Eye Exam Flashcards

(91 cards)

1
Q

Describe hypermetropia/hyperopia

A

Focuses behind (posterior to) retina because eyeball is too short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe myopia

A

Focuses in front of (anterior to) retina because eyeball is too long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What can cause a light path to be obstructed?

A

Cataracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the mechanism behind blind spots caused by things like a pituitary tumor?

A

There is a malfunction somewhere along the visual pathway (from the retina to occipital lobe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What can spots in the eye be described as?

A

Retinal debris floating in vitreous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can spots in the eye be caused by?

A

Retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can flashing lights be described as?

A

Retinopathy, particularly pulling away of retina from choroid, as seen in retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe double vision

A

Image focuses on a different area of retina on each eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes ocular malalignment

A

Weak or abnormally attached extraocular muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can cause a refractive (lens) abnormality?

A

Cataracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What can cause double vision?

A

Ocular malalignment or refractive (lens) abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is visual acuity testing a measurement of and what does it test?

A

Central vision, CN II (optic nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How far away do you position the patient from the Snellen chart when doing visual acuity testing?

A

20 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

You record the visual acuity designated by which line when doing this testing?

A

The smallest line in which the patient can identify all of the letters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How can you reduce the chance of recall influencing visual acuity testing when testing the second eye?

A

Asking the patient to read the line in the opposite direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is OD?

A

Visual acuity in the right eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is OS?

A

Visual acuity in the left eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is OU?

A

Visual acuity with both eyes open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How else should you measure near vision?

A

Testing each eye separating using a handheld card like the Rosenbaum Pocket Vision screener, held about 14 in from the eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you generally estimate peripheral vision?

A

Confrontation test, though it can be accurately measured with sophisticated instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some things that could produce confrontation abnormalities when testing peripheral vision?

A

Stroke, retinal detachment, optic neuropathy, pituitary tumor compression at the optic chiasm, and central retinal vascular occulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is red testing particularly helpful in determining?

A

Subtle optic nerve disease, even when visual acuity remains nearly normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does an afferent pupillary defect often coexist with?

A

A red defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How would you carry out an examination of the external structures of the eye?

