FA Findings Flashcards

(106 cards)

1
Q

Rare disorder arising secondary to Failure in Oxidative Phosphorylation. Tissues with increased energy requirements are affected like CNS, skeletal muscle

A

Mitochondria Disease

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2
Q

Type of Mitochondrial Myopathies

A

MELAS: Mitochondria encephalomyopathy with lactic acidosis and stroke like episodes
MERRF: Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibres. Light microscopy with stain: ragged red fibres due to compensatory proliferation of mitochondria. Electron microscopy: mitochondria crystalline inclusions

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3
Q

This is a mitochondria inherited disease. Mutation in Complex ___________ of the ETC causes neuronal death in retina and optic nerve —-> subacute bilateral vision loss in teens/young adults (Male > female) and may be accompanied by neurologic dysfunction (tremor, MS-like illness)

A

Mutation in complex 1 of ETC

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4
Q

Which trisomy is associated with microcephaly, microphthalmia, cleft palate, Cutis aplasia, holoprosencephaly, extra digit, polycystic kidney disease, and omphalocele

A

Patau- Trisomy 13

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5
Q

Defection in fusion of prechordal Mesoderm—-> midline defects (SHH protein is what’s responsible for symmetry/making a midline )

A

Patau

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6
Q

Rocker-bottom feet, cleft lip/palate, holoprosencephaly (no separation in forebrai, polydactyl, cutis aplasia (no skin top of head

A

Patau - 13

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7
Q

Menke’s disease is associated with what step of collagen synthesis?

A

Cross linking - reinenforcement of staggered tropocollagen molecules by covalent lysine- hydroxylsine cross-linkage by COPPER containing LYSYL oxidase to make collagen fibres

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8
Q

Which Amino acid residue is glycosylated in collagen synthesis?

A

Hydroxylysine (Pro-alpha-chain residue)

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9
Q

Which enzyme and cofactor are required for the cross-linking of tropocollagen molecules?

A

LYSYL oxidase and Copper

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10
Q

What two abnormalities are seen in Elastin synthesis?

A

Marfan Syndrome and Homocysteinuria

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11
Q

What are the differences between Homocysteinuria and Marfan Syndrome in ELASTIN abnormalities?

A

Marfan syndrome: AD, Normal intellect, Aortic root dilatation/aneurysm rupture or dissection( MCC of Death) upward/temporal lens dislocation (Marfan Fans out). fibrillin-1 (forms sheaths around TGF-B) defective gene due to FBN1 mutation on chromosome 15.

Homocysteinuria: AR, decrease intellect, vascular complication: Thrombosis; lens dislocation: Downward/nasal

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12
Q

What are the differences between Homocysteinuria and Marfan Syndrome in ELASTIN abnormalities?

A

Marfan syndrome: AD, Normal intellect, Aortic root dilatation/aneurysm rupture or dissection( MCC of Death) upward/temporal lens dislocation (Marfan Fans out). fibrillin-1 (forms sheaths around TGF-B) defective gene due to FBN1 mutation on chromosome 15.

Homocysteinuria: AR, decrease intellect, vascular complication: Thrombosis; lens dislocation: Downward/nasal

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13
Q

Which 3 key amino acids compose both Collagen and elastin?

A

Glycine, Proline and Lysine.

Nonhydroxylate form of proline/lysine- Elastin

Hydroxylate form of proline/ lysine in Collagen synthesis

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14
Q

Which protein provides a scaffolding for elastin and sequester of TGF-beta?

A

Fibrillin

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15
Q

Which necrosis is seen in the aorta of patient with Marfan syndrome?

A

Cystic medial necrosis

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16
Q

What causes the increased risk of thrombosis in pts with a cystathionine synthesis deficiency?

A

Decreased cystathionine synthase (homocystinuria) —-> Increased homocysteine—-> thrombotic risk

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17
Q

How does a defect in Fibrillin-1 lead to characteristic findings of Marfan syndrome

A

Defective fibrillib-1—> release of sequestered TGF-B and lack of scaffold for elastin —-> skin, skeletal, heart, and eye findings.

