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Care Of Adults > Eyes, Ears, Skin > Flashcards

Eyes, Ears, Skin Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the eyelids composed of?

A

Thin, elastic skin covering striated and smooth muscles

The eyelids protect the anterior portion of the eye.

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2
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the upper eyelid?

A

Oculomotor nerve (CN III)

This nerve controls the movement of the upper eyelid.

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3
Q

What is the function of tears?

A

Protect cornea and sclera with lubrication, nutritional support, moisture, and protection from microbes

Tears also contain immunoglobulins that increase during allergic responses.

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4
Q

What is the conjunctiva?

A

A mucous membrane that provides a barrier to the external environment and nourishes the eye

Goblet cells in the conjunctiva secrete lubricating mucus.

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5
Q

What is the sclera?

A

The white of the eye, a dense, fibrous structure that helps maintain the shape of the eyeball

It protects the intraocular contents from trauma.

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6
Q

What is the cornea?

A

A transparent, avascular, dome-like structure covering the iris, pupil, and anterior chamber

The cornea plays a crucial role in focusing light onto the retina.

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7
Q

What is the role of the iris?

A

A highly vascularized, pigmented collection of fibers that surrounds the pupil

It controls the size of the pupil and thus the amount of light entering the eye.

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8
Q

What is accommodation in the context of vision?

A

The ability to focus for near vision and refocus for distance vision

Controlled by the ciliary body through zonular fibers and ciliary muscles.

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9
Q

What is the vitreous humor?

A

A clear, gelatinous substance that occupies about 2/3 of the eye’s volume

It helps maintain the shape of the eye.

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10
Q

What are rods responsible for?

A

Night vision or vision in low light

Rods are absent in the fovea.

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11
Q

What are cones responsible for?

A

Providing the best vision for bright light, color vision, and fine detail

Cones are distributed throughout the retina with the greatest concentration in the fovea.

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12
Q

Define presbyopia.

A

Impaired near vision often found in middle-aged and older people

Patients may need reading glasses or bifocals.

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13
Q

What does the optic nerve do?

A

Transmits impulses from the retina to the occipital lobe of the brain

It is known as the second cranial nerve (CN II).

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14
Q

What is the function of the Eustachian tube?

A

Connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx

It helps equalize pressure in the middle ear.

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15
Q

What is conductive hearing loss?

A

Loss of hearing due to interrupted sound transmission to the inner ear

It can occur because of obstruction or disease processes.

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16
Q

What is the organ of Corti?

A

The end organ of hearing located in the cochlea

It contains sensory cells that transduce sound vibrations into neural signals.

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17
Q

What is anisocoria?

A

Pupillary inequality of less than 1mm despite an equal response to light

It can be a benign variant or pathologic.

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18
Q

What is the red reflex?

A

A normal orange glow observed when light is applied to the pupil

Absence may indicate lens opacity, cataract, or detached retina.

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19
Q

What does a Snellen chart test assess?

A

Visual acuity

20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

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20
Q

True or False: The numerator in a Snellen chart test denotes the distance between the patient and the chart.

A

True

The denominator indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the letters.

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21
Q

What are common symptoms that should be assessed in a vision examination?

A

Changes in vision, pain or discomfort, and discharge

A thorough medical, family, and social history should also be taken.

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22
Q

What is the tympanic membrane?

A

The membrane that separates the middle ear from the external auditory canal

Also known as the eardrum.

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23
Q

What is the function of the semicircular canals?

A

Contain the receptor organs for balance

They are part of the inner ear.

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24
Q

What is the cochlea?

A

A snail-shaped bony tube that forms part of the inner ear and contains the organ of Corti

It is essential for the sense of hearing.

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25
What is conductive hearing loss?
Loss of hearing in which efficient sound transmission to the inner ear is interrupted by some obstruction or disease process.
26
How is hearing conducted?
Through two pathways: air and bone.
27
What is the role of the tympanic membrane in air conduction?
It vibrates to transmit sounds through the air-filled external and middle ear.
28
How does bone conduction transmit sound?
It travels directly through bone to the inner ear, bypassing the tympanic membrane and ossicles.
29
What systems cooperate to maintain body balance?
Proprioceptive system, visual system, and vestibular system.
30
What is the role of the cerebellar system in balance?
It coordinates and perceives balance information sent from the proprioceptive, visual, and vestibular systems.
31
What are age-related changes in the ear?
Atrophy of the external ears, loss of flexibility of the pinna, thickening of the eardrum, and hardening of cerumen.
32
What are the effects of cerumen hardening?
Earwax accumulates, leading to visible earwax and conductive hearing impairment.
33
What is presbycusis?
Degeneration of the organ of Corti leading to hearing loss, especially in high frequencies.
34
What is the function of the organ of Corti?
Transforms mechanical energy of sound into neural information.
35
What does audiometry measure?
It is the most important hearing test assessing the auditory system.
36
What is sensorineural hearing loss?
Loss of hearing related to damage of the end organ for hearing or cranial nerve VIII.
37
What is the purpose of the whisper test?
To evaluate gross auditory acuity.
38
What does a Rinne test distinguish?
Between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss.
39
What is vertigo?
An illusion of movement where the individual or surroundings are sensed as moving.
40
True or False: Audiometric testing measures hearing acuity, which is directly related to a disorder of balance.
False
41
What is the chief cause of visual impairment or blindness?
Diabetic retinopathy and age-related eye diseases.
42
Define 'emmetropia'.
Normal vision.
43
What is myopia?
Nearsightedness where distant vision is blurred.
44
What is hyperopia?
Farsightedness where near vision is blurred.
45
What is the clinical definition of absolute blindness?
The absence of light perception.
46
What emotional adjustment is important for coping with blindness?
Acceptance of blindness or severe visual impairment.
47
True or False: Patients who become blind suddenly adapt more easily than those who lose vision gradually.
False
48
What characterizes glaucoma?
Optic nerve damage related to intraocular pressure (IOP).
49
What are the two major types of glaucoma?
* Open-angle glaucoma * Angle-closure glaucoma
50
What is the primary treatment for cataracts?
Eye surgery.
51
What is macular degeneration characterized by?
Tiny, yellowish spots called drusen beneath the retina.
52
What is the primary goal of orbital surgeries?
Recover and preserve visual function.
53
What is conjunctivitis?
Inflammation of the conjunctiva.
54
What are the major causes of conjunctivitis?
* Microbial infection * Allergy * Irritating toxic stimuli
55
True or False: Preventing the spread of conjunctivitis can often be accomplished by promoting thorough, frequent hand washing.
True
56
What is the function of ocular pharmacokinetics?
Involves absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of ocular medications.
57
What common medications are used in ocular treatment?
* Topical anesthetics * Mydriatics * Cycloplegic agents * Anti-infectives * Corticosteroids * NSAIDs
58
What is the effect of natural barriers on ocular medication absorption?
Natural barriers diminish the absorption of ocular medications ## Footnote Ocular medications may have varied absorption rates depending on the tissue type.
59
Name three common types of ocular medications.
* Topical anesthetics * Mydriatics * Cycloplegic agents * Anti-infectives * Corticosteroids * NSAIDs * Antiallergy medications * Eye irrigants * Lubricants ## Footnote These medications are used to reduce intraocular pressure and treat various ocular conditions.
60
What is the proper positioning for a patient when administering topical ocular medication?
Position the patient's head in a supine position ## Footnote This position ensures proper instillation of ophthalmic medication.
61
True or False: Repeated exposure to loud noises causes the development of conductive hearing loss.
False ## Footnote Noise exposure causes irreparable sensorineural hearing loss, while conductive hearing loss is typically due to external factors.
62
What are the manifestations of hearing loss?
* Tinnitus * Increasing inability to hear in groups * Need to turn up the volume of the television ## Footnote These manifestations significantly affect an individual's quality of life.
63
Define presbycusis.
Progressive, age-related hearing loss ## Footnote This condition is common in older adults and can impact communication and social interactions.
64
What is a cochlear implant?
An auditory prosthesis used for people with profound bilateral sensorineural hearing loss ## Footnote It involves surgical placement of a receiver in the temporal bone and electrodes in the inner ear.
65
What should a nurse do to enhance communication with a patient who has moderate hearing loss?
Ensure the patient can see the nurse's mouth ## Footnote This helps in lip-reading and improves understanding during communication.
66
What is the treatment for cerumen impaction?
Can be removed by irrigation, suction, or instrumentation ## Footnote This is important for restoring hearing and preventing further complications.
67
What does tympanic perforation usually result from?
Infection or trauma ## Footnote Symptoms may include otorrhea, reduced hearing, and pain.
68
What is Meniere disease?
A disorder of the inner ear that causes vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating hearing loss ## Footnote It is often related to changes in pressure within the inner ear.
69
True or False: A patient with Meniere disease should avoid high-salt foods.
True ## Footnote A low-sodium diet can help manage symptoms of Meniere disease.
70
What is tinnitus?
A roaring, buzzing, or hissing sound in one or both ears ## Footnote It may be a symptom of an underlying ear disorder and is often associated with hearing loss.
71
What medication class is known for ototoxicity?
Aminoglycoside antibiotics ## Footnote These medications can adversely affect hearing and balance.
72
What are the primary functions of the skin?
* Protection * Sensation * Fluid and electrolyte balance * Thermoregulation * Vitamin D synthesis * Immunity ## Footnote The skin plays a crucial role in overall health and homeostasis.
73
Which skin layer provides strength and structural integrity?
Dermis ## Footnote The dermis is the thickest layer of skin and contains connective tissue, blood vessels, and nerves.
74
What is the significance of striae?
Stretch marks resulting from rapid skin stretching ## Footnote They are often a cosmetic concern and may indicate underlying conditions.
75
True or False: Dark-skinned individuals tend to have significantly different skin disorders than light-skinned individuals.
False ## Footnote Skin conditions can affect individuals regardless of skin color.
76
What is the purpose of a skin biopsy?
To obtain tissue for microscopic examination ## Footnote This is crucial for diagnosing skin conditions, including malignancies.
77
What is seborrheic dermatitis?
Excessive production of sebum leading to inflammation ## Footnote It can present in oily or dry forms and is influenced by various factors.
78
What is the treatment for herpes zoster?
Treated with antivirals ## Footnote This condition is linked to the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus.
79
What is contact dermatitis?
An inflammatory reaction of the skin to physical, chemical, or biologic agents ## Footnote It can be classified into irritant and allergic types.
80
What is scabies?
An infestation of the skin by the itch mite Sarcoptes scabiei ## Footnote Treated with therapeutic baths and prescription scabicide.
81
What is contact dermatitis?
An inflammatory reaction of the skin to physical, chemical, or biologic agents ## Footnote It has two types: irritant type and allergic type.
82
What is the goal of treating contact dermatitis?
To rest the involved skin and protect it from further damage.
83
Which substance is most likely to cause skin irritation in irritant-type contact dermatitis?
Harsh soaps ## Footnote Common causes of irritant dermatitis include soaps, detergents, scouring compounds, and industrial chemicals.
84
What is psoriasis?
One of the most common skin diseases affecting over 2% of the population.
85
What characterizes lesions in psoriasis?
Red, raised patches of skin covered with silvery scales.
86
What confirms the diagnosis of psoriasis?
Presence of classic plaque-type lesions.
87
Is there a known cure for psoriasis?
No.
88
What is exfoliative dermatitis?
A condition characterized by progressive inflammation with generalized erythema and scaling.
89
What is the main objective of managing exfoliative dermatitis?
To maintain fluid and electrolyte balance and to prevent infection.
90
What is pemphigus?
A group of serious diseases characterized by the appearance of bullae (blisters) of various sizes.
91
How is pemphigus treated?
With immunosuppressants and corticosteroids.
92
What is bullous pemphigoid?
An acquired disease of flaccid blisters appearing on normal or erythematous skin.
93
What is a potential complication of bullous pemphigoid?
Susceptibility to infection.
94
What are Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN) and Stevens-Johnson Syndrome?
Potentially fatal disorders triggered by a reaction to medication.
95
What are the goals of treatment for TEN and Stevens-Johnson Syndrome?
Control fluid and electrolyte balance, prevention of sepsis, and prevention of ophthalmic complications.
96
Is the following statement true or false? If possible, a patient with Stevens-Johnson syndrome should receive treatment in a regional burn center.
True.
97
What is the most common cancer in the United States?
Skin cancer.
98
What are the most common types of skin cancer?
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) and squamous cell (epidermoid) carcinoma (SCC).
99
What does the treatment for skin cancer usually include?
Surgical excision, Mohs micrographic surgery, electrosurgery, cryosurgery, and radiation therapy.
100
What role does the nurse play in skin cancer treatment?
Teach the patient about prevention of skin cancer and self-care after treatment.
101
What is malignant melanoma?
A cancerous neoplasm with atypical melanocytes in the epidermis and dermis.
102
What is the most lethal form of skin cancer?
Malignant melanoma.
103
What is the primary cause of malignant melanoma?
Ultraviolet exposure.
104
What is Kaposi sarcoma (KS)?
A malignancy of endothelial cells that line small blood vessels.
105
Who is predominantly affected by classic Kaposi sarcoma?
Men of Mediterranean or Jewish ancestry.
106
What type of KS affects people predominantly in eastern Africa?
Endemic (African) KS.
107
What is immunosuppression-associated KS?
KS that occurs in transplant recipients and people with AIDS.

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