma?
A disease of high pressure that causes damage to the optic nerve that causes a loss of peripheral vision first and ultimately total blindness if left untreated
35
What is the appearance of the optic nerve on fundoscopy in glaucoma?
It has a small central depression (cup) in the optic nerve
36
What is laser iridotomy?
A surgical procedure where a hole is put in the iris to allow the aqueous humor to flow
37
What is the seidel test?
A test for anterior chamber leakage from a wound, visualized with fluorescein dye
38
What are possible vitreous-related conditions?
posterior vitreous detachment (normal part of aging) vitreo-retinal interface abnormalities vitreous hemorrhage
39
What are the symptoms of retinal tear/detachment?
flashing lights, floaters, curtain effect (loss of vision in top of visual field bilaterally)
40
What is the treatment for retinal tears/detachment?
surgical intervention (scleral buckle, pars plana vitrectomy)
41
What are the types of diabetic retinopathy?
nonproliferative and proliferative ## Footnote *nonproliferative is an earlier stage, proliferative involves angiogenesis*
42
What features can be seen on fundoscopy of diabetic retinopathy?
microaneurisms, exudates, blot hemorrhages
43
What is the treatment for diabetic macular edema?
anti-VEGF and focal laser photocoagulation
44
What are drusen?
Deposits found in dry age related macular degeneration
45
What is neovascular age related macular degeneration?
A form of age related macular degeneration where there is vascular growth in the sub-RPE and sub-retinal spaces
46
What are the current treatments for neovascular age related macular degeneration?
anti-VEGF agents, anti-oxidants
47
What should you consider when a patient presents to you with flashing lights and floaters?
flashing lights = stimulation to retina (pulling or fluid) floaters = something floating in vitreous (vitreous condensations, blood, wbc) together these are signs of a retinal detachment
48
Why should a diabetic patient receive eye exams routinely?
DM can affect the integrity of blood vessels in the eye that result in microaneurysms, hemorrhages, cotton wool spots, and exudates. Neovascularization can occur in advanced retinopathy
49
Why should patients with macular degeneration be counselled to monitor each eye separately?
Early treatment is important for maintaining good central vision Suddent distorted vision may mean macular degeneration has become exudative (requires prompt treatment)
50
What systemic conditions would you consider in a patient with retinal artery occlusion? Retinal vein occlusion?
Artery occlusion: hypertension, diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, embolism, giant cell arteritis (in elderly patients) Vein occlusion: hypertension, diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, hypercoaguable state
51
What is the cause of the pie in the sky visual field defect?
Defect of the temporal lobe lesion
52
What is the effect of occipital lobe defects on vision?
either both on left or both on right side, often quadrantanopia also often macula sparing
53
What is the cause of anisocoria that is worse in the dark?
Dilation problem, smaller pupil can be caused by Horners syndrome
54
What is the cause of anisocoria that is worse in the light?
Constriction problem larger pupil - Adies pupil, third nerve palsy
55
What is anisocoria?
Different sized pupils
56
What are "imposters" of 6th nerve syndrome?
Duane's syndrome, thyroid eye disease, convergence spasm, myasthenia
57
What are common lesions that cause a sixth nerve palsy?
meningiomas, chorodoma, nasopharyngeal cancer
58
What are some conditions that limit adduction?
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (brainstem stroke or multiple sclerosis) partial third nerve palsy myasthenia gravis
59
What are the signs/symptoms of fourth nerve palsy?
vertical binocular diplopia head tilt or turn inferior oblique overaction "three step test" diagnosis
60
What are clinical features of third nerve palsy?
eye "down and out" binocular diplopia with ptosis weakness of two or more muscles anisocoria worse in light
61
What are the clinical features of optic neuritis? What systemic disease is associated with it?
acute, unilateral vision loss with pain on eye movement associated with multiple sclerosis
62
What are the findings of the optic neuritis treatment trial?
contrast sensitivity most often abnormal fundus findings often normal MRI findings frequently normal or can have T2 bright lesions
63
What is the clinical presentation of anterior ischemic optic neuropathy?
older patients with vasculopathic risk factors experiencing sudden vision loss and mild pain that can progress for 2+ weeks
64
What are the physical exam findings of anterior ischemic optic neuropathy?
- any level of acutiy possible - dyschromatopsia - afferent pupil defect - inferior altitudinal VF - swollen nerve (pale swelling) - splinter hemorrhages
65
What are the eye symptoms of giant cell arteritis? Systemic/other symptoms?
