FAACA Deck 1 Flashcards
(182 cards)
1
Q
How old must you be to hold a Commercial Pilot License?
A
18 years old
2
Q
What medical category is required for a Flight Engineer?
A
CAT1
3
Q
What medical category is required for a Commercial Pilot Licenser?
A
CAT1
4
Q
What medical Category is required for a Private Pilot Permit?
A
CAT1 or CAT3
5
Q
What is the validity of a CAT1 medical for a pilot that is under 40 years of age?
A
12 months
6
Q
What is the validity of a CAT1 medical for a pilot that is 40 years of age?
A
6 months
7
Q
What is the validity of a CAT1 medical for a pilot that is over 40 years of age?
A
6 months
8
Q
What is the validity of a CAT3 medical for a pilot that is under 40 years of age?
A
60 months (5 years)
9
Q
What is the validity of a CAT3 medical for a pilot that is 40 years of age?
A
24 months (2 years)
10
Q
What is the validity of a CAT3 medical for a pilot that is over 40 years of age?
A
24 months (2 years)
11
Q
What happens when your CAT1 medical expires?
A
CAT1 medical will revert to a CAT3
12
Q
What is the minimum groundschool requirement for a CPL?
A
80 hours
13
Q
What are the minimum flight hours to complete for the issuance of a CPL?
A
200 hours
14
Q
What is the minimum pilot-in-command time required for the issueance of a CPL?
A
100 hours
15
Q
What is the minimum cross-country pilot-in-command time required for the issueance of a CPL?
A
20 hours
16
Q
How many training hours following the issueance of a Private Pilot Certificate are required for a CPL?
A
65 hours of flight training
17
Q
What are the night flying requirements for a CPL?
A
5 Hours solo cross country of at least 150 nautical miles and two full stop landings
18
Q
After completing a CPL flight test, how long do you have before you must submit your application?
A
Within 12 months
19
Q
Can a CPL holder fly at night?
A
Yes, it is basically included in the CPL, if you have not met the night training requirements then a CPL can be issued with a day flying restriction.
20
Q
Is CAR 703.14 a regulation or a standard?
A
Cars section 7 the 0 indicates a regulation and the 3 refers to a subsection. These Parts are indicated by the First number eg, 703.14
The second number indicates whether you are looking at the regulation, as indicated by a 0, or the standard, as indicated by a 2
E.g. 703.14 vs 723.15
21
Q
How does Transport Canada communicate guidance when they feel that a certain regulation needs more clarification?
A
Advisory Circulars. They DO NOT supersede any of the regulations, just provide more context and allow users to better follow the intention behind the regulations.
22
Q
What is an aerodrome in respect of which an airport certificate is issued called?
A
Airport
23
Q
What is airspace of fixed dimensions that is so specified in the Designated Airspace Handbook and within which air traffic control service is provided called?
A
Controlled Airpsace
24
Q
What is the term given to a form of maintenance that is not subject to a maintenance release. Hence, it need not be performed by a holder of an AME licence, or by persons working under an AMO certificate
A
Elementary Work
25
What is ESCAT Plan?
Emergency Security of Air Traffic Plan - the authority under which powers can be assumed by the Canadian government in the case of an air defence emergency. Previously referred to as SCATANA, and utilized during September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks.
26
What is the difference between a Flight Crew Member on Call and on Standby
On call - must be able to report for duty in 1 hour, On standby must remain at a specified location to be able to report for duty with one hour or less of notice.
27
When does Flight Duty Time commence and end?
From the time a crew member reports for a flight OR goes on Standby. Finnishes when the engines are shut down.
28
What is term given to the document that describes equipment that may be inoperative, and that which must be operative, for an aircraft to be operated.
Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
29
What is the rerm given to the person who has possession of the aircraft as owner, lessee, or otherwise.
Operator
30
How long does an operator have before contacting the minister if legal custody or control of an aircraft changes?
7 days
31
Does the Certificate of Registration need to be carried onboard?
Yes, CAR202.26
32
What is the name given to any area of land, water (including the frozen surface thereof) or other supporting surface used, designed, prepared, equipped or set apart for use either in whole or in part for the arrival, departure, movement or servicing of aircraft and includes any buildings, installations and equipment situated thereon or associated therewith?
