Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FCM FINAL > FCM > Flashcards

FCM Flashcards

1
Q

First and second line treatment for oral thrush

A
  1. Miconazole gel
  2. Nystatin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What cancer is associated with GORD?

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

SVT management if haemodynamically unstable?

A

DC cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ix for suspected leukaemia?

A

Bone marrow aspirate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Beta thalassaemia major vs minor

A

Major = symptoms in infancy; failure to thrive
Minor = mild anaemia in adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Complication of co-amoxiclav

A

Cholestatic hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

10-20y/o male with proximal tibial mass, painless; XR shows pedunculate lesion on the surface of the bone

A

Osteochondroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where does amoebiasis come from and how do you treat it?

A

Diarrhoea; travel to LIC
Metronidazole then diloxanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment for sciatica?

A

Paracetamol/NSAIDS
Codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment for bacterial meningitis GP vs. hospital

A

GP = IM ben pen
Hospital = IV cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

AF; rate treatment

A
  1. Beta blocker
  2. if HR >100bpm still, add digoxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment for STEMI

A

PCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment of hyperparathyroidism and complication

A

Parathyroidectomy; aphonia due to damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Treatment of venous eczema

A

Reduce leg swelling and potent topical steroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Salmon herald patch and Christmas tree distribution

A

Pityriasis rosea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What drug can cause gynaecomastia?

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

UTI treatment in pregnancy

A

Nitrofurantoin until 3rd trimester
Amoxicillin in 3rd trimester
TRIMETHOPRIM IS CONTRAINDICATED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What bacteria causes otitis externa

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Migraine prophylactic treatment?

A

Propranolol
(Topiramate if contraindicated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Migraine attack treatment?

A

NSAIDs (paracetamol if pregnant)
Triptans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cluster headache prophylaxis?

A

Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cluster headache attack treatment?

A

O2 and sub cut triptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which joint does gout commonly affect?

A

MTP joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which joint does psuedogout commonly affect?

A

Knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What bacteria causes UTI?

A

E coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What analgesia can cause urticarial rash?

A

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Tension headache, vomiting, tachycardia, tachypnoea, seizures, reduced GCS, cherry red skin

A

Carbon monoxide poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

AF and haemodynamically unstable?

A

DC cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Snowstorm appearance on TVUS

A

Molar pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Sepsis within 48 hours of birth - cause

A

Group B strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

1st line for fibrocystic disease of the breast

A

Supportive bra and avoid caffeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Treatment for trichomonas

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Treatment for gonorrhoea

A

IM ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Unilateral deafness and vertigo

A

Acoustic neuroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Asymptomatic jaundice

A

Gilbert’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What can EBV increase risk of?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What bacteria causes prostatitis

A

E coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do you do if a baby has a hernia?

A

Observe, repair at 2 years if it hasn’t closed spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Treatment for spinal cord compression

A

High dose dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Treatment for microalbuminaemia

A

ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Sudden onset blurry vision, reduction in visual acuity, visible drusen on fundoscopy

A

Macular degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Treatment for CML

A

Oral imatinib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What CN causes down and out gaze

A

Occulomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Bleeding, bruising, organ ischaemia and failure

A

DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Treatment of essential tremor

A

Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

White tongue, maculopapular rash on chest and back

A

Scarlet fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What do you give in a intracerebral haemorrhage

A

Labetalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When can you drive after a TIA

A

After 1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Treatment for apthous ulcers

A

Hydrocortisone Oro-mucosal tablets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What can shoulder dystocia cause?

A

Brachial plexus palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Treatment for angular stomatitis

A

Topical miconazole and hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Bipolar symptoms but psychotic in manic phase

A

Schizoaffective disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Fixed, split second hard sound

A

Atrial septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Weak femoral pulses, systolic murmur below left scapula, tachypnoea, poor feeding, grey floppy baby

A

Coarctation of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Machine like murmur, SOB, poor feeding, recurrent LRTIs

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

First line treatment for menorrhagia

A

IUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Haematuria, flank pain and palpable mass

A

Renal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is ketatitis and what can cause it

A

Infection of the cornea; often caused by contact lenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

12 year old, leg pain when exercising, limping, pain is dull and deep, feeling tired

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Treatment for PTSD

A

EMDR or trauma based CBT
SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Treatment for onychomycosis

A
  1. Topical amorolfine
  2. Oral terbinafine (if symptomatic or >2 nails)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Analgesia for renal colic

A

Diclofenac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Treatment for PCOS

A

COCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Diarrhoea from crowded area e.g. prison