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18
Q

Explain the synthesis of Insulin

A

Preproinsulin is synthesized in the RER of pancreatic Beta cells ——cleavage of pesignal—-proinsulin (store in secretory granules——cleavage of proinsulin——exocytosis of insulin and C-peptide equally

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19
Q

What are increases in endogenous insulin secretion? What is does exogenous insulin secretion lack?

A

Insulin and C-peptide are increased in Endogenous insulin secretion and Exogenous insulin Lacks C-peptide

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20
Q

Insulin-dependent glucose transporters

A

GLUT 4: adipose tissue, straited muscles

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21
Q

Insulin-independent transporters: BRICK LIPS

A

Brain (glut 1, 3) , RBC (1), Intestine (2) Cornea (1), Kidney (2), Liver (2), Islet (Beta) cells (2), placenta (1, 3), Spermatocyte (5)

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22
Q

Patient with PKU should avoid the artificial sweetener ____________ which contains phenylalanine

A

Aspartame

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23
Q

Congenital deficiency of HOMOgentisate oxidase in the degradative pathway of Tyrosine to Fumarate causing pigment forming homogentisic acid build up in tissue.

AR and usually benign

Findings: bluish-back connective tissue, ear cartilage, and sclerae. URINE TURNS BLACK ON PROLONGED EXPOSURE TO TO AIR. May have debilitating arthralgias (Homogentistic acid is toxic to cartilage

A

Alkaptonuria

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24
Q

Causes of Homocystinuria

A
  1. Cystathionine synthase deficiency (Tx: decrease methionine, increase cysteine, increase B6, B12 and folate in diet)
  2. Decrease affinity of cystathionine synthase for pyridoxal phosphate (Tx: B6 and increase cysteine in diet)
  3. methionine synthase (homocysteine methyltransferase) deficiency (Tx: increase methionine in diet)
  4. methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase (MTHFR) deficiency (Tx: increase folate in diet)
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25
Rate limiting step for amino acid derivatives
Tyrosine Hydroxylase
26
————- is an excitatory neurotransmitter and ————— is inhibitory?
Glutamate is excitatory and GABA (Gamma-aminobutyric acid) is Inhibitory
27
What are the two infections implicated in Kartagener syndrome aka Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia?
Pseudomonas and Mycobacterium avium infections
28
diagnostics of Cystic Fibrosis
Sweat test= Pilocarpine on skin —-> high chloride in sweat = Positive CF
29
Recurrent respiratory infections due to inability to clear thick mucus is associated with? __________ what are to two main infections associated with the disease
CF; staph Aureus (Childhood); Pseudomonas (Adult)
30
Cystic Fibrosis causes infertility in Males due to ————— and not sperm mobility issues like in Kartagener) and in females due to —————-
Absent Vas Deferens; Abnormal thick cervical mucus in women
31
Vitamin E anemia is ————— while vitamin B12 anemia is ————- both vitamins have similar neurological presentations
Hemolytic anemia; Megaloblastic anemia (hypersegmented neutrophils and high serum methylmalonic acid levels.
32
Hemolytic anemia, acanthocytosis, muscle weakness, demylination of posterior columns (decrease proprioception and vibrations sense) and spinocerebellar tract (ataxia) and closely mimics Friedreich ataxia —— WHAT VITAMIN is complicit?
Vitamin E Excess vitamin E can cause enterocolitis in infants either excess of vitamin E
33
High dose of Vitamin ——-supplementation may alter metabolism of vitamin K- dependent proteins (Factor 2, 7, 9, 10; protein C/S) this leads to enhance anticoagulant effects if Warfarin
Vitamin E
34
What are the names of the 2 main forms of vitamin E ?
Tocotrienol and Tocopherol
35
What is the biochemical mechanism of Vitamin E?
Vitamin E protects polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) in membrane from Oxidation
36
How can folate(B9)deficiency be differentiated from Cobalamin (B12)
B9: Jejenum, plant B12: Ileum, red meat B9 deficiency: normal Methylmalonic acid and no neurologic symptoms B12 deficiency: elevated MMA levels and may present with neurological symptoms
37
What vitamins is crucial for the synthesis of Nucleotides (RNA, DNA)
Folate B9 and Cobalamin B12
38
Any mention of bone issues in lysosomal disease is _____________
Gauchers; AVASCULAR Necrosis of the Femur
39
Which lysosomal storage disease goes with “Oh my Gauch he’s such a BRO: crying while wiping with tissue paper”
Gauchers; Absence of B-glucocereBROsidase; Lipid laden macrophages = crumpled paper looking macrophages
40
What Enzyme deficiency and Substrate accumulation is found in Tay-Sachs? Hint: Gang of 6 small Jews
HEX(6)osaminidase A deficiency; GM2 ganglioside build up. Remember NO hepatosplenomegaly in TaySachs but there’s in Neiman picks
41
Fabry’s mnemonic: My Fabrite activity is CERAMIC we made in Galaxy
Fabre: Galactosidase deficiency; buildup of Ceramide
42
Krabbe’s Mnemonic: Bro that Krab is Out of this world
Galato: out of this world (GalactocereBrosidase) Buildup Galactocerebroside
43
————— inhibits Complex IV of the ETC (Cytochrome C oxidase ) and has a BITTER ALMOND SMELLING BREATH aka Acrid odor
Cyanide
44
How many Net ATP are produced via malate- aspartate and glycerol-3 phosphate shuttle respectively by the aerobic metabolism of 1 glucose molecule
32 net ATP via malate- asparatate shuttle and 30 net atp via glycerol 3 phosphate shuttle
45
How many ATP does an anaerobic glycolysis of 1 glucose molecule produce?
2 net ATP
46
—————— is an intermediate produced in the Kreb cycle that has a role in the regulation of glycolysis by inhibiting the action of Phosphofructokinase-1
Citrate
47
How to treat Cyanide poisoning?
Hydroxocobalamin or sodium thiosulfate
48
True or False: Aspirin is a decoupled, causing Hypetthermia if built up?
True
49
A TB drug that inhibits the formation of the mycobacterial cell wall preventing arabinosyl transferase from linking to the mycolic acid to the peptidoglycan complex via the arabinogalactan linker
Ethambutol - Ethan the Arab is color blind
50
A Tb drug that can be given Isolated Inhibits CYP450 Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis by binding to KatG Causes Peripheral Neuropathy -tingling of hands and feet and seizure Prevent peripheral neuropathy by giving Pyridoxine B6
Isoniazid
51
A TB drug of unknown MOA causes gout and hyperuricemia
Pyrazinamide
52
A TB drug that’s a DNA dependent- RNA polymerase inhibitor that RAMPs up CYP450. Red/Oranfe colored urine
Rifampin
53
True or False: RIPE therapy for TB causes liver toxicity?
True
54
Why are the 4 TB drugs (RIPE) used at the same time?
To prevent Resistance
55
Drugs that causes hemolysis in G6PD deficiency (high yield)
Nitrofurantoin, Sulfa, Primaquine, dapsone
56
Narrate the G6PD deficiency story?
NADPH is necessary to keep Glutathione reduced, which in turn detoxifies free radicals and peroxides. A decrease in NADPH in RBCs leads to hemolytic anemia due to poor RBC defense against oxidizing agents (Fava beans, sulfonamides, Nitrofurantoin, primaquine). G6PD deficiency is an X-linked disorder and more prevalent among descendants of population in malaria endemic regions (sub Saharan Africa, SE Asia) Heinz bodies are denatured globin chains precipitate within RBCs due to oxidative stress. BITE cells results from the phagocytic removal of Heinz bodies by splenic macrophages
57
what are the characteristics features of Pseudomona Aeruginosa?
Catalase +, oxidase +, gram - rod with motility, aerobic
58
What product of Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes degradation of cell membrane?
Phospholipase C
59
What are the virulence factors produced by pseudomonas Aeruginosa? Hint: PEEP
Phospholipase C (Degrades cell membrane); Endotoxin (Fever and shock), Exotoxin A( inactivated EF-2); Pigment (Green pigment)
60
Most common cause of Otitis Externa?
Pseudomonas Aerginosa followed by staphylococcus aureus
61
First line drugs for Pseudomonas? Hint: PCCG
Piperacillin, ceftazidime, cefepime, gentamicin
62
What are the antimicrobial drugs that cause disulfiram like reaction?
Sulfa, metronidazole, cephalosporin, griseofulvin
63
What does Disulfiram do?
Disulfiram inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase causing a build up of acetaldehyde- a molecule that makes you hangover - facial flushing, vertigo, headache, nausea, tachycardia, hypotension
64
Antimicrobial drugs not to give to pregnant women?
TETRAcYclines (bone deformity and yellowing of teeth), Aminoglycosides, pyrazinamide, sofosbuvir, primaquine
65
Antimicrobial that activates, induces CYP450?
RIFAMPIN , griseofulvin, efavirenz, NEVIRAPINE
66
Antimicrobials that inhibits CYP450
Clarithromycin/Erythromycin, Floxacin, isoniazid, azoles, cobicistat
67
Antimicrobial that causes C.diff
Clindamycin, ampicillin, Ciprofloxacin
68
Antimicrobial that treats C.diff
Vancomycin (DOC), fidaxomicin, metronidazole (2nd line)
69
DOC for strep pyogene (GroupA) and strep agalactiae (group B strep)
Penicillin G shot
70
DOC for Pneumonia Jiroveci (fungus infection In Immunocompromised)
TMP-SMP, Atovaquone
71
DOC Lyme disease
Tetracycline is early, amoxicillin if late
72
DOC Neisseria Meningitides
Ceftriaxone + Azithromycin, tetracycline
73
Neisseria Gonorrhea DOC
Nitrofurantoin, Ceftriaxone
74
Lower UTI/Cystitis
TMP-SMX, Ceftiraxone, Nitrofurantoin(Cystitis)
75
Yersinia Pestis (Plague) DOC
Macrolides
76
True or False: Ecoli is part of the normal flora of the GIT and is the most common cause of UTI in ambulatory young women along with Staphylococcus Saprophyticus
True
77
The most infective form of Chlamydia is?
The extracellular elementary body, Reticulate body is intracellular
78
True or False: SLE gives false positive Reagin test (rapid plasma Reagin)
True
79
Antibiotic Treatment of Little Twirling Bacteria aka Spiral shaped bacteria- Spirochete (Lepospira, Treponema (syphilis), Borrelia(Lyme)) can cause what?
Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction- Flulike symptoms (fever, chills, headache, myalgia)
80
This spinal cord lesion below is associated with
Tertiary Syphilis (Tabe dorsalis) degeneration/demyelination of Dorsal Columns and root. Impaired Propriception- poor coordination
81
Erythema multiforme
Target lesions associated with HSV1
82
What are the locations in the brain for these infections: Rubella HSV Tabe Dorsalis TB Hippocampus
Frontal - Rubella Temporal- HSV Syphilis (Tabe dorsalis)- Dorsal Column TB- Posterior toxo- Parietal Hippocampus - Rabies
83
What are the locations in the brain for these infections: Rubella HSV Tabe Dorsalis TB Hippocampus
Frontal - Rubella Temporal- HSV Syphilis (Tabe dorsalis)- Dorsal Column TB- Posterior toxo- Parietal Hippocampus - Rabies
84
Acyclovir requires viral ————-to phosphorylate and activate it. Mutation in thymidine kinase causes resistance
Thymidine Kinase is needed
85
HCV drugs and MOA
86
Antimicrobials to Avoid in Pregnancy: Safe Children Take Really Good Care
87
A defect in NADPH oxidase, leading to defective phagocytosis of catalase- positive organisms, pt has recurrent bacterial and fungal infections, TX with interferon Gamma, CD18 negative on Cytometry
Chronic Granulomatous Disease
88
Absent of integrity CD18 protein causing defective leukocyte migration and chemotaxis (C5a, IL-8, LTB4) . Presents with recurrent infections and poor wound healing (abscesses, gingivitis, skin ulcers) in the absence of pus. Marked neutrophilia, normal or elevated wBC, delayed umbilical cord separation 4weeks after birth.
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
89
Several deficiencies of Both T and B cells leading to opportunistic infections and recurrent infections in infancy does not have neutrophil migration defects
SCID
90
Recurrent skin abscesses, elevated IGE levels, eczema,. Deficiency of Th17 cells due to STAT3 mutation and impaired recruitment of neutrophils to site of infection. Increase IgE, increased Eosinophils- presents ABCDEF to get Job STAT: staph Abscesses, Retained baby teeth, Coarse facies, Dermatologic problems (eczema) increase IgE, bone fractures from minor trauma.
Hyper IGE syndrome -Job Syndrome
91
Defect in ATM gene—-failure
Ataxia- Telangiectasia
92
Which immunodeficiency is this?
Selective IgA deficiency
93
SCID Types
94
List the encapsulated bacteria. Hint Please SHiNE my SKiS or Please Excuse Sarah’s Naughty Small Krab, Henry
95
No spleen Here—- Decrease opsionizing and increasing risk for severe infections
Neisseria Meningitidis Strep Pneumonia H. Influenzae
96
Chloroquine resistance to falciparum
Use Mefloquine
97
Humans are not the definite host- Humans are the Vector, Mosquitos ARE the definite host as reproduction happens in the mosquito’s gut. True or false?
True
98
How do you tell apart Malaria from Babesia?
Malaria - Anopheles (Africa, s. America) - plasmodium. Rings, schizonts or gametocytes. Trophozoite is the infective form that can enter the red cells. Babesia—-ticks Massachusetts/ Northeast, maltaese rings or crosses
99
True or False: Mycoplasma pneumonia causes Cold Agglutinins that cause red cell agglutination at cold temps (blue cold fingers tips) = autoimmune hemolytic anemia
True
100
**Allergy/ Anaphylaxis **IgE mediated IL-4 triggers production of IGE Release of Histamine (vasodilator), tryptase which activates more mast cells, and leukotrienes) **IgA deficiency causes you to have anaphylaxis if you are transfused with plasma (since IgA is present in the donor’s plasma
Type 1 hypersensitivity
101
**Classic antibody- antigen binding **IgG mediated **Coomb test (A positive coomb test means there’s some kind of antibody bound to the surface of red cells **Hemolytic disease of the fetus and new born
Type 11
102
Define hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?
Treat with Rhogram (Immunoglobulin against Rh) - this med kills any fetal red cells that are in maternal circulation BEFORE the mom’s immune system even has a chance to produce antibodies. It is also given prophylactically to any pregnant Rh- mom
103
Delayed Allergic T-cell mediated (Not antibody mediated) B7 on dendritic cells activate Tcells by binding to their CD28 Type 4= 4Ts T cell mediated Transplant rejection Tuberculosis skin test Touching (contact dermatitis, poison ivy/nickel) Sjorgen is type of this HSR
hypersensitivity type 4
104
Summary of hypersensitivity reactions and their pathophysiology
105
Histamine acts via H1 receptors to induce vasodilation and increase vascular permeability… they are GPCRS that activates a Gq alpha subunit resulting in an intercellular signaling cascaded characterized by the activation of ——————-
Phospholipase C
106
What are the types of transplant rejections? HACG