EZYA320 Flashcards
(110 cards)
1
Q
What does a green light on the overhead panel represent?
A
Normal system operation.
2
Q
What does a blue light on the overhead panel represent?
A
Normal operation of a system used temporarily.
3
Q
What does a amber light on the overhead panel represent?
A
A failure of which the flight crew should be aware.
4
Q
What does a red light on the overhead panel represent?
A
A failure requiring immediate attention.
5
Q
What does a white light on the overhead panel represent?
A
An abnormal push button position for normal operation or a test result or maintenance information.
6
Q
Basic functions of the overhead panel if pb’s pressed in?
A
ON, AUTO, OVRD, OPEN
7
Q
Basic functions of the overhead panel if pb’s pressed out?
A
OFF, MAN, ALTN, SHUT
8
Q
What are momentary action pb’s?
A
Pb’s that do not remain pressed in.
9
Q
Red OEB’s?
A
Significant impact on SAFE operation.
10
Q
White OEB’s?
A
Significant impact on the operation of the aircraft.
11
Q
Maximum demonstrated crosswind for T/O and landing?
A
38kts including gusts.
12
Q
What is the maximum runway slope?
A
+-2%
13
Q
Maximum tailwind for takeoff and landing?
A
15 knots
14
Q
What is the maximum operating speed Vmo/Mmo?
A
Vmo 350kts Mmo 0.82
15
Q
What is the maximum ground roll speed?
A
195kts
16
Q
The maximum service ceiling for the A320 is?
A
39800ft
17
Q
What happens if DMC 1 or 2 fail?
A
“Invalid Data” message is displayed on the PFD and ND. If DMC 1 fails, the ECAM automatically switches to DMC 2. You need to switch the PFD and ND using the XFER button.
18
Q
What happens if both ECAM screens fail?
A
They can be transferred onto the ND. if the PFD screen fails it moves across automatically.
19
Q
What indications trigger a LEVEL 1 CAUTION?
A
Failures leading the loss of redundancy of a system. An amber caution is displayed on the ECAM.
20
Q
What indications trigger a LEVEL 2 CAUTION?
A
System failure without any direct consequence on flight safety. Amber caution on ECAM, attenting getter and bing.
21
Q
What indications trigger a LEVEL 3 CAUTION?
A
The configuration or failure requires immediate action. Aircraft in dangerous configuration or limit flight conditions. System failure altering flight safety.
22
Q
CRC audio indication:
A
Red warnings - permanent.
23
Q
single chime audio indication:
A
Amber Caution.
24
Q
Continuous buzzer:
A
SELCL call.
25
triple click audio indication:
Landing capability downgrade/mode reversion.
26
cricket audio indication:
Stall.
27
When do the TO and LDG memo appear on the EWD?
TO memo 2 mins after 2nd engine start or 1 engine running when TO config button is pressed.
LDG memo appears below 2000ft rad alt and disappears after touchdown.
28
In a normal start what happens at 16, 22 and 50% N2?
16% Ignition starts.
22% HP fuel valve opens.
50% Engine start valve closes and ignition stops.
29
In a MAN start what happens when the master switch is selected on?
HP and LP valves open introducing fuel to the engine and you get both A and B ignitors.
30
When does FADEC close the start valve?
When N2 reaches 50%.
31
What is the role of FADEC during a manual engine start?
It controls the start valve, the HP fuel valve and ignition.
32
What causes a FAULT light to appear in amber on the engine panel (under the engine master).
Position of the HP shut-off valve is abnormal.
The automatic start sequence of the associated engine aborts.
There is a malfunction of the thrust control.
33
What are the name f the FADEC engine idle modes?
Modulated, Approach and Reverse.
34
When does approach idle activate?
It actives when flaps or slats are extended. It keeps engine RPM higher in case of a go-around. It also activates if the aircraft is unsure of its position.
35
What is the limiting EGT for the following operations: T/O and GA
MCT
STARTING
T/O and GA 950 degrees (5mins all eng 10mins single eng).
MCT 915 degrees.
STARTING 725 degrees.
36
In terms of engine oil limitations, what is the maximum transient temperature?
155 degrees.
37
When does SEL illuminate?
When an RMP is selected to a non dedicated radio.
38
Out of the ACP's, RMP's, VOR's, ILS's, and ADF's, which are available in an emergency?
All of the number 1's are available in EMER ELEC CONFIG.
39
What are the normal and rat hydraulic operating pressures?
Normal 3000psi.
| RAT 2500psi.
40
When does the blue pump start automatically?
On first engine start.
41
When is the PTU run automatically and self tested?
It runs automatically if there is a 500psi difference and it self tests after second engine start. PTU is inhibited 40s after the end of cargo door operation, during the first engine start and when only one engine master switch is on with the parking brake.
42
How many hydraulic actuators are there on the rudder?
3.
43
What happens if a spoiler fault is detected?
The system automatically retracts them to zero.
44
How do you clear a speedbrake auto-retraction?
Reset the lever and wait 10 seconds.
45
What amber FMA do you have in direct law?
USE MAN PITCH TRIM.
46
Descending through 30ft RA on landing what happens to pitch control?
It trims 2 degrees nose down from current position. Auto trim comes out at 50ft.
47
What protections are available in normal law?
```
Pitch attitude.
bank angle.
high speed.
high angle of attack.
load factor.
```
48
What are the G load protection limits?
Clean +2.5 -1
| Flaps +2 -0
49
What are the pitch attitude limits?
30 degrees nose up in config 0-3.
25 degrees nose up in config full.
15 degrees nose down.
50
At what speed does high speed protection activate?
Vmo +6.
51
What is the max bank angle in high speed protection and alpha protection.
Hi speed prot: 40 degrees.
| Alpha prot: 45 degrees.
52
Are there any restrictions on pitch or roll in alternate law.
no.
53
What is the rate of roll in the clean configuration and with slats extended.
Clean: 30 degrees/sec
Slats: 25 degrees/sec
54
What causes reversion to manual back up?
Temporary and total electrical loss, temporary loss of 5 fly-by-wire computers, the loss of both elevators (FACS) or the total loss of ailerons and spoilers. If you have 1 SEC you can still control the aircraft.
55
Mechanical backup FMA?
MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY
56
When the aircraft returns from abnormal attitude law within the normal flight envelope, what happen with pitch yaw and roll control?
For pitch, alternate law is active with no protection.
For roll direct law is active.
For yaw alternate law is active.
57
What causes the green light with a priority sidestick?
When the deactivated sidestick is out of neutral.
58
What are the flap 1 and flap full limiting speeds?
Flap 1 230kts and Flap full 177kts.
59
Initial actions of a rejected takeoff?
Rev max, check speed brakes, monitor auto brake, manual brake if necessary.
60
What happens if cabin staff initiate and emergency call to the flight deck?
EMER/CALL pb flashes and a buzzer sounds 3 times. Along with a flashing ATT light on all 3 ACP's.
61
What is the function of the LGCIU?
The landing gear interface unit sends gear position information from proximity detectors to other aircraft systems.
62
What happens when the gravity extension is tuned?
1st turn isolates the landing gear hydraulics from the green system. 2nd turn unlocks the landing gear doors. 3rd turn allows gravity extension to drop the gear into the extended position. The doors remain open.
63
how many green triangles are needed to confirm the gear is locked down?
3.
64
When does nose wheel steering become inhibited?
Rudder pedals - 130kts.
| Tiller - 80kts.
65
How much nose wheel steering is available through the rudder and tiller?
Rudder pedals - 6 degrees.
| Tiller - 75 degrees.
66
When is NW STRG DISC amber and green?
It's amber if one engine is running and green when the selector is in the towing position and no engines are running.
67
What system is the autobrake on?
Green. Remember autobrake is a deceleration rate so despite reverse thrust it stops in the same distance. On an RTO with MAX autobrake, this is not a rate of deceleration, it is just max braking.
68
How long can the park brake be on for?
The accumulator should last for 12 hours.
69
What delays occur with LO, MED and MAX autobrake?
LOW - 4s after spoilers deploy (1.7m/s decal rate).
| MED - 2s after spoilers deploy (3m/s decal rate).
70
What temperature must the brakes be below for takeoff?
150 degrees.
71
What are the immediate actions for loss of braking?
Max reverse, release pedals, command a/skid off, press for 1000psi max.
72
what roughly is the total fuel capacity?
19004kg.
73
What is the minimum quantity of fuel for takeoff?
1500kg.
74
If all of the tanks are full, what is the normal sequencing for fuel?
Start - centre tanks.
Flaps for T/O - Inner tanks for each engine.
Flaps up + 500kg used - goes back to the centre tank and empties it. When the centre tank empties it automatically switches over.
When inner wing tanks get to 750kg, fuel is automatically transferred from the outer. 1st inner cell < 750kg 1st transfer valves open on each side. 2nd inner tank < 750kg 2nd transfer valves open on each side. Outer transfer valves close on the next refuelling.
75
Describe over-full and under-full tanks..
Over-full - tanks are full.
| Under-full - wing tanks are down 500kg to allow fuel from the IDG to return to each tank.
76
What happens to the centre tank pumps when the slats are extended within and after 2 minutes of engine start?
Within 2 minutes - Centre tank.
| After 2 minutes - Inner tank.
77
What causes the FAULT light to illuminate on the mode select switch on the fuel panel?
When the centre tank has more than 250kg of fuel and the left or right wing tank has less than 5000kg.