Ocular: visual loss, diplopia, pain, amaurosis fugax (blindness due to lack of blood flow) Other: occult giant cell temporal arteritis, headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, fever, weight loss, malaise
66
What is the treatment for giant cell arteritis?
steroids and hydration (IV when vision loss is present) and possibly anticoagulation
67
What is papilledema?
optic disc swelling due to increased intracranial pressure
68
What are the ophthalmoscopic features of papilledema?
bilateral disc elevation, obscured disc margins/blood vessels, venous distension/tortuosity, absent spontaneous venous pulsations
69
What is the clinical presentation of pseudotumor cerebri (idiopathic intracranial htn)?
Often presents with a headache in obese young women, may cause blinding, transient visual obscurations, diplopia
70
How is idiopathic intracranial htn diagnosed? What are known causes?
Diagnosis of exclusion Known causes: decreased flow through arachnoid granulations, Addison's disease, nutritional disorders, metabolic alterations, steroids
71
What are the treatments for idiopathic intracranial hypertension?
weight loss, diamox, csf shunting procedure or optic nerve sheath fenestration
72
What is ametropia?
A condition in which light does not focus on the retina
73
What is myopia?
Light focuses anterior to the retina in an eye that is overpowered
74
What is hyperopia?
Light focuses posterior to the retina in an eye that is underpowered
75
What is astigmatism?
Light focuses to different points depending on the axis of incident light
76
What is presbyopia?
Reduced accomodation (occurs with advanced age)
77
What is amblyopia?
blurred vision due to failure of the visual pathway to fully develop - occurs piror to age 9 either because a clear image is not presented to the retina or the eyes are properly aligned, may be reversible if diagnosed early
78
What is the synkinetic reflex?
convergence of the eyes and miosis linked to accomodation
79
What is the most powerful refractive element of the eye?
Cornea
80
Nuclear cataract *(increases/decreases)* lens power by *(increasing/decreasing)* the index of refraction?
Nuclear cataract **increases** lens power by **increasing** the index of refraction?
81
What axial length is associated with myopia?
Long
82
What corneal contour is associated with myopia?
Steep
83
What lens changes are are associated with myopia?
nuclear cataract, altered shape and position
84
What accomodation deficits are associated with myopia?
Spasm of near sighted vision
85
What axial length is associated with hyperopia?
Short
86
What corneal contour is associated with hyperopia?
Flat
87
What lens changes are associated with hyperopia?
aphakia (no lens), shape and position
88
Irregularities in what structures are associated with astigmatism?
Cornea and lens (lenticular)
89
What vision disorder does this test output represent: +3.50
Hyperopia
90
What vision disorder does this test output represent: +3.00, +1.50 x 90deg
Hyperopic astigmatism
91
What vision disorder does this test output represent: -2.00, +1.00 x 180deg
Myopic astigmatism
92
What vision disorder does this test output represent: -1.50, +2.20 x 45deg
Mixed astigmatism
93
What is refraction as a diagnostic tool?
It measures refractive error in vision
94
What does keratometry measure?
The corneal component of astigmatism
95
What is the criteria for screening for retinopathy of prematurity?
\<1500 g (weight) or \<30 weeks gestational age
96
What is the treatment for retinopathy of prematurity?
Diode laser retinal photocagulation, avastin
97
What physical exam findings can be associated with leukocoria?
strabismus, glaucoma, poor vision, orbital cellulitis, heterochromia
98
What is retinoblastoma?
A malignant intraocular tumor of retinal cell origin caused by a mutation of tumor suppressor gene RB1 on chromosome 13q1 (two hit model) It presents with leukocoria (white reflex)
99
What is the treatment for retinoblastoma?
enucleation, chemotherapy, laser, cryotherapy ## Footnote *needs to be treated or it can metastasize to the optic nerve*
100
What clinical features are associated with amblyopia?
- abnormal visual experience - decreased visual acuity - anatomic changes in the brain (striate cortex ocular dominance columns, decreased gray matter)
101
What are the treatment goals for strabismus? How is it treated in children?
- orthophoria (binocular vision) - mono-fixationrange misalignment Treatment: Eye patch over "good eye"
102
Until what age is eye patching useful to treat amblyopia?
9-10 years old
103
At what age should one perform congenital cataract surgery?
6 weeks
104
What is the purpose/goal of strabismus surgery?
Orthophoria, mobilization syndrome, improved stereopsis, improved appearance
105
What premature infants are at risk for retinopathy of prematurity?
low birth weight and earlier gestation age are two biggest risks; anemia and supplemental oxygen are risks as well
106
When does the embryonic fissure close?
6th week
107
What is a coloboma?
incomplete closure of the embryonic fissure
108
What are some causes of congenital cataracts?
hereditary, infectious (TORCH), metabolic disease, trauma, spordaic

Neuro (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions