FAA Written Flashcards
(193 cards)
1
Q
The load factor for an a/c in a 60 degree bank turn is:
A
2 Gs
2
Q
During a LEFT side-slip, an over-the-top spin would most likely occur if the stick is held ___ and ___ rudder was applied during a left side slip
A
- Too far back
2. Full right rudder
3
Q
While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of TURN is varied, the load factor would:
A
Remain CONSTANT regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector
4
Q
As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane:
A
Increases because of increased INDUCED drag
5
Q
If the airspeed is INCREASED during a coordinates level 45 degree bank turn, the load factor will:
A
Remain the same, but the radius of turn will increase
6
Q
What changes must be made in a/c longitudinal control to maintain altitude while decreasing airspeed?
A
Increase AOA to compensate for DECREASING LIFT
7
Q
Some a/c are fitted with wing spoilers to decrease:
A
Lift (during landing)
8
Q
A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the:
A
Wing ROOT, with the stall progression toward the wingtip
9
Q
The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the:
A
Distribution of pressures acting on the wing
10
Q
By changing the AOA of a wing, the pilot can control:
A
Lift, airspeed and drag
11
Q
The critical AOA is exceeded when:
A
A stall occurs
12
Q
The AOA at which a wing stalls remains constant:
A
ALWAYS!! Regardless of weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle or pitch attitude
13
Q
The design maneuvering speed (Va) is:
A
A figure for recently designed a/c that defines the max. speed an airplane can safely stall
14
Q
Is stall SPEED affected by AOA?
A
NO! By weight, load factor and power
15
Q
In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of Load Factor would cause the stall speed to:
A
Increase!
16
Q
recovery from a stall in any a/c becomes more difficult when the center of gravity moves ___;
A
AFT!
17
Q
In a spin, what is the rotation centered around?
A
CG! (Not longitudinal axis)
18
Q
Increasing AOA will:
A
Increase Drag
19
Q
To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an a/c must be flown at:
A
A higher TAS for any given AOA
20
Q
A pilot who intends to maintain level flight must coordinate AOA with what force of flight?
A
Thrust
21
Q
In a stead state descent, the sum of all FORWARD forces is ____ to the sum of all REWARD forces
A
EQUAL
22
Q
What is true regarding the force of life in stead, accelerated flight?
A
There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every AOA to generate sufficient life to maintain alititude
23
Q
A changing AOA affects which 2 forces of flight?
A
Lift and WEIGHT!
24
Q
In theory, if airspeed is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag AND lift produced will become:
A
four times greater
25
If airspeed remains constant and air density INCREASES, lift will ___ and drag will ___.
Lift and drag will both INCREASE
26
Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the:
Force acting perpendicular to the relative wind
27
What statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an a/c in steady-state level flight?
These forces are equal!
28
What is best glide speed?
The speed at which the parasitic and induced drag curves meet, and total drag is at its minimum!
29
Both lift and drag are increased when ___ are extended
Flaps
30
in theory if airspeed is cut in HALF while in level flight, parasitic drag will become:
1/4 as much
31
To produce the same life while IN ground effect as when out of ground effect, the a/c requires:
A LOWER AOA! (due to disrupted wingtip vortecies)
32
If the same AOA is maintained IN ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will:
Increase, and INDUCED drag will decrease
33
Longitudinal STABILITY involves the motion of the a/c controlled by its:
Elevator (stability about the LATERAL AXIS aka Pitch)
34
If the a/c attitude initially tends to return to the OG position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the a/c displays _____ _____ stability
Positive Static Stability
35
If an a/c is loaded to the rear CG limit, it will tend to be unstable about which axis?
LATERAL axis
36
While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would:
REMAIN CONSTANT regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector
37
What is correct with respect to rate and radius of turn for a/c flown in a coordinated turn at a constant altitude?
For a specific angle of bank and airspeed, the rate and radius of turn will not vary
38
One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to:
Provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed
39
To simultaneously INCREASE rate of turn and DECREASE radius of turn, a pilot should ____ the bank angle, and ____ airspeed
1. Increase bank angle
| 2. Decrease airspeed
40
Increasing airspeed in a constant angle, coordinated turn will ____ the rate of turn
DECREASE
41
The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an a/c in flight is known as:
Load factor, and directly affects stall speed
42
Load factor is the lift generated by the wings at any given time, divided by _____
The Total Weight of the a/c
43
For a given angle of bank, in an a/c, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn:
Is constant, and the stall speed INCREASES
44
A/c wing loading during level turns in smooth air depends upon the:
Angle of Bank!
45
What factor is the best indication of Gs on an a/c?
Change in how heavy you feel in your seat!
46
Transonic airflow typically occurs in airplace speed regimes between Mach __ and __
0.75 and 1.20
47
Acceleration past critical Mach may result in what 2 onsets of comprehensibility effects?
Control difficulties or Increased drag!
48
Does applying carb heat enrich the fuel/air mixture?
Yes!
49
At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause:
Fouling of spark plugs! (excess fuel causes a cooling effect, causing low temps in the combustion chamber)
50
Leaving carb heat on during takeoff roll will ____ the ground roll
INCREASE
51
Detonation can be caused by:
Using a lower grade fuel than is recommended (instantaneous combustion of fuel/air mix)
52
Uncontrolled firing of fuel/air mix in advance of normal spark ignition is known as:
Pre-Ignition
53
If the ground wire between the mag and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the engine:
Could start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder
54
The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it:
Permits a relatively constant AOA along its length when in cruising flight
55
What statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed prop?
The prop control regulates the engine RPM and, in turn, the prop RPM
56
To develop max power and thrust, and constant-speed prop should be set to a blade angle that will produce a ____ AOA and a ___ RPM
1. Small AOA
| 2. High RPM
57
What is the max IAS authorized in airspace UNDERLYING class B?
200 knots
58
The radius of the uncharted Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally:
20 NM
59
At some airports in class D where GROUND vis is NOT reported, takeoffs and landings under Special VFR are authorized by ATC if FLIGHT vis is at least ___SM
1 SM
60
To operate an a/c at night under Special VFR in class D, what is required of the pilot and a/c?
PIC is Instrument rated and a/c is IFR equipped!
61
When operating an a/c in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower in class E a pilot must establish communications prior to:
4 NM, and up to and including 2,500' AGL
62
The runway holding position sign is located on:
Runways that intersect other runways
63
The ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign indicates:
You are about to enter, or are clear of, the ILS critical area
64
What is the general direction of movement of the other a/c if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? The other a/c is moving:
Away from you!
65
What is the min vis and ceiling required to receive a LAHSO clearance?
3 SM and 1,000'
66
To conduct a LAHSO a pilot should have published available landing dist. data, as well as ___ ___ information
Runway SLOPE information
67
An area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for landing and takeoff of a/c, and includes its buildings and facilities describes:
An Airport!
68
Regulations that refer to "commercial operators" relate to that person who:
Is operating for compensation in any way, OTHER THAN AS AN AIR CARRIER
69
What does "operational control" of a flight mean?
The exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight
70
Regulations which refer to "operate" relate to that person who:
Causes the a/c to be used or authorizes its use
71
Vs1 is the correct symbol for:
Stalling speed, or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration
72
Vf is defined as:
DESIGN flap speed
73
Vno is defined as:
Max STRUCTURAL CRUISING speed
74
Vle is defined as:
Max landing gear extended speed
75
ASEL, AMEL, ASES and AMES and considered:
CLASS RATINGS
76
A pilot convicted of operating a MOTOR vehicle while impaired is required to provide a written report to:
The FAA (AMC-700) no later than 60 days after conviction
77
Conviction of any kind related to narcotic drugs is grounds for:
Suspension or revocation of any cert, rating or authorization
78
A pilot convicted of operating an AIRCRAFT while impaired is under grounds for:
Denial of an application for certs, rating or authorizations
79
To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel a/c or an a/c with over 200 hp, a pilot must:
Receive and log flight training from an authorized INSTRUCTOR, and have proper endoresments
80
The PIC must hold a type rating when operating:
Any a/c of more than 12,500 lbs max certificated takeoff weight
81
What flight time may be logged as SIC?
All time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an a/c that REQUIRES more than 1 pilot
82
What flight time must be documented by a pilot exercising commercial privileges?
Flight time showing training/experience to meet requirements for the certificate
83
To serve are SIC in an a/c certified for more than 1 crew member, operated under Part 91, a person must:
WITHIN THE LAST 12 MONTHS - become familiar and perform/log pilot time in the type of a/c to be operated
84
To act as PIC of an a/c under Part 91, a commercial pilot must have completed a flight review or proficiency check within the last ____ calendar months
24 cal months!
85
If you are NOT night current, and official sunset is at 1900 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried is:
1959 CST
86
To serve as PIC of an a/c that is certified for more than one pilot, under part 91, a person must complete:
A PIC proficiency check within the preceding 12 cal months in an a/c that is type certificated for more than one pilot
87
If you do not notify the FAA, how long are you entitled to exercise your pilot cert privileges after an address change?
30 Days
88
What limitation is imposed on commercial pilots who do not have an instrument rating?
Cannot carry passengers on XC flights in excess of 50 NM, or for hire at night
89
A person with a commercial pilot cert may act as PIC in command of an a/c for compensation/hire IF:
They are qualified in accordance with Part 61 and with APPLICABLE PARTS that apply to the OPERATION
90
All US registered civil a/c must what what document on board during operation?
A current, approved Airplane Flight Manual
91
Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with navigation/coms may not be operated on US a/c being flown:
In air carrier ops OR under IFR!
92
No person may operate a large US a/c which is subject to lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA within ____ hours
24 hours!
93
When is preflight action required (relative to alternatives available, weather, and fuel requirements) if the planned flight cannot be completed?
Any flight NOT IN THE VICINITY of an airport
94
A PIC is required to be aware of all info pertinent to the flight. This includes what info about the destination airport?
LAHSO ops
95
Shoulder harnesses of required flight crew is required to be fastened during:
Takeoff and Landing, unless it interferes with performing duties
96
With US a/c the use of safety belts is required during movement on the surface, TO and landings for:
Each person over 2 years of age on board
97
What is true with respect to operating near other a/c in flight?
It is NOT authorized when operated so close to another a/c they can create a collision hazard
98
What 2 things are true with respect to formation flights?
- They are NOT authorized except by arrangement with the PIC of each a/c
- They are NOT authorized when carrying passengers for hire
99
If 2 a/c are CONVERGING, which a/c would have the right of way? The to the left, or to the right?
The a/c to the RIGHT would have the right of way!
100
When barometric pressure will be above ____ inches of mercury, flight ops will NOT be authorized
31.00"
101
VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying:
- More than 3,000' AGL
| - Based on MAGNETIC COURSE
102
To list an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan with only non-precision approaches, the forecast ceiling and vis at the time of arrival must be at or above ___and ___
800' and 2 SM (statue miles!!)
103
What 4 things must be logged after a VOR check for IFR ops?
Date, place, bearing and signature!
104
On an instrument approach where DH or MDA is aplicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the:
A/c is continuously in POSITION TO DESCEND to a normal landing on the intended runway
105
Pilots are not authorized to land an a/c from an instrument approach unless the:
FLIGHT vis (only) at, or exceeds, the vis prescribed in the approach procedure being used
106
91.203 states that no person may operate a civil a/c unless the airworthiness cert is:
Displayed and legible to all passengers!
107
Name 2 required pieces of equipment for VFR Night flight!
- An electric landing light (for hire)
| - Anticollision light system
108
The max cumulative time an ELT can be operated before it must be recharged is ___ mins
60 mins!
109
If NOT equipped with required position or anticollision lights, when must an a/c must terminate flight?
At sunset!
110
What are the O2 requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes about 15,000' MSL?
The flightcrew AND passengers must be provided with supplemental O2
111
Supplemental O2 must be used by the required flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 mins while at cabin pressure altitudes of:
- 12,500' MSL up to AND INCLUDING 14,000' MSL
112
What is the min altitude and flight vis required for acrobatic flight?
- 1,500' AGL
| - 3 SM
113
What is required to operate an a/c towing an advertising banner?
A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator
114
No person may operate a ______, _____, OR _____ category a/c carrying passengers or property for comp or hire
Restricted, Primary OR Limited category a/c
115
Assuring ADs are complied with is the responsibility of the:
OWNER/OPERATOR!
116
If an a/c's performance is substantially affected by an alteration or repair, a rated pilot must fly, approve and document the return to service before the a/c can be operated:
With PASSENGERS!
117
In what type of op (not regulated by Part 119) may a commercial pilot act as PIC and receive compensation for services?
Nonstop flights within 25 SM radius of an airport to carry PERSONS for intentional PARACHUTE JUMPS or BIRD CHASING
118
How long must a person be hospitalized for the NTSB to declare it a "Serious Injury"?
48 HOURS within 7 days of the injury
119
NTSB Part 830 requires immediate notification as a result of what incident?
Crewmember being unable to perform duties due to ILLNESS
120
What incident requires immediate notification of the nearest NTSB field office?
In-Flight fire
121
How many days after an ACCIDENT is a report required to be files with the NTSB?
10 days!
122
To determine PRESSURE ALTITUDE prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to:
29.92" Hg and the altimeter indication noted
123
At higher elevation airports pilots should know that IAS will be ____ but ground speed will be ____
1. Unchanged
| 2. Faster
124
An uphill runway will ____ takeoff distance
Increase
125
Basic empty weight includes weight of the airframe, engines, all installed AND:
The unusable fuel, full operating fluids and full oil
126
The CG of an a/c can be determined by dividing ____ by ____
Total Moments/Total Weight
127
If all index units are positive computing weight and balance, the location of the datum would be at the:
Nose, or out in front of the a/c
128
To rid itself of the alcohol contained in 1 mixed drink or 1 beer, the human body requires about:
3 Hours
129
What is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
Drowsiness
130
What would most likely cause hyperventilation?
Insufficient carbon dioxide!!
131
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
All traffic and terrain appear to be FURTHER away than their actual distance
132
ADM is best defined as:
A SYSTEMATIC APPROACH to the mental process used by pilots
133
Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to
Demonstrate the "right stuff"
134
What does good cockpit stress management begin with?
Good LIFE stress management
135
To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must:
Condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears
136
DECIDE in order
```
DETECT
ESTIMATE
Choose
Identify
EVALUATE
```
137
Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?
Coriolis force tends to COUNTERBALANCE the horizontal pressure gradient
138
What is true regarding a cold front occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front:
Is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front
139
A high-pressure area (or ridge) is an area of _____ air
Descending air!
140
While flying cross-country in the Northern Hemisphere, you experience a continuous left crosswind which is associated with a major system. This indicates that you:
Are flying TOWARDS an area of generally unfavorable weather conditions
141
When flying into a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere, the wind direction and velocity will be from the:
LEFT and INCREASING! (counterclockwise)
142
What prevents air from flowing directly from high to low pressure areas?
Coriolis Force!
143
General circulation of HIGH pressure systems in the Northern Hemi is:
OUTWARD, down and clockwise
144
General circulation of lOw pressure systems in the Northern Hemi is:
a cyclOne and is caused by Coriolis force
145
The strength and location of the jet stream is normally ____ and farther ____ in the SUMMER
Weaker and farther NORTH in the summer
| exact opposite for winter
146
Which type of jetstream can be expected to cause greater turbulence?
a CURVING jetstream associated with low pressure TROUGHS
147
Abrupt change in temp lapse rate is a feature of which layer of the atmosphere?
Tropopause
148
Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting would likely result in the formation of _____ cloud, ___ vis and _____
Cumuliform clouds, GOOD vis and showery rain!
149
Cold air moving over a warm surface creates ___ clouds, _____, and ____ vis
Cumuliform clouds, turbulence and good vis
150
Standing lenticular altocumulus clouds indicate:
Very strong turbulence
151
Percip induced fog is most commonly associated with ___ fronts
WARM fronts
152
A situation most conducive to the formation of advection fog is:
An air mass moving inland from the coastline during the winter
153
What will dissipate or lift advection fog off the ground?
WIND 15 knots or stronger
154
Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind are favorable conditions for the formation of:
Surface Based Temp inversions
155
Characteristic of STABLE air are: (vis, percip. and clouds)
Poor vis, steady/continuous percip and STRATUS clouds
156
What would decrease the stability of an air mass?
Warming form below
157
In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the:
RIGHT by Coriolis force
158
Long streak of cirrus clouds can be a visula indication of:
The jet stream and CAT
159
What DETERMINES the structure of type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend?
The STABILITY of the air before lifting occurs
160
What in-flight hazard is most commonly associated with WARM fronts?
Personification-induce fog
161
_____ fog can appear suddenly (day or night) and it is more persistent than radiation fog
ADVECTION fog
162
STABLE air results in ___ vis, ___ percip, and ___ clouds
POOR vis
STEADY percip
STRATUS clouds
163
What is true regarding the development of convective circulation?
Cool air must sink to force the warm air upward
164
The ambient lapse rate is a measurement of ________
Atmospheric stability!
165
The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and ____ air
Stable, moist air
166
What feature is associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
Continuous updraft
167
What is true regarding turbulence associated with thunderstorms?
Outside the cloud, shear trub. can be encountered 20 MILES laterally from a severe storm
168
____ ____ offer the most intense weather hazards to a/c
Squall lines
169
True or False: Squall lines considered to be Non-Frontal
TRUE
170
What stage of a thunderstorm is characterized predominately by DOWNdrafts?
Dissipating Stage!
171
Ice pellets encountered during flight are evidence that:
A warm front is ABOUT to pass
172
Severe thunderstorm echos should be avoided by at least ___ miles each
20 miles!
173
_____ turbulence momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude/attitude
LIGHT turb
174
What is the vertical wind shear value critical for moderate or greater turb?
6 knots per 1,000'
175
In hilly or mountainous areas, where will the greatest potential danger from turbulent air be encountered?
Leeward side, flying INTO the wind
176
Under conditions of suspected LLWS, a sudden decrease in headwind will cause a _____ in airspeed, equal to the decrease in wind velocity
A LOSS in airspeed
177
The power and velocity required to remain on proper glidepath during an approach are easy ways to recognize possible _____ ____
WIND SHEAR
178
Telephone Info Briefing Service (TIBS) provided by FSS includes:
Continuous recording of meteorological conditions/aeronautical info
179
During preflight preparation, weather report forecasts which are not routinely available can best be obtained from: (not FSS)
Weather Forecast Office (WFO)
180
HIWAS provides:
Continuous broadcast of inflight weather advisories
181
AWWs, convective SIGMETs, and SIGMETs are by:
ARTCCs on all frequencies
182
Temp 26, Dew point 04. At approx. what altitude AGL should cloud bases be expected?
8,800'
26 - 4 = 22 / 2.5 = 8.8
183
What does "WSHFT 30 FROPA" mean?
Wind shift at three zero due to frontal passage
184
What chart provides a means of locating observed frontal position and pressure centers?
Surface Analysis charts
185
The visibility entry in a TAF "P6SM" indicates prevailing vis is expected to be greater than:
6 STATUTE miles
186
FAs (Area Forecasts) are used in conjunction with inflight weather advisories to interpolate:
Conditions at airports for which NO TAFs are issured
187
In-Flight Aviation Weather Advisories include:
Forecasts for potentially hazardous flying conditions for en route a/c
188
What WIND conditions would you anticipate when Squalls are reported?
Sudden increase in windspeed of at least 16 knots, to a sustained speed of 22+ knots for at least 1 minute
189
What is the upper limit of the Low Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
24,000'
190
What weather phenomenon is enclosed by small scalloped lines on a High-Level Significant weather chart>
CumuloNIMBUS clouds!
191
What altitude do HIGH-Level Significant Weather Prog Charts cover?
24,000'-63,000'
192
What provides a graphic display of both VFR and IFR weather?
Weather Depiction Chart
193
Ended
Start at beginning of Navigation deck