A

Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Diarrhoea from contaminated water

A

Cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

55y/o woman, progressive muscle weakness, frequent falls, difficulty standing up from seated, hand weakness

A

Polymyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Murmur with Marfan’s

A

Mitral valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Pink and brown papules

A

Kaposi’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Long term steroid use and exposure to lots of UV can cause…

A

Cataracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Sharp tearing pain on defecation and fresh PR bleeding

A

Anal fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Treatments for anal fissure

A
  1. Soften stool with IH
  2. GTN ointment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Treatment for pityriasis rosea

A

Emolients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Medications following TIA

A

Aspirin for 2 weeks then clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Treatment of PPH

A

IV syntocinon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Demithicone

A

For head lice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Slow growing, soft lump, non-tender, doughy consistency

A

Lipoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Central punctum

A

Epidermoid cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Treatment given in PPROM

A

Corticosteroids and erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Pregnant woman, sudden back pain, regular contractions, painful bright red bleeding, pelvic tenderness, closed cervix

A

Abruptio placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Pregnant woman, painless vaginal bleeding

A

Placenta praevia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Treatment for acute delirium

A

Haloperidol
Lorazepam if Parkinson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Bronchiolitis causative organism

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Croup causative organism

A

Parainfluenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Epiglottitis causative organism

A

HiB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Treatment for vitiligo

A

Topical betnovate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Treatment for mastoiditis

A

IV broad spec ABx and admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Treatment for tension PTX

A

Needle decompression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Treatment for spontaneous PTX

A

Needle aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Medical management for OCD

A

SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What can indapamide cause

A

Gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Painful red eye, N&V, blurry vision, abnormal pupils, reduction in acuity

A

Acute closed-angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Crampy leg pain, worse when walking uphill; what is it and what can it cause

A

Claudication; arterial ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Menieres disease attack and prevention

A

Attack = prochlorperazine
Prevention = betahistine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Menieres Sx

A

Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and pressure feeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

ABx given for sickle cell

A

Lifelong pen V
(Erythromycin if allergic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Vibrio cholerae - what food

A

Caused by oysters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Treatment for acute migraine in pregnancy

A

Paracetamol
AVOID NSAIDS IN PREGNANCY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Treatment for pneumocystis

A

Co-trimoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Treatment for molluscum

A

Self-limiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Skin lesion, Hx of sun exposure, feels like sandpaper - what is it and how do you treat it

A

Actinic ketatosis; fluorouracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Second line HTN treatment in Afro-Caribbeans

A

CCB+ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Causative organisms in septic arthritis
1. Normally
2. Young, unvaccinated child
3. Sexually active

A
  1. Staph aureus
  2. HiB
  3. N. gonorrhoeae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Treatment for septic arthritis

A

IV clindamycin for 1 week then 4-6W of oral ABx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What treatment are you giving if DEXA scan results are <T-2.5?

A

Bisphosphonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Analgesia for OA

A

Paracetamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Bacteria that causes osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

6 year old boy, painless limp, XR shows frog leg

A

Perthe’s disease; cast brace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Fat 14 year old boy, painful limp, O/E external rotation of leg - what is it and how do you treat it?

A

SUFE; surgical fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Loss of vision like a curtain closing over the eye

A

TIA - GIVE 300mg ASPIRIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Recurrent unilateral electric shock pain lasting a few seconds, triggered by brushing teeth, smoking and talking - what is it and how do you treat it?

A

Trigeminal neuralgia; carbemazapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

If a pt has a migraine and asthma AND PREGNANT, what drug do you give for prophylaxis

A

Amitriptyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Treatment for status epilepticus GP vs hospital

A

GP = buccal midazolam/rectal diazepam
Hospital = IV lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Time frame to treat Bell’s palsy and what do you give

A

Prednisolone; within 72 hours - for 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Treatment for tonic clonic seizures? What if they’re pregnant?

A

Sodium valproate; lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Overweight female, generalised headache that’s worse in the mornings and when coughing - what is it and how do you treat it?

A

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension; LP and weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Patient has a fall, temporary loss of consciousness, fluctuating changes in cognition, CT scan shows crescent-shape - what is it?

A

Subdural haematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Treatment for myasthenia gravis

A

Steroids + anti cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. pyridostigmine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What kind of seizure - sudden jerking of limb, trunk or face

A

Myoclonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

EtOH drinker, nystagmus, confusion and ataxia - what is it and how do you treat it?

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy; IV pabrinex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Treatment for Alzheimer’s:
- Mild-moderate?
- Moderate-severe?