Aerodrome
33
What is the name given to Aerodromes for which a certificate has been issued under Subpart 302 of the CARs or Subpart 305 for heliports?
Airport, Heliport
34
What is the difference between a Movement Area and a Maneuvering Area?
The Movement area is intended for the surface movement of aircraft, including the Manuevering Area. The Manuevering Area is defined as part of an aerodrome, other than an apron, that is intended to be used for the takeoff and landing of aircraft and for the movement of aircraft associated with takeoff and landing.
35
What must an operator of an aerodrome do to ensure it is published in the Cnadian Flight Suppliment?
Provide the minister with information such as location, lighting, markings, use and operation. The minister will then register the aerodrome.
36
What is runway numbering aligned to in Northern Domestice Airspace?
True Heading
37
What is runway numbering aligned to in Southern Domestice Airspace?
Magnetic Heading
38
What determines if an aircraft is considered complex?
Has flaps and a constant-speed propeller and, except in the case of a seaplane, retractable landing gear
39
If a pilot wishes to act as pilot in command, what are the 5 year recency requirements?
Flown as PIC or Flown as Co-Pilot or Completed a flight review with an instructor AND passed the PSTAR within 12 months.
40
If a pilot wishes to act as pilot in command, what are the 2 year recency requirements?
Any of the following
• A flight review with an instructor
• Conduct a safety seminar
• Participate in a TCAA approved recruitment program
• Complete a self paced study program
• Complete the requirements for the issue of a renewal of a license, permit or rating
• Complete a pilot training program or proficiency check
• Complete a written exam for a license or permit or rating
41
If a pilot wishes to act as pilot in command and carry passengers, what are the recency requirements?
Within 6 months - 5 takeoffs and landings bay day or night (night if flying with passengers at night), conducted in the same category and class of aircraft, or in a level B,C or D simulator of the same category and class of aircraft.
42
What must be included in the pilots log book for a flight?
• Date of flight
• Type of aircraft and registration
• Flight crew position
• Flight conditions
• Place of departure and place of arrival
• All intermediate takeoffs and landings
• Flight time
43
A CAT1 medical conducted on Feb 2nd 2024 will be valid until?
1st March 2025 for CPL under 40, July 1st for CPL 40 or over, basically 1st day of the month after the validity period.
44
What are the two defined domestic airspace regions and what is the difference between them with respoct to navigation?
Northern and Southern, In the Northern Domestic Airspace true track is used for runway headings, cruising altitudes etc, where as Magentic track is used in the Southern Domestic Airspace. This is because the Northern airspace is so close to the North pole that disruptions to the magnetic compass occures.
45
What is defined as High and Low level airspace?
High level airspace is at or above 18,000' up to FL600 (above FL600 is uncontrolled) Low level airspace is below 18,000'
46
What are the three sections of High level controlled airspace and what are the dimensions?
• Southern Control Area, 18,000' ASL and above
• Northern Control Area FL230 and above
• Arctic Control Area FL270 and Above
47
What airspace is an aircraft flying in when above 18,000' above the Southern Domestic Airspace?
Southern Control Area
48
What are the dimensions of the uncontrolled airspace above the Northern Domestic Airspace?
Below the Northern Control Area - Above 18000' and below FL230. Below the Arctic Control Area above 18000' and below FL270.
49
What is the vertical dimension of a standard control zone around an airport?
Surface to 3000' AGL
50
What radius and base should the outer limit of a Terminal Control Area be?
45NM 9,500' AGL
51
What radius and base should the intermediate circle of a Terminal Control Area be?
35NM 2,200' AGL
52
What radius and base should the inner circle of a Terminal Control Area be?
12NM 1200' AGL
53
The floor of a Terminal Control Area shall not extend lower than?
700' AGL.
54
What class if airspace is assigned to Military Control or Operating Areas?
Class F
55
What class of airspace is assigned to Restricted and Advisory areas?
Class F
56
Which class of airspace does not allow VFR operations?
Class A
57
What are Class A airspace vertical dimensions?
Begins at the base of high level controlled airspcace or 700' AGL whichever is higher, up to and including FL600.
58
What are Class B airspace vertical dimensions?
12,500' ASL or at and above the MEA whichever is higher, up to but not including 18,000' ASL.
59
What minimum equipment is required to operate in Class B airspace?