A

Start with the appendages (like the eyebrows and surrounding tissues) and moving inward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A patient with hypothyroidism may have which features in regards to their eyebrows?
Coarse eyebrows that don't extend beyond the temporal canthus
26
What may periorbital edema may be indicative of?
Thyroid eye disease, allergies, or (especially in youth), the presence of renal disease (nephrotic syndrome)
27
What is xanthelasma?
An elevated plaque of cholesterol deposited in macrophages, most commonly in the nasal portion of the upper or lower lid, observed as flat to slightly raised oval, irregularly shaped, yellow tinted lesions on the periorbital tissues
28
The presence of fasciculations or tremors of the eyelids when lightly closed may be a sign of what?
Hyperthyroidism
29
When would you say ptosis is present?
If one superior eyelid covers more of the iris than the other or extends over the pupil
30
Where is the average lower lid position?
At the lower limbus
31
Describe lagophthalmos and what it causes an increased risk of.
Lagophthalmos is when the closed lids do not completely cover the globe, so the cornea may become dried, increasing risk of infection.
32
What are some common causes of lagophthalmos?
Thyroid eye disease, seventh nerve palsy (Bell palsy), and overaggressive ptosis or blepharoplasty surgical repair
33
What is ectropion?
When the lower eyelid is turned away from the eye. It may result in excessive tearing.
34
What is entropion?
When the lower eyelid is turned inward toward the globe. The lid's eyelashes may cause corneal and conjunctival irritation, increasing risk of a secondary infection
35
A hordeolum or stye is generally caused by what?
A staphylococcal infection
36
An internal hordeolum involves what?
Meibomian glands
37
Describe normal conjunctivae
Translucent and free of erythema
38
An erythematous or cobblestone appearance, especially on the tarsal conjunctiva, may indicate what?
An allergic or infectious conjunctivitis
39
What would indicate a subconjunctival hemorrhage?
Bright red blood in a sharply defined area surrounded by healthy-appearing conjunctiva
40
What is a pterygium?
An abnormal growth of conjunctiva that extends over the cornea from the limbus
41
A pterygium is more common in what type of people?
Those heavily exposed to ultraviolet light
42
Arcus senilis in a person under 40 may indicate what?
A lipid disorder
43
What is arcus senilis?
A deposit of lipids in the periphery of the cornea, seen in many individuals older than 60n
44
Decreased corneal sensation is often associated with?
Diabetes, herpes simplex and herpes zoster viral infection, and after trigeminal neuralgia surgery
45
How would you examine the "flatness" of the anterior chamber?
By shining a light tangentially on it
46
What is corneal sensitivity controlled by and how is it tested?
By CN V, tested by touching a wisp of cotton to the cornea
47
If liver or a hemolytic disease is present, what would you expect to see when examining the sclera?
Pigmented sclera that appears either yellow or green
48
What does senile hyaline plaque appear as?
A dark, slate gray pigment just anterior to the insertion of medial rectus muscle
49
When would you expect to see enlarged lacrimal glands?
Enlarged lacrimal glands are rare, but can be seen in conditions like Sjogren syndrome, and patients may report dry eyes because the glands produce inadequate tears
50
When examining the pupils, what is expected?
The pupils should be round, regular, and equal in size, and any irregularity should be noted
51
The pupils response to light should be tested how?
Both directly and consensually
52
What are some contributing factors for miosis?
Iridocyclitis, miotic eye drops (like pilocarpine), and drug abuse
53
What are some contributing factors for mydriasis?
Mydriatic or cycloplegic drops (like atropine), midbrain lesions or hypoxia, drug abuse
54
Describe Argyll Robertson pupil
Bilateral, miotic, irregularly shaped pupils that fail to constrict with light but retain constriction with conversion, and may or may not be equal in size
55
What is a common cause of Argyll Robertson pupil?
Neurosyphilis
56
Acute uveitis is commonly what?
Unilateral
57
What are signs of oculomotor nerve damage?
Pupil dilated and fixed, eye deviated laterally and downward, ptosis
58
What would you expect to see in an Adie pupil?
Affected pupil is dilated and reacts slowly or fails to react to light, but responds to convergence, and is often accompanied by diminished tendon reflexes
59
What is Adie pupil commonly caused by?
Impairment of postganglionic parasympathetic innervation to sphincter pupillae muscle or ciliary malfunction
60
What are common causes of anisocoria?
It can be congenital or caused by local eye medications, or unilateral sympathetic or parasympathetic pupillary pathway destruction
61
Full movement of the eyes is controlled by what?
The integrated function of CNs III, IV, and VI and the six extraocular muscles
62
What is sustained nystagmus?
Involuntary rhythmic movement of the eyes that can occur in a horizontal, vertical, rotary, or mixed pattern
63
Describe jerking nystagmus
Characterized by faster movements in one direction and defined by its rapid movement phase
64
What is lid lag?
The exposure of the sclera above the iris when the patient is asked to follow your finger as you direct the eye in a smooth movement from ceiling to floor
65
Lid lag may indicate what?
Thyroid eye disease (Grave's disease)
66
What are some types of ocular malalignments?
Heterotropia and heterophoria
67
What is heterotropia?
Strabismus/Squint - a manifest lack of parallelism of the visual axes of the eyes
68
What is esotropia?
A type of heterotropia where the affected eye turns in, toward the nose
69
What is exotropia?
A type of heterotropia where the affected eye turns out, toward the temple
70
What is hypertropia?
A type of heterotropia where the affected eye turns up, toward the forehead
71
What is hypotropia?
A type of heterotropia where the affected eye turns down, toward the chin
72
What is heterphoria?
An occult lack of parallelism of the visual axes of the eyes, prevented by binocular vision
73
What is the corneal light reflex used for?
To test the subtle balance of the extraocular muscles
74
What does inspection of the interior of the eye permit?
Visualization of the optic disc, arteries, veins, and retina
75
How would you examine a patient's right eye using an ophthalmoscope?
Examine a patient's right eye with your right eye and their left eye with your left while holding the ophthalmoscope in the hand that corresponds to the examining eye
76
If your patient is myopic, what type of lens will you need to use in the ophthalmoscope?
A minus (red) lens
77
If your patient is hyperopic, what type of lens will you need to use in the ophthalmoscope?
A plus lens
78
Why is the optic disc considered a blind spot?
It is where the retina converges to the optic nerve and there are no photoreceptors in this part of the eye, so it can't respond to light stimulation
79
How do the blood vessels of the optic disc divide?
Into superior and inferior branches, then into nasal and temporal branches
80
When examining the optic disc, what should you expect?
The disc margin should be shark and well defined, especially in the temporal region, and it is generally yellow to creamy pink, depending on race
81
What is the macula and where can you find it?
The macula, or fovea centralis, is the site of central vision and is located approximately 2 disc diameters temporal to the optic disc
82
Will you always be able to see the macula when examining a non-dilated eye?
No, it may be impossible to examine when the pupil isn't dilated because shining a light on it induces strong pupillary constriction
83
What would you ask a patient to do in order to bring the macula into your field of vision?
To look directly at the light of the ophthalmoscope
84
How should the macula appear upon examination?
As a lighter dot surrounded by an avascular area, as no blood vessels enter it
85
What would you expect to see with papilledema?
Loss of definition of an optic disc margin
86
How would you distinguish myelinated retinal fibers from chorioretinitis?
An absence of pigment, feathery margins, and full visual fields help distinguish this benign condition from chorioretinitis
87
What are some general signs of retinopathy?
Reduced visual acuity, visual field defect, white and/or red spots in the retinal exam, and disturbances of blood vessels
88
What kind of spots might you seen in a retinal exam that are indicative of retinopathy?
White spots, including cotton wool spots, hard exudates, and drusen, or Red spots, including hemorrhages and microaneurysms
89
Describe flame-shaped hemorrhages
Occur in the nerve fiber layers and the blood spreads parallel to the nerve fiber, and typically appears bright red
90
Describe round hemorrhages
Tend to occur in deeper layers and may appear as a dark red color
91
What types of disturbances of blood vessels are considered general signs of retinopathy?
Increased light reflex, generalized narrowing, crossing changes, arteriolar straightening, tortuosity, neovascularization