FAR's Pt 1

Question 1

A certificate holder is notified that a person specifically authorized to carry a
deadly weapon is to be aboard an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long
before loading that flight should the air carrier be notified?
A) Notification is not required, if the certificate holder has a security
coordinator.
B A minimum of 1 hour.
C) A minimum of 2 hours.

Answer 1

B A minimum of 1 hour.

Question 2

When a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel is scheduled on a
flight, what procedures are required regarding boarding of this person and the
escort?
A) They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after
all the other passengers have left the aircraft.
B They shall be boarded after all other passengers board, and deplaned before
all the other passengers leave the aircraft.
C) They shall board and depart before the other passengers.

Answer 2

A) They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after
all the other passengers have left the aircraft.

Question 3

Which applies to the carriage of a person in the custody of law enforcement
personnel?
A) The air carrier is not allowed to serve beverages to the person in custody or
the law enforcement escort.
B) No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category
may be carried on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law
enforcement escorts.
C) The person in custody must be seated between the escort and the aisle,

Answer 3

B) No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category
may be carried on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law
enforcement escorts.

Question 4

When a passenger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that
an unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation
regarding this baggage?
A) The baggage may be carried in the flightcrew compartment, provided the
baggage remains locked, and the key is given to the pilot in command,
B) The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to
the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key.
C) The baggage must remain locked and stored where it would be inaccessible,
and custody of the key shall remain with a designated crewmember.

Answer 4

B) The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to
the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key.

Question 5

What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be
defined by the NTSBas a ‘serious injury’?
A) 72 hours; commencing within IO days after date of injury.
B 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
C) IO days, with no other extenuating circumstances,

Answer 5

B 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.

Question 6

Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when
an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage?
A) Immediately.
B 7 calendar days,
C 10 days.

Answer 6

A) Immediately.

Question 7

Which of the following constitutes *substantial damage according to NTSB Part
A) Ground damage to landing gear, wheels, or tires.
B Damage to wingtips (or rotor blades, in the case of a helicopter).
C) Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and
which would require replacement.

Answer 7

C) Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and
which would require replacement.

Question 8

Which of the following meets the requirements of a *serious injury as defined by
the NTSB?
A) A simple fracture of the nose or other extremity.
B An injury which caused severe tendon damage,
C) First-degree burns over 5 percent of the body,

Answer 8

B An injury which caused severe tendon damage,

Question 9

Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB?
A) Aircraft colliding on the ground.
B Flight control system malfunction.
C) Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed 510,000.

Answer 9

B Flight control system malfunction.

Question 10

Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident
file a report to the NTSB?
A) 3 days.
B 7 days.
C 10 days.

Answer 10

C 10 days.

Question 11

When is an operator of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident,
required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?
A) Within 7 days,
B Within 10 days.
C) Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

Answer 11

C) Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

Question 12

An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate
holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular
airport is not available is a/an:
A) destination airport,
B provisional airport.
C) alternate airport.

Answer 12

B provisional airport.

Question 13

A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an
air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of
A) obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct
to the regular airport.
B having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies).
C providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.

Answer 13

C providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.

Question 14

The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are
specified in the
A) Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.
B certificate holder’s operations specifications.
C application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the
applicant,

Answer 14

B certificate holder’s operations specifications.

Question 15

The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during
takeoff is
A V2
B VEF
C V1

Answer 15

B VEF

Question 16

The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class 8
airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and
nautical miles from the airport is
A) 200 knots.
B 230 knots.
C 250 knots.

Answer 16

C 250 knots.

Question 17

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are
operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during
daylight hours?
A) 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, SOO feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
B 5 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
C) 3 statute miles, SOO feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

Answer 17

A) 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, SOO feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

Question 18

If the middle marker for a Category I ILS approach is inoperative
A) the RVR required to begin the approach is increased by 20%.
B the inoperative middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.
C) the DADH is increased by 50 feet.

Answer 18

B the inoperative middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.

Question 19

V2 speed is
A) takeoff decision speed,
BJ takeoff safety speed,
C) minimum takeoff speed,

Answer 19

BJ takeoff safety speed,

Question 20

What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed?
A) VMU,
B) VMD.
C VFC.

Answer 20

A) VMU,

Question 21

Which speed symbol indicates the maximum operating limit speed for an
airplane?
A) VIE,
B VMO/MMO.
C) VLO/MLO.

Answer 21

B VMO/MMO.

Question 22

Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling
speed in the landing configuration?
A) VS.
BJ VSI.
C vso.

Answer 22

C vso.

Question 23

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight
speed at which the airplane is controllable?
A) VSO.
B VS
C VSI.

Answer 23

B VS

Question 24

What is the name of an area beyond the end of a runway which does not contain
obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of
turbine-powered aircraft?
A) Clearway.
B Stopway.
C) Obstruction clearance plane.

Answer 24

A) Clearway.

Question 25

Which is a definition of the term crewmembert
A) Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft
during flight time,
B A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
C) Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or
flight engineer,

Answer 25

B A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.

Question 26

*Operational contror of a flight refers to
A) the specific duties of any required crewmember.
B exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
C) exercising the privileges of pilot in command of an aircraft.

Answer 26

B exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

Question 27

A commercial pilot has a type rating in a 8-727 and 8-737. A flight test is
completed in a 8-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot
privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?
A) Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747.

B) ATP - 8-747; Commercial - 8-727 and 8-737.

C) ATP - 3-747, 3-727, and B-737.

Answer 27

C) ATP - 3-747, 3-727, and B-737.

Question 28

A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed
for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a 8-727. What pilot privileges may be
exercised?

A) ATP 8-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9.

B) ATP - 8-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3.

C) ATP - 8-727, DC-3, and DC-9.

Answer 28

C) ATP - 8-727, DC-3, and DC-9

Question 29

In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing
and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air
transportation service?
A) 6 hours.
B 8 hours.
C I0 hours.

Answer 29

B 8 hours.

Question 30

The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline
transport pilot is restricted to
A) 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.
B 9 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period.
C) 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

Answer 30

C) 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

Question 31

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs
shall it be reported to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division?
A) No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action,
B No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
C) Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate,

Answer 31

B No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

Question 32

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot
certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is
A) required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.
B not required to have a medical certificate.
C) required to have a first-class medical certificate,

Answer 32

B not required to have a medical certificate.

Question 33

What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the
original issue of a Category II authorization?
A) Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the
Category I DH.
B Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of
an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II OH.
C) Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be
flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

Answer 33

C) Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be
flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

Question 34

An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a
commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is
A) required to have a first-class medical certificate,
B required to have a second-class medical certificate.
C) not required to have a medical certificate.

Answer 34

C) not required to have a medical certificate.

Question 35

A pilot, acting as second in command, successfully completes the instrument
competency check specified in FAR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain
current if no further IFR flights are made?
A) 12 months.
BJ 90 days.
C) 6 months.

Answer 35

C) 6 months.

Question 36

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot
certificate, in an aircraft, needs
A) a first-class medical certificate.
B at least a current third-class medical certificate.
C) a second-class medical certificate,

Answer 36

B at least a current third-class medical certificate.

Question 37

When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the
practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved
flight simulator, the applicant is
A) required to have at least a third-class medical certificate.
B required to have a first-class medical certificate,
C) is not required to have a medical certificate.

Answer 37

C) is not required to have a medical certificate.

Question 38

To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization,
what recent instrument approach experience is required?
A) Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be
flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
B Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an
approach coupler to the Category I OH.
C) Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use
of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.

Answer 38

A) Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be
flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

Question 39

When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?
A) When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot
decision height and landing.
B When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landings have been
completed in the past 6 months.
CJ 120 days after issue or renewal,

Answer 39

A) When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot
decision height and landing.

Question 40

A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited
to
A) Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.
B pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program.
C) Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.

Answer 40

A) Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.

Question 41

When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the
practical test is scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the
applicant is
A) required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.
B required to have a current first-class medical certificate.
C) not required to hold a medical certificate.

Answer 41

A) required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.

Question 42

When a facsimile replacement is received for an airman’s medical certificate, for
what maximum time is this document valid?
A) 30 days.
B) 60 days.
C 90 days.

Answer 42

B) 60 days.

Question 43

Which publication includes information on operations in the North Atlantic
(NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications Airspace?
A) 14 CFR Part 121,
B ICAO Annex 1, Chapter 2.
C 14 CFR Part91.

Answer 43

C 14 CFR Part91.

Question 44

How may an aircraft operate in North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation
Performance Specifications Airspace with less than the minimum navigation
capability required by FAR Part 91, appendix C?
A) By operating under VFR conditions only,
B By requesting a deviation from the Administrator,
C) By operating only between 2400Z and 0600Z.

Answer 44

B By requesting a deviation from the Administrator,

Question 45

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages
have been consumed by that person within the preceding
A) 8 hours,
BJ 12 hours.
C) 24 hours,

Answer 45

A) 8 hours,

Question 46

For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders NOT be
used?
A) Determining causes of accidents and occurrences under investigation by the
NTSB
B Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident
or occurrence,
C) Identifying procedures that may have been conducive to any accident, or
occurrence resulting in investigation under NTSB Part 830.

Answer 46

B Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident
or occurrence,

Question 47

How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of
an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?
A) 60 days.
BJ 90 days.
C 30 days.

Answer 47

A) 60 days.

Question 48

Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying a large, turbine-
engine- powered airplane when one of its engines is inoperative?
A) The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR,
BJ Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR minimums for the entire
route, including takeoff and landing.
C) The flight cannot be conducted between official sunset and sunrise.

Answer 48

A) The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR,

Question 49

When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for
repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be
observed?
A) Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane.
B The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach
must be VFR,
C) No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried.

Answer 49

A) Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane.

Question 50

If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio
communications with ATC, what action should be taken?
A) Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the
flight.
BJ Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.
C) Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

Answer 50

C) Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

Question 51

A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio
communications failure, What altitude should be used?
A) Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA,
whichever is highest.
B An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the
route.
C) A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg.

Answer 51

A) Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA,
whichever is highest.

Question 52

A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way
radio communications failure, When should that pilot begin descent for the
instrument approach?
A) At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA
as amended by ATC.
B At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
CJ At the EFC time as amended by ATC.

Answer 52

B At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.

Question 53

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS
approach?
A) At the DH when the runway is not clearly visible.
B) When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway
environment is not clearly visible.
C) At the OH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly
visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost,

Answer 53

C) At the OH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly
visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost,

Question 54

Unless otherwise authorized by the FAA and when takeoff minimums are not
prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a
three-engine airplane operated under 14 CFR 121/125/129/135?
A 1 SM
B) 1/2 SM.
C) 300feet and 1/2 SM.

Answer 54

B) 1/2 SM.

Question 55

A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below
those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance
received prior to
A) takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.
B entering controlled airspace.
C) entering IFR weather conditions.

Answer 55

B entering controlled airspace.

Question 56

What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators
on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other?
A) 4’ on the ground and in flight.
B 6’ on the ground and in flight,
C) 6- in flight and 4’ on the ground.

Answer 56

A) 4’ on the ground and in flight.

Question 57

Which entry shall be recorded by the person performing a VOR operational
check?
A) Frequency, radial and facility used, and bearing error.
B Flight hours and number of days since last check, and bearing error.
C) Date, place, bearing error, and signature,

Answer 57

C) Date, place, bearing error, and signature,

Question 58

A large or turbine powered airplane approaching to land on a runway served by
a VASI
A) may disregard the VASI for any runway,
B shall not touch down on the runway until over or past the touchdown zone
markings.
C) shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is
necessary for landing.

Answer 58

C) shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is
necessary for landing.

Question 59

During an emergency, a pilot in command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule
but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot
required to submit a written report?
A) To the manager of the General Aviation District Office within IO days,
B To the manager of the facility in control within IO days.
C) upon request by ATC submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC
manager.

Answer 59

C) upon request by ATC submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC
manager.

Question 60

What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs
while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?
A) Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if
requested.
BJ Ifthe aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an
instrument approach, no further action is necessary.
C) Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

Answer 60

C) Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

Question 61

What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in
controlled airspace?
A) Notify ATC immediately.
BJ Squawk 7600,
C) Monitor the VOR receiver.

Answer 61

A) Notify ATC immediately.

Question 62

Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual
references are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon
A) arrival at the DA/DH on the glide slope.
B arrival at the visual descent point.
C) expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

Answer 62

A) arrival at the DA/DH on the glide slope.

Question 63

What action should be taken when a pilot is “cleared for approach” while being
radar vectored on an unpublished route?
A) Descend to minimum vector altitude.
B) Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route
segment.
C) Descend to initial approach fix altitude.

Answer 63

B) Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route
segment.

Question 64

What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The
pilot
A) may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude.
B) must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published
route or segment of the approach with published altitudes.
C) may descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final
approach course.

Answer 64

B) must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published
route or segment of the approach with published altitudes.

Question 65

While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the VOR fails. What action is
required?
A) Descend below Class A airspace.
B) Advise dispatch via company frequency.
C) Notify ATC immediately.

Answer 65

C) Notify ATC immediately.

Question 66

When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule
has not been violated?
A) When priority has been given.
B) Anytime an emergency occurs.
C) When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

Answer 66

A) When priority has been given.

Question 67

What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather
conditions and has two-way radio communications failure?
A) Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the
following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to
expect, or to the MEA
B) Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate
airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the
clearance route.
C) Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned
altitude or MEA, whichever is higher.

Answer 67

A) Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the
following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to
expect, or to the MEA

Question 68

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility
criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?
A) 1/4 SM.
B) 3/4 SM.
C) 3/8 SM.

Answer 68

A) 1/4 SM.

Question 69

The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation
is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR
value?
A) 3/8 SM.
B) 5/8 SM.
C) 3/4 SM.

Answer 69

B) 5/8 SM.

Question 70

When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?
A) The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP book
B) 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA.
C) The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.

Answer 70

C) The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.

Question 71

Answer 71