Facts Flashcards

Question

Foetal Haemoglobin

Answer 1

remains high after birth until the baby is roughly 2-4 months old. This means sickle cell anaemia isn’t noticed til a few months after birth. This is due to the foetal haemoglobin having a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin so the baby can still reach the same level of demand despite possibly having anaemia.

Answer 2

the hydrolysis of cytosine into uracil.This is due to the removal of the amine group. 5-methylcytosine can undergo deamination to become thymine.

Answer 3

Transition is change to the same type of base purine to purine (A to G) and pyrimidine to pyrimidine (C to T). Trans version is a change to an alternative base type. (A to T and G to C).

Answer 4

• Gene product - (change in amino acid)

Answer 5

• Amount of gene product

Answer 6

• Polypeptide length

Answer 7

occurs in a repetitive area where are newly synthesised strand loops out. A nucleotide is added on the new strand. It can also occur on the template strand which results in one less nucleotide on the new strand as it isn’t read as it has bulged out. This can lead to a trinucleotide expansion causing diseases like Huntington’s.

Answer 8

the gain of a haploid set of chromosomes for instance triploidy - 69. Most common cause is polyspermy.

Answer 9

the loss or gain of whole chromosomes (trisomy or monosmy caused by meiotic non disjunction) For example Down syndrome - chromosome 21 trisomy or Turner syndrome - one of the sex chromosomes is missing 45 X

Answer 10

presence of two or more cell lines in an individual caused by mitotic non-disjunction.

Answer 11

occurs when the chromatids fail to separate from another leading to monosomy or trisomy

Answer 12

Balanced - when 2 chromosomes swap a piece of chromosomal material. No DNA has been lost. This can occur between any 2 chromosomes. This person is still healthy. Unbalanced - when 2 chromosomes swap information and the person receives an unequal amount of one chromosome. This means they have lost DNA. The larger the imbalance the more likely there will be a miscarriage. The baby if survives could be born with birth defects

Answer 13

Only occurs between the acrocentric chromosomes (13,14,15,21,22). 2 acrocentric chromosomes get stuck together. This results in aneupoldy. Females have a higher risk than males.

Answer 14

corrects deamination. The uracil is detected and removed leading to a base-less nucleotide. The baseless nucleotide is removed leaving a hole in the DNA backbone. The hole is filled with the correct base by DNA polymerase and the gap is sealed by ligase.

Answer 15

corrects thymine dimers created by UV radiation. Once it is detected the surrounding DNA is opened to form a bubble. Enzymes cut away the damaged region. A DNA polymerase replaced the removed DNA and ligase seals the backbone.

Answer 16

cuts the mismatch area including the mismatch neighbours and removes them by exonuclease. The missing areas is replaced by DNA polymerase and ligase seals the DNA backbone.

Answer 17

not error-free but not error-prone. Relatively simple as the other strand is used to replicate the missing section.

Answer 18

The broken ends are recognised by proteins and protected. A complex forms and damaged ends are removed. The broken ends are then ligated together. Thus is error prone.

Answer 19

uses the other set of DNA in the chromosome to replicate the missing section

Answer 20

``` caused by trauma to one compartment. This can lead to internal bleeding increasing the pressure in one compartment which exerts pressure on another compartment, skin and nerves. This is because muscles are found in compartments separated by fascia. This causes: • Deep constant pain • Paresthesia • Compartment feeling firm and tight • Swollen, red and shiny. ```

Answer 21

shows hypertrophic growth. This means that the number of muscle cells stays the same but the size of the cells increases

Answer 22

ATP attaches to the myosin head which causes the cross bridge to detach. ATP hydrolysed to ADP and Pi cocking the head. Myosin cross bridge attaches to the actin filament. Working stroke - the myosin head pivots and bends as it pulls on the actin filament sliding it towards the midline. A new ATP binds repeating the cycle.

Answer 23

* Adjacent arteries pulsing * Skeletal muscle movement * Pressure changes in the thorax during breathing

Answer 24

* Multiple afferent lymphatic vessels that enter via the convex surface. * A single efferent lymphatic vessel leaves through the concave hilum. * Each lymph node has a feeding artery and draining vein that also enter and leave via the hilum. * Dendritic cells are located in germinal centres and when they detect an antigen causes proliferation of B cells. These can then activate T cells.

Answer 25

* As lymph nodes fight an infection the germinal centres fill with lymphocytes which causes swelling. * Cancers can metastasise to lymph nodes causing swelling * Lymphoma is a cancer originating in the lymph nodes.

Answer 26

maturation of bone marrow derived stem cells into immunocompetent T cells changes in Thymus associated with myasthenia gravis.

Answer 27

Red pulp - filters blood, white pulp - immune systems -Immune functions - antigen presentation by APC Activation of B and T cells Removal of macro molecular antigens -Haemopoietic functions - Removal and destruction of old, damaged erythrocytes and platelets Retrieval of iron from erythrocyte protein Erythrocyte storage

Answer 28

Prevents pathogen ingress through nasal or oral routes prevents ingress though aural routes Crytps increase surface area.

Answer 29

prevents ingress through GI route prevents ingress arriving from the ileum crypts increase surface area

Answer 30

prevents pathogen ingress though digestion

Answer 31

* Multiple cell types * Contains 2 fibres - collagen and elastin * Gel like ground substance ``` Functions • Hold vessels that supply fluids • Permit cell migration • Involved in inflammation • Packs organs • Hold things in place • Insulted and cushions organs ``` Located beneath epithelia

Answer 32

• Fibroblasts • Col 1 in all direction • Resits stress in all directions Deep layer of dermis

Answer 33

• Fibroblasts • Col 1 parallel • Resists stress in one direction Tendons and Ligaments

Answer 34

causes diarrhoea by inhibiting the action of GTPase which breaks down the G alpha S complex. As there is more of type complex adenylyl cyclase is activated more and will convert ATP to cyclic AMP. This causes stimulation of the CFTR transporter in the small intestines which moves chloride ions into the lumen. This causes water to follow by osmosis into the lumen increasing the amount of water in your stool causing diarrhoea.

Answer 35

Severe reaction to anaesthetics such as succinylcholine Shows an autosomal dominant pattern Massive contractile fasciculation Muscle rigidity caused by excessive Calcium release Outcome is excessive heat and metabolic acidosis Muscle breakdown and hyperkalaemia

Answer 36

Physical dependence relates to experiencing the associated side effects from withdrawal from the substance. Psychological dependence involves feelings of satisfaction and desire to repeat the use of the drug in order to produce pleasure and avoid pain.

Answer 37

the proportion of those invited who take up the invitation to participate

Answer 38

the proportion of eligible population who have been screened within a given time.

Answer 39

The extent to which a persons behaviour - taking medication, following a diet and/or executing lifestyle changes - corresponds with agreed recommendations from the healthcare provider

Answer 40

* Failing to pick up a prescription or repeat prescription * Stopping medication before the course is complete * Taking more or less of the medication than prescribed * Taking medication at the wrong time, missing doses etc. * Taking some but not all of the medication * Patients may also fail to adhere to treatment recommendations other than medication e.g. lifestyle changes

Answer 41

health benefits forgone (poor health-related quality of life, increased hospitalisations and premature mortality) wider economic burden (personal, health and social cost).

Answer 42

Patients want to follow their treatment but are prevented | from doing so by barriers outside of their control

Answer 43

The person decides not to follow the treatment regime based on their beliefs, attitudes and expectations

Answer 44

Educating patient on the medicine to But these interventions don’t address intentional non-adherence increase their knowledge Simplifying the regimen Making it easier to remember to use the medicine (physical aids and reminders)

Answer 45

when care is limited. The decisions and basis of decisions are justified by defined rules of entitlement. Technical processes and political processes.

Answer 46

When care is limited. The allocation of resources are taken through individual clinical decisions without a set criteria. This can lead to inequalities as could be based on social deservingness.

Answer 47

Transparent, accountable Opportunity for debate More clearly evidence-based More opportunities for equity in decision-making

Answer 48

``` Very complex Heterogeneity of patients and illnesses Patient and professional hostility Impact on clinical freedom Some evidence of patient distress ```

Answer 49

. To give a better outcome compared with finding something in the usual way (having symptoms and self- reporting to health services) • If treatment can wait until there are symptoms, there is no point in screening • Finding something earlier is not the primary objective

Answer 50

1. Condition 2. Test 3. Intervention 4. Screening programme 5. Implementation

Answer 51

It needs to be an important health problem with epidemiology, incidence, prevalence and natural history understood. All cost effective primary preventions have been implemented

Answer 52

Simple, safe, precise and validated Agreed cut off level Acceptable to public Agreed policy for further diagnostic investigation

Answer 53

Evidence that intervention at pre-symptomatic phase leads to better outcomes. Good evidence based policies covering which individuals should receive intervention

Answer 54

Proved effectiveness in reducing mortality and morbidity Clinically, socially and ethically acceptable Benefits outweigh harms

Answer 55

All of other options for managing the condition have been considered Management of monitoring programme Adequate staffing and facilities Evidence based information available for internet participants

Answer 56

Environmental cues have connection with behaviour. Avoid cues and change association of cue with behaviour Pair behaviour with unpleasant response

Answer 57

Act on environment and behaviour shaped by consequences | Behaviour is reinforced if rewarded or a punishment is removed

Answer 58

Classical and operant conditioning based on simple stimulus-response associations No account of cognitive processes, knowledge, beliefs, memory, attitudes, expectations etc. No account of social context

Answer 59

Behaviour is goal related People are motivated to perform behaviours if they are valued and believe they can do it Modelling more effective if models are if high status or are like us Influenced by peers, family and media figures

Answer 60

Discomfort when hold inconsistent beliefs or actions/events don’t match beliefs – Reduce discomfort by changing beliefs or behaviour – Health promotion: • providing health information (usually uncomfortable) creates mental discomfort and can prompt change in behaviour

Answer 61

Beliefs about health treat - perceived susceptibility - perceived severity Beliefs about health related behaviour - perceived benefits Cues to Action - perceived barriers

Answer 62

. Attitude towards behaviour . Subjective norm . Perceived control Leads to intention Leads to action

Answer 63

Physical and psychological capability | Knowledge, skill, strength, stamina

Answer 64

Reflective amp automatic | Plans, evaluations, desires, impulses

Answer 65

Physical and social opportunity | Time, resources, cues and prompts

Answer 66

• Outcomes assumed to be equivalent • Focus is on costs (i.e. only the inputs) • Not often relevant as outcomes rarely equivalent • Possible example: – Say all prostheses for hip replacement improve mobility equally. Choose the cheapest one.

Answer 67

• Used to compare drugs or interventions which have a common health outcome e.g. reduction in blood pressure • Compared in terms of cost per unit outcome e.g. cost per reduction of 5mm/Hg • If costs are higher for one treatment, but benefits are too, need to calculate how much extra benefit is obtained for the extra cost • Key question: Is extra benefit worth extra cost?

Answer 68

* All inputs and outputs valued in monetary terms * Can allow comparison with interventions outside healthcare * Methodological difficulties e.g. putting monetary value on non-monetary benefits such as lives saved * “Willingness to pay” often used, but this is also problematic

Answer 69

* Particular type of cost effectiveness analysis * Cost utility analysis focuses on quality of health outcomes produced or foregone * Most frequently used measure is quality adjusted life year (QALY) * Interventions can be compared in cost per QALY terms We are going to look more closely at QALYs…

Answer 70

The bulid up of certain fatty substances in organs particularly the spleen and liver. It causes them to enlarge and this affects their function. It can also occur in bone tissue causing them to become weaker and fracture easier.

Answer 71

Planar Stereoisomerism Bonds either side are free to rotate Rigid

Answer 72

Growth signal received - fibroblast growth factor Proliferation of daughter cells occurs and extracellular protein degrades enzyme produced Central cells die off through apoptosis to produce a duct

Answer 73

Growth signal received - fibroblast growth factor Proliferation of daughter cells occurs and extracellular protein degrades enzyme produced Production of angiogenic factors to stimulate blood vessel growth in and around the tissue Link to mother cells broken through apoptosis

Answer 74

In thyroid follicles, production of colloid between epithelial cells causes expansion of follicle into a sphere

Answer 75

Weeks 5 and 6

Answer 76

Line certain internal tubes which open to the exterior GI Tract, respirator tract and urinary tract Bear mucus secretion cells - goblet Carries blood and lymphatic vessels and nerves

Answer 77

Thin, two part membrane which lines certain closed cavities and envelop the viscera. The peritoneum Pleural sacs Pericardial sac Secrete watery lubricating fluid Simple squamous cells Carries blood and lymphatic vessels and nerves

Answer 78

Vellus - short thin and covers most of your body hair on arms Terminal - thick long - vellus replaced by terminal in puberty Hair on head, pubic hair Lanugo - covers the developing foetus

Answer 79

Thermoregulation Sexual attraction Sensation Protection

Answer 80

Intrinsic and extrinsic pathways cause the activation of factor X. This causes thrombin activation which causes the formation of a fibrin clot. This occurs by thrombin converted fibrinogen into fibrin

Answer 81

Localisation of prothrombin - dilution of clotting factors by blood flow and removal by liver Digestion of factors by proteases Factor Va and 8a degraded by protein C

Answer 82

Plasminogen - inactive precursors - are activated by streptokinase anf t-PA to produce plasmin. This converts fibrin into fibrin fragments.

Answer 83

Carbohydrates - source of monosaccharides Protein - source of amino acids Lipids - essential fatty acids, reduced bulk of diet Water - replaces lost water Fibre - essential for normal function of GI tract Vitamins - prevents deficiencies

Answer 84

``` Isoleucine Lysine Threonine Valine Phenylalanine Tryptophan Leucine Histidine Methionine ```

Answer 85

Linoleic acid and linolenic acid

Answer 86

Collagen Calcium hydroxyapatite Sodium hydroxyapatite

Answer 87

Liver mitochondria

Answer 88

Acetoacetate Acetone Beta hydroxybutyrate

Answer 89

Less than 1mM

Answer 90

Acetylcholine Co-A is converted into HMG-CoA by synthase. That is then converted into acetoacetate by lyase. It then can become acetone or beta hydroxybutyrate.

Answer 91

Insulin to glucagon ratio is high. Lyase is inhibited and reductase is activated so cholesterol is synthesised instead of ketone bodies.

Answer 92

When insulin to glucagon ratio is low. Lyase is activated, reductase is inhibited. Ketone body synthesised.

Answer 93

Water soluble Volatile acetone may be excreted via the lungs Acetoacetate and beta hydroxybutyrate are relatively strong organic can lead to ketoacidosis. Above renal threshold so excreted in the urine - ketonuria

Answer 94

DDR defect Mutated gene Syndrome Cancer predisposition

Answer 95

Chemotherapy is applied. One clone may be susceptible to the chemotherapy. The other clone may not be. This means it can reproduce and grow as there is no competition with other clones.

Answer 96

When chemotherapy is applied a mutation occurs creating a new clone. This develops and grows to form a tumour as it is resistant to chemotherapy.

Answer 97

Clever stratifies are put in place that if a cancer cell develops the healthy gene is knocked out so the cancer gene is the predominant gene. This causes cellular death.

Answer 98

To analyse clones Investigate gene structure - large deletions Investigate gene expansions, triplet repeats - Huntington’s To investigate mutations in genetic tests Investigate variation - DNA fingerprinting

Answer 99

DNA fragments are added to an agarose gel for electrophoresis. Transfer to more solid support like a nitrocellulose sheet by blotting. Addition of a fluorescent DNA probe will bind to the complementary sequence. An image is then created using an auto radiogram.

Answer 100

Probs dont align completely Less than 80% similarity with the DNA Don’t affect the position of the target sequence in the gel.

Answer 101

1000s of genes to be analysed simultaneously Contain single stranded oligonucleotides with sequence corresponding to coding regions of the genome attached to a solid support Changes in gene expression can be monitored.

Answer 102

Probes are made against particular DNA sequences and can be added to cells that have been isolated. It can light up chromosomes to show monosomy or trisomy.

Answer 103

Gel - a matrix that allows separation of the protein sample Buffer - maintains charge on the protein samples Power supply - generates charge difference across the gel Stain / detection - identify the presence of the separated proteins

Answer 104

``` Abolishes 2nd and 3rd structure Separates proteins based on size Ionic detergent breaks down non covalent interactions within proteins Slow - large Fast - small ```

Answer 105

Based on use of dideoxyneucleotides to terminate chain elongation Recognised by DNA polymerase as it has a 2 prime H on the ribose sugar. DNA molecules of increasing size are created with fluorescent molecule being the dideoxyneucleotides. Separated out by capillary electrophoresis Detect fluorescently labelled molecules.

Answer 106

Samples placed in wells at the negative electrode DNA moved towards the positive electrode Smallest samples move furthest DNA is visualised by staining with ethidium bromide

Answer 107

Electron transport coupled to ATP synthesis Electrons are transferred from NADH to FAD2H to molecular oxygen Energy is released to generate a proton gradient, Proton motive force. Energy from the dissipation of the proton motive force is coupled to the synthesis of ATP from ADP.

Answer 108

When [ATP] is high and [ADP] is low there is less substrate for ATP synthase. Concentration of H+ increases in the inter mitochondrial space. Prevents further H+ pumping - stops electron transport

Answer 109

Inhibitors like cyanide block electron transport as it prevents the acceptance of electrons by 02.

Answer 110

Uncouplers increase the permeability of the mitochondrial inner membrane to protons which dissipates the proton gradient reducing the proton motive force No drive for ATP synthesis

Answer 111

Requires soluble enzymes Energy coupling occurs directly through the formation of high energy bonds. Can occur in limited extent in absence of O2.

Answer 112

Schwann cells surround the axon Mesaxon membrane begins to wrap around the axon This squeezes the cytoplasm towards the outer surface Plasma membrane is consequently compacted to form myelin sheath.

Answer 113

Formation of new blood vessels Angioblast precursors in the bone marrow During embryonic development

Answer 114

Formation of new blood vessels from existing ones | Collateral arteries

Answer 115

FGF produced by mesenchymal cells causes pericytes to convert into smooth muscle cells. This process is slow and takes hours to days to form blood vessels

Answer 116

Twinned vessels from primary vessel Needs multiple growth factors Process is quick and takes minutes to hours to form.

Answer 117

``` Subcutaneous Intravenous Oral Intramuscular Rectal Sublingual ```

Answer 118

Physiological factors - GI length, drug lipophilicity, GI Physiology - blood flow, GI mobility, food/pH First Pass Metabolism - gut lumen may denature drugs, gut/liver have 2 main enzymes Phase 1 and 2 enzymes

Answer 119

Reduces availability of drug reaching the systemic circulation therefore affects therapeutic potential

Answer 120

Fraction of a defined dose which reaches the systemic circulation.

Answer 121

Drug molecule lipophilicity or hydrophilicity Degree of drug binding to plasma or other tissues and proteins - albumin

Answer 122

Smaller Vd means less penetration | Larger Vd means more penetration

Answer 123

Cytochrome P450 enzymes | These are versatile generalists which metabolise a large range of molecules.

Answer 124

Carried out by hepatic enzymes Mainly cytosolic Generalists but are more rapid

Answer 125

Age Sex General health

Answer 126

Concurrent administration of certain drugs can inhibit specific CYP450 isozymes Inhibition can be competitive and non competitive Plasma levels increase Examples are grapefruit juice inhibits CYP 3A4

Answer 127

Through the kidneys

Answer 128

. Free drug enters the glomerular filtrate through the bowmans capsule . Active secretion of drugs through the proximal tubule. . Passive reabsorption of lipid soluble drug which has been concentrated so drug is higher in lumen so enters the perivascular space. . Lipid Insoluble drug into urine.

Answer 129

The volume of plasma that is completely cleared of the drug per unit of time

Answer 130

Hepatic clearance + renal clearance

Answer 131

The amount of time over which the concentration of a drug in plasma decreases to half of that of the original concentration.

Answer 132

Consists of one polypeptide chain that penetrates the membrane at least twice

Answer 133

Consists of more than one polypeptide chain - where one is anchored to the membrane

Answer 134

Into the cell from the extracellular space

Answer 135

Out of the cell

Answer 136

Into the cell

Answer 137

Out of the cell

Answer 138

Location - lowest layer of skin - subcutaneous layer Structure is mainly adipose tissue and loose connective Functions - provides energy store, shock absorber and acts as an insulator

Answer 139

Location - between epidermis and hypodermis Structure - 2 layers upper and lower Functions - contains hairs and sweat glands, contains sensory structures

Answer 140

Location - outermost layer of epithelial cells Structure - 4 or 5 layers, Held together by focal adhesions and desmosomes Functions - prevents water loss, prevents pathogen entry, synthesis of keratin

Answer 141

Stratum corneum Stratum lucidum - only soles of feet and palms of hands Stratum granulosum Stratum spinosum Stratum basale

Answer 142

* Outermost layer made of squames (dead keratinocytes) • Thick on palms and soles of feet – prone to injury * Continuously shed

Answer 143

• Stratified squamous epithelium • Lamellar granules (filament-associated proteins that assemble keratin fibrils and secrete it) • Tonofibrils (bundles of keratin filaments and keratohyalin granules) made by lamellar bodies

Answer 144

* Cuboidal epithelium arranged in 3 layers (held together by desmosomes) * Producers of lamellar bodies (keratohyalin factories)

Answer 145

• Tall columnar epithelial cells • Constantly renew keratinocytes by cell division • As daughter cells differentiate they move away from the epidermis-dermis junction • These make keratin filaments (tonofilaments) - They lose their ability to divide • Also home to the melanocytes – produce melanin

Answer 146

Occurs at intervals | Produces melanin the main pigment of the skin

Answer 147

Highly specialised capacity to present antigens to T lymphocytes and mediate a response.

Answer 148

Mechanoreceptor cells associated with sensory nerve endings

Answer 149

occurs when one characteristic is controlled by two or more genes

Answer 150

a consequence of an event during cell division where sister chromatids do not properly separate from each other because of improper spindle formation.

Answer 151

Ribosomal RNA Messenger RNA Transfer RNA

Answer 152

``` Transcription factor binds promoter. Binding is directional on the TATA box RNA polymerase is recruited Unwinding of DNA helix Formation of a transcription bubble Transcription initiates directionally 5’ to 3’ ```

Answer 153

RNA synthesis from 5’ to 3’ Template reads 3’ to 5’ Single stranded RNA molecule is made

Answer 154

Sequence dependent, other factors involved | Results in a primary RNA molecule

Answer 155

Post transcriptional modifications rRNA and tRNA have chemical modifications and cleaveage mRNA is capped, slipiced and tailed.

Answer 156

UAA, UAG, UGA

Answer 157

Recognition of cap by tRNA-Met | Recognition of the AUG anticodon

Answer 158

Another tRNA molecule moves to its complementary codon. A peptide bond forms and the first tRNA molecule leaves and another one comes .... Growing polypeptide pushed into exit tunnel

Answer 159

Release factor recognises the STOP codon Hydrolysis resulting in a free peptide and uncharted tRNA Dissociation of ribosome into subunits

Answer 160

RBCs Neutrophils Cells in the lens of the eye Cells in the kidney medulla

Answer 161

Lactate to pyruvate

Answer 162

Skeletal muscle and RBCs

Answer 163

Liver Kidneys Heart

Answer 164

Glycerol 3 phosphate dehydrogenase

Answer 165

Adipose tissue and liver

Answer 166

Used in triglycerides | Phospholipid biosynthesis

Answer 167

1,3 bisphosphoglycerate

Answer 168

Bisphosphoglycerate mutase

Answer 169

Regulator of Hb O2 affinity, promotes release of O2 from Hb

Answer 170

Kwashiorkor - unable to deal with protein rich food in large amounts due to down regulation of enzymes in urea cycle. This can lead to a build up of ammonia causing toxicity. This is why small amount of proteins need to be increased at regular intervals.

Answer 171

When a starving individual consumes large amounts of glucose there is a risk of increased insulin levels. Insulin causes potassium into the cell which causes hyperkalaemia which can cause arrhythmias.

Answer 172

Sections of DNA that move around the genome. If they insert themselves into a functional gene it could cause damage.

Answer 173

Binding of noradrenaline causes a conformational change to the GPCR. GPCR interacts with the G protein which causes GTP to displace GDP on the alpha G subunit Th complex separates and the alpha-GTP interacts with adenylyl cyclase to convert ATP into cAMP. cAMP binds to PKA. This increases Calcium concentration of cardiac muscles.

Answer 174

Mindfulness means paying attention on purpose, in the present moment, and in a non-judgemental way

Answer 175

Decreased levels of spectrin in the cytoskeleton of RBCs which then become round in shape.

Answer 176

Defective spectrin causes RBCs to become rugby ball shaped and become more prone lyse.

Answer 177

``` Education Spirituality Stress management Environment Nutrition Connectedness Exercise ```

Answer 178

``` Specific Measurable Attractive Realistic Timely ```

Answer 179

1 - found in fibrocartilage, bone, connective tissue 2 - found in cartilage 3 - found in lymph vessels, tissues 4 - found in basement membrane

Answer 180

Hydration of glycosaminoglycans

Answer 181

It is an a vascular tissue - no blood supply

Answer 182

Lines the medulla cavity

Answer 183

The dorsal root ganglia

Answer 184

Structures are on the same side

Answer 185

Structures are on opposite sides

Answer 186

Decreases angle between the moving part and the stationary part

Answer 187

Increases the angle with the moving part and stationary part

Answer 188

Takes structures away from the midline

Answer 189

Brings structures back towards the body

Answer 190

Facing upwards on your back

Answer 191

On your front back upwards

Answer 192

Foot points inwards

Answer 193

Foot points outwards

Answer 194

Foot points upwards

Answer 195

Foot points downwards

Answer 196

Prevent digestion by proteases and lipases

Answer 197

Ribosomes and RER

Answer 198

Precursors are made in the mitochondria and created in the SER.

Answer 199

Erythropoietin

Answer 200

Interleukins

Answer 201

Thrombopoietin

Answer 202

Thumb test

Answer 203

Wrist test

Answer 204

Depression that a chrondrocytes sits in

Answer 205

Epiphyses of femur slips downwards down the bone | Obesity, trauma, inflammation

Answer 206

Poor blood supply to the femur so the femur head cells die.

Answer 207

Loss of function

Answer 208

``` Protection and repair Vitamin D synthesis Sensation Absorption Temperature regulation ```

Answer 209

``` Age Sex Diet Smoking Ethnicity Exercise ```

Answer 210

Enzyme decreases over time. | Regulates bone mineralisation so bone density decreases.

Answer 211

Insulin level increase

Answer 212

Treats nerve gases and pesticide poisoning by blocking the mACh receptor which prevents excess ACh production.

Answer 213

``` Weight loss Heart palpitations Anxiety Muscle weakness Fatigue Hair loss ```

Answer 214

Propranolol binds to beta adrenoceptors and reduce heart rate and anxiety Thianomides which stop thyroid from producing excess hormones.

Answer 215

Higher drug absorption so more reaches the hepatic blood supply

Answer 216

Lower passage into the hepatic blood supply.

Answer 217

There is a decrease in concentration of the drug.

Answer 218

Treatment of GI reflux disease | Reduces stomach acid and treats heart burn and indigestion

Answer 219

Blood thinner | Anti coagulant

Answer 220

Treats high blood pressure | Angina and tachycardia

Answer 221

Increases it

Answer 222

Longer half life

Answer 223

The smallest distance at which 2 objects can be separated and still be distinguishable as 2 separate objects.

Answer 224

Surgical scraping done under local anaesthetics to remove a sample of cells - endometrial sample

Answer 225

Plastic tube with a sharp hollow needle which is inserted inside, twisted to get a sample - endometrial, kidney

Answer 226

Passing a small needle into a blood vessel.

Answer 227

Surgical specimen frozen to -20 to -30 degrees. This is then cut using a cryostat. Stained with h and e Sample is faster than if fixed

Answer 228

Antibody complementary to the protein is added. Then another antibody is added that is complementary to the previous antibody. This has an enzyme attached with converts a clear substance into a colourful product. The presence of the colour shows the protein is present. The sample must be washed each time to remove unattached antibodies.

Answer 229

An antibody complementary to the protein is added with a fluorescent tag. When light shines onto it it produces a signal.

Answer 230

Laser excites a fluorescent dye and electrons are raised to a higher level. As the electrons decrease back to their original level a light wave is emitted through mirrors and a pinhole which causes a sharp image when it reaches the detector.

Answer 231

Allows manipulation of the cells and experiments to determine the tissue function

Answer 232

Absolute control over the physical environment Homogeneity of sample Reduced need for animals

Answer 233

Hard to maintain Small amount grow at high cost Dedifferentiation can occur

Answer 234

Identifies most things

Answer 235

Red = keratin and muscle Blue or green = collagen or bone Brown or black = nucleus

Answer 236

Identifies anything with a glycocalyx

Answer 237

Focused beam of high energy electrons | These can pass through the body onto a receiver but some are absorbed or reflected

Answer 238

Quick Portable Cheap Simple

Answer 239

Radiation One plane - 2D Wont see all pathology

Answer 240

Constant stream of x rays to examine anatomy and motion Contrast - barium sulphide , iodine

Answer 241

Dynamic studies Cheap Interventional procedure

Answer 242

Radiation Clinical exposure must be minimised

Answer 243

Angiography Arthrograms Screening in theatres

Answer 244

Rotating gantry X ray tube on one side and the detector on the other Images put together by a computer

Answer 245

Quick Good spatial resolution Can scan most areas

Answer 246

Radiation Lower contrast resolution Affected by artefacts Overuse Requires breath to be held.

Answer 247

Radionuclides that decay by positron emission bind to glucose. PET camera detects where decay occurs. Larger signal more decay.

Answer 248

Performed instead of biopsy Low radiation dosage

Answer 249

Radiation exposure Expensive

Answer 250

Strong magnetic field aligns hydrogen atoms Some point upwards and som downwards Radio frequency pulse applied Unmatched ions absorb energy and rotate to the opposite direction Pulse is turned off so untaxed ions rotate back to their original position and release energy. Computer creates an image.

Answer 251

No radiation Good contrast resolution

Answer 252

Expensive Time consuming Loud Claustrophobic Need to lie still No metal

Answer 253

High frequency waves from transducer probe The sound wave is reflected back by tissue where density differs Probe detects reflected sound waves and a signal is created Can determine distance and density

Answer 254

Lack of ionising radiation Low cost Portable

Answer 255

Operator dependant No bone or gas penetration

Answer 256

It helps better differentiate tissues | Can allow motion to be detected

Answer 257

Barium sulphate Iodine

Answer 258

Day 20 in the occipital region

Answer 259

An epithelial cell or aggregate of epithelial cells that are specialised for the secretion of a substance

Answer 260

Intestinal

Answer 261

Urethra - male

Answer 262

Fibres and ground substance

Answer 263

Viscous clear substance - high water content | Composed of proteoglycans - large central protein with GAGs bound

Answer 264

Dark purple in h and e Striated Bilateral salivary gland Cells replaced by adipocytes

Answer 265

Mixed serous and mucous | Striated

Answer 266

Storage of vitamins Anabolism Catabolism Bile production

Answer 267

Varicosities release neurotransmitters which open gated calcium channels causing an influx. These bind to calmodulin to form calcium calmodulin complexes. This binds to MLCK where it allows phosphorylation of myosin so it can contract. It is then dephosphorylated by phosphatase and myosin becomes inactive again.

Answer 268

Specialised conducting fibres composed os electrically excitable cells. Lots of mitochondria

Answer 269

Tropomyosin coils around the actin filament reinforcing it Troponin complex attached to each tropomyosin Myosin heads extend towards filaments in regions of potential overlap When calcium binds to TnC of troponin a conformational change occurs This moves tropomyosin away from actin binding site. This allows the power stroke to occur.

Answer 270

Full of developing blood cells Rich blood supply Only found in spongy tissue

Answer 271

To replenish cells in the blood

Answer 272

Full of adipocytes | Poor blood supply

Answer 273

Shock absorber Energy source Can convert to red marrow

Answer 274

Liver or spleen

Answer 275

Enlarged as it needs to take up more cells as more are defective.

Answer 276

Biconcave No nucleus No mitochondria Anaerobic respiration

Answer 277

Erythroblasts start of with large nucleus | Gradually shrinks and is removed with the RNA present

Answer 278

Before the erythrocytes mature a small amount of RNA remains for the production of haemoglobin High number of these cells are present after blood loss.

Answer 279

Glycoprotein produced by the kidneys to increase levels of red blood cells. Produced in response tissue hypoxia.

Answer 280

Granules present in their cytoplasm Acts to mediate inflammatory reactions Release cytokines, interleukins which recruit other immune cells.

Answer 281

Multilobed nucleus Most abundant granulocyte Phagocytosis

Answer 282

Release histamine to trigger inflammation Purple granules Granules contain histamine and heparin

Answer 283

Fight parasitic worms | Red granules

Answer 284

Macrophage Phagocytosis Horse shoe shaped nuclei

Answer 285

Biconvex shape No nucleus Contains vast amount of proteins and clotting factors

Answer 286

Unregulated by liver | Formed form megakaryocytes

Answer 287

Revolves around production of antibodies Can activate T cells Mature in bone marrow and then move to intestine - peyers patches - spleen, lymph nodes.

Answer 288

Kills virus infected cells, cancerous cells and transplanted cells. Activate b cells to create antibodies Start in bone marrow but mature in the thymus

Answer 289

The difference in electric potential between the interior and exterior of the cell that is separated by the membrane.

Answer 290

Something that binds to a receptor

Answer 291

The degree to which a substance binds to another | Lower Kd = high affinity

Answer 292

The ability of a drug to have a desired effect

Answer 293

The concentration of a drug to give a desired effect | EC50 lower = higher potency

Answer 294

the drug’s ability to activate a receptor

Answer 295

Transports fatty acts-CoA Acetyl-CoA binds with carnitine to form acyl-carnitine which moves into the matrix of the mitochondria by the carnitine shuttle transporter where it combines with CoA to reproduce acetyl-CoA.

Answer 296

Malonyl CoA

Answer 297

Vitamin B5

Answer 298

Transfer the terminal phosphate from ATP to -OH group of some amino acids

Answer 299

Reverse effects of kinases by catalysing the hydrolytic removal of phosphoryl group form proteins

Answer 300

Inactive precursor molecules - zymogens Involves breakage of peptide bond - irreversible For examples - blood clotting

Answer 301

Inactive precursor molecules - enzymes | Trypsinogen

Answer 302

In muscle cells creatine + ATP is produced form creatine phosphate and ADP. When the concentration of ATP is high the drive for the synthesis of creatine phosphate increases. ATP can then be regenerated later. Small store of energy

Answer 303

1. Fatty acid derivatives 2. Hydroxy-methyl-glutaric derivatives 3. Vitamins

Answer 304

View chromosomes Stained metaphase chromosomes Actively dividing cells are needed.

Answer 305

pH is lower than pK value then the R group is protonated pH is higher than pK value then the R group is deprotonated

Answer 306

The pH at which there is no overall net charge

Answer 307

Basic proteins have a pI value higher than 7 | Acidic proteins have a pI value lower than 7

Answer 308

If the pH is lower than the pI it is protonated | If the pH is higher than the pI it is deprotonated

Answer 309

where other components are covalently linked to amino acids.

Answer 310

Aromatic | Aliphatic

Answer 311

Polarity Hydrophilic or phobic Acidic or basic

Answer 312

the sulphydryl groups on the cysteine amino acid are oxidised to form a sulfur to sulfur bond or a disulphides bond

Answer 313

they are important in the active site of many enzymes and are present and stabilise extracellular proteins such as albumin

Answer 314

the misfolded insoluble form of a normally soluble protein

Answer 315

To amplify a specific DNA fragment To investigate single base mutations To investigate small deletions or insertions To investigate variation

Answer 316

Amplification of a target DNA Temperature cycles of denature, anneal, polymerase. Pair of primers (forward and reverse) which define the region that is copied.

Answer 317

To determine if a gene is expressed - diet ti on of mRNA. | mRNA is converted back to cDNA by reverse transcriptase.

Facts Flashcards

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