Two-way radio, Radio Navigation equipment capable of using the facilities associated with the airspace and a Mode C transponder.
60
What happens to Class C airspace if the associated ATC unit is not in operation?
It becomes Class E
61
What minimum equipment is required to operate in Class C airspace?
Two-way radio and a Mode C transponder.
62
Can an aircraft that is not equiped with a radio (NORDO) operate in Class C airspace?
Yes but must have prior permission.
63
What happens to Class D airspace if the associated ATC unit is not in operation?
It becomes Class E
64
Do you require a clearance to enter class D airspace?
Not a clearance, but you must have established two way communications.
65
Do you require a clearance to enter class C airspace?
Yes, you must be given permission to enter class C airspace.
66
Do you need to have a Mode C transponder to enter class D airspace?
It depends, if the class D airspace has been designated as Transponder airspace.
67
What ATC seperation is available in Class D airspace?
Separation only provided to IFR traffic normally. Traffic information will be provided if workload permits and conflict resolution will be provided between IFR and VFR traffic, if requested conflict resoltuin may be provided between VFR aircraft.
68
What are the radio communication requirements for Class E airspace?
There are non.
69
What airspace is designated when there is an operational need for some level of control but the airspace does not meet the requirements of class A,B,C or D?
Class E
70
Under what conditions can you enter Class F airspace?
If it is Restricted airspace then you must be authorized to enter, if it is Advisory it is recommended to stay clear unless you are participating in the activity for which the airspace is designated.
71
Which airspace classes require you to have a transponder?
All class A,B and C. Any class D or E specified as transponder airspace.
72
What is the transponder code for VFR operations at or below 12,500'?
1200
73
What is the transponder code for VFR operations above 12,500'?
1400 up to 18,000'
74
If you are operating IFR below 18,000' and have not been given a uniqe code by ATC, what should you set your transponder to?
1000
75
If you are operating IFR at or above 18,000' and have not been given a uniqe code by ATC, what should you set your transponder to?
2000
76
How much should you avoid NOTAMd fire areas?
5NM and 3000'AGL
77
Unless authorized for a special operation, or if the aircraft you are flying has a higher minimum safe airspeed, all aircraft must comply with what speed limits?
250kts or less below 10,000 ft
200kts or less below 3000 feet and within 10NM of a controlled airport
Unless cleared faster in an ATC clearance
78
Eastbound traffic (000-179 degrees track) should fly at what altitudes?
Odd altitudes
79
Westbound traffic (180-359 degrees track) should fly at what altitudes?
Even altitudes
80
What are the requirements to operate VFR in Class A airspace?
Generally you cannot operate VFR in Class A airspace unless the aircraft is operated in accordance with an authorization issued by the Minister.
81
A commercial pilot operating an aircraft under the air taxi rules must have completed. . .. . take offs and landings within the preceding. . . . . days?
3 take-offs and 3 landings in the previous 90 days [703.88(1)(b)]
82
A flight crew member's flight duty time shall not exceed …. consecutive hours in any …. consecutive hours?
700.27 (1) An air operator shall not assign flight time to a flight crew member, and a flight crew member shall not accept such an assignment, if the member’s total flight time will, as a result, exceed
(a) 112 hours in any 28 consecutive days;
(b) 300 hours in any 90 consecutive days;
(c) 1,000 hours in any 365 consecutive days; or
(d) in the case of a single-pilot operation, 8 hours in any 24 consecutive hours.
83
Define a reportable aviation incident
The aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off weight greater than 2 250 kg, or of an aircraft being operated under an air operator certificate issued under Part VII of the Canadian Aviation Regulations - examples of an incident - crew member declares an emergency, problems controlling the aircraft, engine failure, unexpected depressurization. [AIM - GEN 3.3 - Reporting an Aviation Occurrence]
84
Define a reportable aviation accident
A person is killed or sustains a serious injury,the aircraft sustains structural failure or damage that adversely affects the aircraft's structural strength, the aircraft is missing or inaccessible. [AIM - GEN 3.3 - Reporting an Aviation Occurrence]
85
In order to act as PIC of a single engine aircraft for an air taxi service under night VFR
without passengers a commercial pilot must have?
Comptency Check [723.88(2)Competency Check]
86
In order to act as PIC of a two-crew aircraft the pilot must have?
ATPL [401.34(1)(a)]
87
The minimum VFR weather requirements to enter Class G airspace above 1 000 feet AGL
at night is?
Flight Visibility 3 miles, Distance from Cloud 2000' horizontal and 500' vertical [TCAIM 2.7.3 Control Zones Table 2.2 - VFR Weather Minima]
88
A commercial pilot (age 30) completed a CAT 1 medical exam on February 13, 2001. It
was issued on March 21, 2001. When is the last day this pilot can rent an aircraft and
take a friend on a local flight?
March 1st 2006, it requires PPL privileges to rent an aircraft and fly with a friend, for a pilot under 40 years old the validity period of the medical is 60 months or 5 years. Even after the Category 1 medical expires, the holder can still use the medical for PPL privileges within the validity period. Medical expire on the 1st day of the following month that they were issued in. [404.4(6)]
89
What is the federal law that governs operations such as airport zoning regulations, Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, Civil Aviation Tribunals etc…
Aeronautics Act of 1985
90
Which section of the CAR's includes things such as documents and administration?
Part I - General
91
Which section of the CAR's includes information about the registration of aircraft including selling or leasing. It also discusses the required aircraft markings?
Part II - Aircraft Identification and Registration
92
Which section of the CAR's includes everything that has to do with airports and aerodromes. This includes certification, winter operations, emergency services, lighting and more?
Part III - Aerodromes, Airports and Heliports
93
Which section of the CAR's includes the requirements to obtain and maintain a licence or rating. The privileges of a licence or rating. It also details information about the medical requirements and flight training organizations?
Part IV - Personnel Licensing and Training
94
Which section of the CAR's includes details the information as it pertains to the airworthiness of an aircraft. This includes flight permits, foreign flight authority, noise compliance, the certificate of airworthiness etc?
Part V - Airworthiness
95
Which section of the CAR's is a large section that discusses a large variety of topics as they relate to the operation of the aircraft. Such topics include weather minimums, altitude orders, flight planning, and required equipment?
Part VI - General operating and Flight Rules
96
Which section of the CAR's includes regulations as they pertain to operating an aircraft for money. There are several categories of operation such as Air Taxi and Airline?
Part VII - Commercial Air Services
97
Which section of the CAR's includes details of the regulations behind Air Traffic Control and the services they provide?
Part VIII - Air Navigation Services
98
Which section of the CAR's includes information about operating a drone. This is a relatively new section and one in which you will be familiar with if you are licensed to operate a drone.
Part IX - Remotely Piloted Aircraft Systems
99
Which section of the CAR's includes information about aviation and greenhouse gas emissions. It includes reporting, obligations and data monitoring?
Part X - Greenhous Gas Emissions
100
Transport Canada issues what? to help the civil aviation community understand how to comply with current regulations and standards in aviation.
Advisory Circulars. They DO NOT supersede any of the regulations, just provide more context and allow users to better follow the intention behind the regulations.
101
102
What are T-Routes?
T-Routes: Low-level controlled fixed RNAV routes
103
What primary and secondary obstacle protection is provided by T-Routes?
4 NM of primary obstacle protection area, plus 2 NM of secondary obstacle protection area on each side of the centreline.
104
What are Q-Routes?
Q?routes are available for use by RNAVequipped aircraft between 18,000 feet MSL andFL 450 inclusive. Q?routes are depicted on EnrouteHigh Altitude Charts.
105
What is a Control Zone?
Found around controlled airports, with standard dimensions of surface to 3000’AGL and 3, 5, or 7NM radius. These can be class B, C, D, or E.
106
What type of airspace would you expect to find at high volume airports?
Terminal Control Area (TCA)
107
What is the definition of a Transition Area?
Transition areas are established when it is considered advantageous or necessary to provide additional controlled airspace for the containment of IFR operations.
108
What is the lowest limit of a Transition Area?
700' AGL
109
What does the designation CYR and CYA mean for Restricted Airspace?
CYR=Restricted CTA=Advisory
110
What is the VFR Minima for controlled airspace?
In sight of the ground, 3SM visibility, 1SM horizontally from clouds and 500' vertically from clouds.
111
What is the VFR Minima for uncontrolled airspace?
Below 1000' AGL 2SM and clear of clouds. Above 1000'AGL 3SM visibility 2000' Horizontally and 500' vertically from clouds.
112
Can you fly VFR in Class A airspace if you have an ATC clearance?
NO, Class A is IFR only.
113
In which airspace is a transponder required?
All class A,B and C
114
Is a transponder required when entering class D airspace?
Yes, if it is specified as transponder airspace in the designated airspace handbook.
115
If you are operating above 18000 feet IFR, what transponder code should you be using if you have not been assigned one by ATC?
2000
116
If you are operating below 18000 feet IFR, what transponder code should you be using if you have not been assigned one by ATC?
1000
117
What are the two common VFR squawk codes in Canada, and why are there two?
1200 at or below 12,500' and 1400 when flying above 12,500'
118
119
IFR pilots, and if asked to do so, VFR pilots, must read back all clearances received by ATC except?
Where the clearance is received and acknowledged electronically or
When the clearance is received on the ground and contains a SID. In this case just the transponder code and the name of the standard departure are required in the read back.
120
Assuming no ATC speed authorizations, what are the speed limitations and associated altitudes that aircraft must comply with?
250kts below 10,000' and 200kts below 3000' and within 10NM of an airport.
121
What are the cruising altitudes for eastbound traffic?
Eastbound traffic (000-179 degrees track) fly at Odd altitudes for IFR and Odd altitudes +500' for VFR
122
What are the crusing altitudes for westbound traffic?
Westbound traffic (180-359 degrees track) fly at Even altitudes for IFRand Even altitdes +500' for VFR
123
What is the difference between crusing altitudes between the Northern and Southern domestic airspace?
Crusing altitude tracks in the Southern domestic airspace are based on Magnetic Track, but they are based on True track in the North.
124
What equipment is required for ALLpower driven aircraft (excluding ultralights)?
Checklists and placards for normal, abnormal, and emergency operation
Current charts applicable to the type of operation (IFR, Night VFR, VFR OTT)
Current database for any navigation equipment requiring it to be used
A readily available, hand held fire extinguisher in the cockpit
A time piece for each crew member
A flashlight for each crew member if flying at night
A first aid kit
125
While there are some exceptions of when these need to be carried (see CAR 602.61) Survival equipment required must be suitable for the type of geography operated over, and must contain, for everyone on board, a means of?
Starting a fire
Providing shelter
Purifying water
Signalling distress
126
When must life preservers be on-board?
Taking off or landing from water
Operating further than gliding distance from shore
More than 50NM from shore
127
When must life rafts be carried?
100nm or 30 mins cruising (whichever is less) from a suitable landing site for single engine aircraft, or multi engine aircraft unable to maintain flight in the event one fails
200nm or 60 mins cruising (whichever is less) from a suitable landing site for multi engine aircraft able to maintain flight on one engine
400nm or 120 mins cruising (whichever is less) from a suitable landing site for Transport category aircraft
128
129
For a flight plan, assuming that the light details, the contents of which are specified in the CFS, filed with the appropriate ATC, FSS, or Community Aerodrome Radio Station (CARS). Search and rescue protocols will be initiated when the flight is how long overdue?
1 hour overdue.
130
For a flight itenrary, assuming that the contents of which are specified in the CFS, given to and receipt acknowledged by a responsible person, ATC, FSS, or CARS. Search and rescue protocols will be initiated after?
24 hours overdue.
131
When is it required to file a flight plan or flight itinerary?
When operating farther than 25NM from the departure airport.
132
Do you need a flight plan if you are flying to a different country?
Yes
133
When would IFR aircraft not be required to file an arrival report?
When landing under an IFR flight plan at an airodrome with an active ATC tower.
134
What are the Day VFR fuel requirements?
Fly to the destination and then a period of 30 minutes at normal cruise
135
What are the Night VFR fuel requirements?
Fly to the destination and then a period of 45 minutes at normal cruise
136
When operating in uncontrolled airspace away from any airport, monitoring and making position reports on which frequency?.
126.7
137
What are the requirements to operate under a Special VFR Clearance (SVFR)?
Visibility: ? 1sm
Clear of cloud
During the day (Approved during the night for landing only)
Equipped with a radio
Must be requested by the pilot.
138
What are the requirements to operate VFR On Top (VFR OTT)?
Vertical distance of 1000' from cloud
5000' between layers
Flight visibility of ? 5sm
Forecast @ destination:
Ceiling: Scattered or better
Visibility: ? 5sm
No precipitation or thunderstorms
If the forecast at the destination is based on:
TAF: Then 1 hour before & 2 hours after
GFA: Then 1 hour before and 3 hours after
139
When planning to fly VFR OTT, what is the minumum destination forecast?
Forecast @ destination:
Ceiling: Scattered or better
Visibility: ? 5sm
No precipitation or thunderstorms
If the forecast at the destination is based on:
TAF: Then 1 hour before & 2 hours after
GFA: Then 1 hour before and 3 hours after
140
VFR Weather Minima - Flight Visibility - Controlled Airspace?
Greater or Equal to 3sm
141
VFR Weather Minima - Flight Visibility - Control Zone?
Greater or Equal to 3sm
142
VFR Weather Minima - Flight Visibility - Control Zone under SVFR?
Greater or Equal to 1sm
143
VFR Weather Minima - Flight Visibility - Uncontrolled Airspace <1000 AGL?
1sm Day and 3sm Night
144
VFR Weather Minima - Flight Visibility - Uncontrolled Airspace >1000 AGL?
2sm Day and 3sm Night
145
VFR Weather Minima - Distance From Cloud - Controlled Airspace?
1sm Horizontally and 500' Vertically
146
VFR Weather Minima - Distance From Cloud - Control Zone?
1sm Horizontally and 500' Vertically
147
VFR Weather Minima - Distance From Cloud - Control Zone under SVFR?
Not applicable
148
VFR Weather Minima - Distance From Cloud - Uncontrolled Airspace <1000 AGL?
Clear of cloud.
149
VFR Weather Minima - Distance From Cloud - Uncontrolled Airspace >1000 AGL?
2000' Horizontally and 500' vertically.
150
When operating in controlled airspace, you experience a communication failure. What should you do?
Leave the airspace by the quickest means possible.
Where the airspace is a control zone, exiting the airspace can be by landing at the aerodrome.
In any other case, by the shortest route.
If the aircraft is equipped with a transponder, set the transponder code to 7600.
Inform an air traffic control unit as soon as possible of actions taken.
151
What is the ADIZ?
Air Defence Identification Zone
152
To operate an aircraft in Canadian airspace there must be flight authority.
You must operate the aircraft with that flight authority, meaning the aircraft you are flying must be authorized to fly in Canadian Airspace. What are the three flight authorities?
Certificate of Airworthiness (Certified Aircraft)
Flight Permit (Experimental Aircraft)
Flight Permit (Ferry Permit)
153
What are the supplimental oxygen requirements for cabin altitudes between 10,000 and 13,000 feet? Sepcifically for flights of a duration longer than 30 minutes.
Oxygen must be available to all crew and 10% of the passengers. For flights exceeding 30 minutes, the crew MUST wear oxygen masks for the entire duration of the flight. (605.32 (1))
154
What are the supplimental oxygen requirements for cabin altitudes above 13,000 feet.
For cabin altitudes above 13,000 feet there must be oxygen for the entire duration for all crew and passengers. All crew and passengers must be wearing oxygen masks for the entire duration of flight above 13,000 feet.
155
Under what normal flight conditions is wearing an oxygen mask mandatory for pilots?
Between 10,000 and 13,000 cabin altitude for more flights longer than 30 minutes, Above FL250 if the aircraft does not have quick donning oxygen masks and any time while at or above FL450.
156
What frequencies do ELT's transmit on?
121.5, 243 or 406 MHz.
157
Why are piklots strongly encouraged to update their ELTs from the older 121.5Mhz units to the newer 406MHz units?
Position information from a 406 MHz ELT is calculated and relayed to the appropriate joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC) for action. The 406 MHz beacon is associated with a unique user; therefore, identification is rapid and resolution of a false alarm may only require a few phone calls. In addition, activation of a 406 MHz ELT is detected by satellites, whereas, a 121.5 MHz signal relies on the aircraft being within the range of an air traffic service (ATS) facility or another aircraft passing by at high altitude.
158
When can ELTs be tested?
ELTs may be tested for serviceability by activating them while listening to the broadcast during the first 5 minutes of every hour for not more than 5 seconds. The 406 ELT must be tested as per the manufacturer instructions. If you inadvertently activate an ELT you must first deactivate it and inform the nearest ATC, FSS, or CARs as soon as feasible.
159
Aircraft Maintenance Requirements -No person shall operate an aircraft unless:
Aircraft is maintained in accordance with airworthiness limitations, in that the aircraft meets the requirements of any Airworthiness Directives (AD) issued by manufacturer for the purpose of notifying owners of unsafe conditions.
160
What must an aircraft have after non-elementry work has been carried out before it can legaly be flown?
A signed maintenance release. When the release is conditional on a flight test the aircraft can be operated for the purpose of the flight test provided no passengers are on board. Results of the flight test shall be recorded in the journey log, if successful that entry completes the maintenance release.
161
When does aircraft mainenance not require a signed maintenance release?
When the work done falls under the definition of elementary maintenance.
162
What must a flight training device have before it can be used towards any flight training?
A certifcate issued by the Minister.
163
What CAR lays out the rules for a foreign operator or a foreign state aircraft to operate in Canada?
701 - Foreign Air Operations
164
What CAR subpart involves aircraft operating for the purposes of things such as aerial survey, parachuting operations, towing, and aerial application?
702 - Aerial Work Operations.
165
Which CAR deals with Commuter Operations encompasses sightseeing or air transport services using turbo-jet powered aircraft under 50,000lbs maximum zero fuel weight, and propeller aircraft under 19,000lbs maximum takeoff weight and seating between 10 and 19 passengers inclusive?
704 - Commuter Operations
166
Which CARs subpart encompasses sightseeing or air transport services in single engine aircraft, and multi engine aircraft, excluding turbo-jet, with a maximum takeoff weight of 19,000lbs or less and seating of 9 or less?
703 - Air Taxi Operations
167
Which CAR deals with airline operations including sightseeing and air transport services using any aircraft with a maximum takeoff weight of more than 19,000lbs or seating of 20 or more passengers.?
705 - Airline Operations
168
Which subpart details the requirements for aircraft maintenance and applied to every subpart in part VII of the CARs ?
706 - Maintenance requirements for air operators
169
What is the definition of a Flight Crew Member On Reserve?
A flight crew member who has been designated by an air operator to be available to report for flight duty on notice of more than one hour.
170
What is the definition of Reserve Availability Period?
The period in any period of 24 consecutive hours during which a flight crew member on reserve is available to report for flight duty.
171
What is the definition of Late Duty?
Hours of work that end between midnight and 01:59 at the location where the flight crew member is acclimatized.
172
What is the definition of Night Duty?
Hours of work that begin between 13:00 and 01:59 and that end after 01:59 at a location where the flight crew member is acclimatized.
173
What is the definition of Minimum Rest Period?
A period during which a flight crew member is free from all duties, is not interrupted by the air operator or private operator, and is provided with an opportunity to obtain not less than eight consecutive hours of sleep in suitable accommodation, time to travel to and from that accommodation and time for personal hygiene and meals.
174
What is the definition of Local Nights Rest?
A rest period of at least nine hours that takes place between 22:30 and 09:30 at the location where the flight crew member is acclimatized.
175
What is the maximum duty time allowed in 365 consecutive days?
1,200 hours.
176
What is the maximum duty time allowed in 90 consecutive days?
300 hours.
177
What is the maximum duty time allowed in 30 consecutive days?
120 hours.
178
What is the maximum duty time allowed for single pilot IFR in 24 consecutive hours?
8 hours.
179
What is the maximum duty time in a 24 hour period?
14 hours.
180
Prior to a duty period the operator must provide the minimum rest period, in addition to time with no assigned duties that meets either:
36 consecutive hours in 7 days OR 3 calendar days in 17 days
181
An operator can extend the duty time of a crew member by one half of the rest period given up to a maximum of 3 hours under what conditions?
•The crew member is notified of the split duty day prior to starting the duty period
•The rest period is a minimum of 4 hours in suitable accommodation
•The flight crew member’s rest period is extended by the amount of time the duty period was extended
182
Duty time may be extended by up to 3 hours if all of these conditions are met:
•The PIC consults with all the crew and agrees it is safe to do so
•The unforeseen circumstance must happen after the start of the duty period
•The next minimum rest period is extended by the amount of time the duty was extended
•The PIC notifies the Private operator of the reason for and the length of the extension