78
What does a square with a line through it represent on the E/WD?
A pump.
79
On the SD what is indicated by a tank fuel quantity being boxed yellow?
Both transfer valves have failed to open.
80
What type of warning is a fuel imbalance?
Advisory.
81
What will happen to the flight displays if the shed bus is not live?
The captain will lose his ND.
82
What is the max KVA for the generators?
GEN 1, GEN 2, APU GEN = 90KVA.
| EMERGANCY GEN = 5KVA.
83
what does the 25.5 volts on start-up mean?
There is sufficient charge to start the APU.
84
What 4 supplies are there to the AC Essential feed.
AC Bus 1, AC Bus 2, Emergency Gen, Bat 1 via the static inverter.
85
If TR1 fails, what supplies the DC Essential Bus?
The Essential TR.
86
Which busses get powered when the aircraft is on battery power only?
AC Ess Bus and DC Ess Bus
87
In flight can the APU be started?
Yes, 45 seconds after the failure to allow the emergency generator to come online and below FL250.
88
What is the normal pressure of the bleed air?
45psi +/-5psi and 200 degrees.
89
When would you expect to see the HP valve open?
On the ground and at low thrust settings like in the decent.
90
Which bleed supplies can be used simultaneously?
Eng 1 and Eng 2 bleed.
91
Is wing anti-ice allowed if one bleed system is operating?
Not if both packs are on. One pack must be switched off. You would get sufficient air from the heat exchanger but it will burn out the pack (pre-cooler performance).
92
What happens if a BMC (bleed monitoring computer) fails?
Leak detection for that side is lost. BMC 1 provides leak detection for ENG 1, wing loop A and the APU duct.
93
What are the implications of using ground power air?
If its LP air, you musnt run the APU BLEED and packs must be off. You can however run the APU for power. If its HP air you must run the APU and it is merely used for starting the aircraft.
94
What are the functions of ACSC (air conditioning service computer) 1 & 2?
ACSC 1 runs the number 1 pack, manages the hot air pressure regulating valve and cockpit trim valve. ACSC 2 runs the number 2 pack and the forward and aft trim air valves.
95
What are the range of temperatures on the temperature controller.
18 degrees in cold position, 24 degrees in the 12 o'clock position and 30 degrees in the hot position.
96
What happens to the pack flow valves during engine start?
They automatically close.
97
When does the pack ram air valve open after landing?
20 seconds after the speed drops below 70kts. In flight you'd want ram air if both packs have failed. Initially your cabin altitude would rise. Remember the ram air valve has a differential pressure of just 1 psi so if the pressure difference is greater than 1psi the ram air valve wont open. Without packs, air is just re-circulated.
98
Describe cabin pressurisation on T/O and LDG.
On T/O or LDG the cabin pressure goes to airfield elevation -300 for passenger comfort. 55 seconds after touchdown outflow fully opens. On a side note, cabin altitude has an 8.3 differential pressure rating so cabin alt can be zero at 20000ft. Anything after that the cabin alt will rise.
99
What is the max ROD of the cabin in AUTO?
750fpm.
100
In the ground mode at high skin temperatures, which config is in operation?
The open circuit config. 12 degrees is the decider. If the temperature is higher than 12 degrees, its in open config. If the temperature is lower than 12 degrees, its in closed config. In flight, the deciding temperature is 35 degrees. If it is greater than 35 degrees, its in the intermediate configuration. Otherwise its in the closed config.
101
How many fire loops and bottles are there per engine and APU?
2 loops for all. 2 bottles per engine. 1 bottle for the APU.
102
When is the squib light illuminated?
When the squib is armed for discharge.
103
How many smoke detectors are there for cargo fire extinguishing?
ETOPS system has 2 detectors in the forward compartment and 4 in the aft compartment. FOR THE TEST: there is 1 fire bottle which can be fired into the forward or aft compartment.
104
What are the 4 occasions when the ALIGN light will flash?
1) Respective IR is in align mode.
2) IR alignment fault/no present position entry after 10 minutes.
3) Difference between position at shutdown and entered position.
4) Aircraft is moved during alignment.
105
What is the immediate memory action for unreliable airspeed at Vr?
TOGA, 15 degrees pitch.
106
When an ILS is tuned on an RMP, what information is not available?
DME distance on the PFD.
107
Which procedure has to be applied first in case of simultaneous failure of ADR and IR fault (same ADIRU)/
ADR fault procedure before IR.
108
What is the difference between the sweep on the weather radar and terrain?
Weather radar is a single sweep, terrain is a double sweep.
109
What produces the information on the ND when using EGPWS?
FM1, captains rad alt and baro alt.
110
What are icing conditions defined as?
TAT or OAT at or below 10 degrees and visible moisture (1600m or less).