A
  1. Donepazil
  2. Memantine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Treatment of hyperparathyroidism if not eligible for surgery

A

Alendronate and cinacalet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Obese man, chronic cough and constipation - what type of hernia?

A

Direct inguinal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

6 month old baby, bulge into scrotum - what type of hernia?

A

Indirect inguinal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Treatment of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose

125
Q

Cherry red spot on fundoscopy

A

Central retinal vein occlusion

126
Q

Morning headaches, vomiting, raised intracranial pressure

A

Glioblastoma

127
Q

Management of cardiac tamponade

A

Pericardiocentesis

128
Q

Adult female, low Hb, schistocytes on blood film

A

TTP

129
Q

Child, recent viral illness normal blood smear

A

ITP

130
Q

Pearly papule with rolled edge

A

Basal cell carcinoma

131
Q

Clawing of the hand with sensory loss of 5th and half of 4th finger

A

Ulnar nerve compression

132
Q

Enlarged scaly pink plaque that’s friable and bleeds easily

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

133
Q

Recent infection that causes red lumps on legs - what is it and what bacteria causes it?

A

Erythema nodosum; strep pyogenes

134
Q

Retinitis in immunocompromised patient; what causes it and what is seen on fundoscopy?

A

CMV; cottage cheese with ketchup

135
Q

What rash can doxycycline cause

A

Erythema multiforme

136
Q

What is slapped cheek (2)

A

Erythema infectiosum / parvovirus B19

137
Q

Rash from exposure to infrared

A

Erythema ab igne

138
Q

Rash caused by Lyme disease

A

Erythema migrans

139
Q

Treatment of hypercalcaemia

A

IV fluids and IV furosemide

140
Q

Patient with Hx of sickle cell, sudden onset floaters in eyes, painful vision loss, can only see hazy red out of affected eye; fundoscopy reveals a poor view of the fundus

A

Vitreous haemorrhage

141
Q

Cradle cap - what is it and how do you treat it?

A

Sebhorraeic dermatitis;
1. Olive oil and brush out the flakes
2. Topical miconazole 1%

142
Q

Treatment of bowel obstruction

A

Insert an NG tube

143
Q

Treatment of Kawasaki disease

A

IVIG and high dose aspirin

144
Q

Painful arc 60-120 degrees

A

Rotator cuff injury

145
Q

Treatment for cat/dog/human bites

A

Co-amoxiclav

146
Q

Treatment for impetigo

A

5 days fusidic acid and good hygiene

147
Q

Dysuria, pain at base of penis, tender and boggy prostate - what is it and how do you treat it?

A

Prostatitis; ciprofloxacin

148
Q

Menopausal woman with no uterus?

A

Oestrogen only

149
Q

Menopausal woman with only urogenital Sx?

A

Low dose vaginal oestrogen

150
Q

What Sx can hypomagnesia cause

A

Seizures, muscle cramps and tremors

151
Q

Patient with metabolic acidosis and tinnitus - what did they overdose on?

A

Aspirin

152
Q

Treatment of blepharitis

A
  1. Chloramphenicol
  2. Fusidic acid
153
Q

1st line treatment of trigger finger

A

Splinting

154
Q

When do you review an undescended testes in newborn

A

6 months

155
Q

PMS treatment

A

Lifestyle changes and COCP

156
Q

Pregnant woman with a well-defined hyperpigmentation in a symmetrical pattern on the face

A

Melasma

157
Q

Pt bitten by dog abroad, unable to swallow water and has parasthesia around the wound - what is it?

A

Rabies

158
Q

What antihypertensive can cause ankle swelling?

A

CCB - amlodipine

159
Q

What bacteria causes folliculitis? And what about if the pt. has been in a hot tub recently?

A
  1. Staph aureus
  2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
160
Q

What is a side-effect of azithromycin?

A

LQTS

161
Q

Treatment of DKA (which fluids)

A

0.9% saline

162
Q

What bacteria can cause schistocytes on blood smear

A

E coli

163
Q

Treatment for acute cholecystitis?

A

IV co-amoxiclav

164
Q

Treatment of hyperparathyroidism if not eligible for surgery

A

Alendronate and cinacalet

165
Q

Treatment for agoraphobia?

A

CBT with graded exposure therapy

166
Q

Young boy, facial swelling then whole body swelling

A

Minimal change

167
Q

Old man, urinary incontinence, abnormal gait, dementia

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

168
Q

Patient with recurrent sinus infections now has fever, sudden onset headache, peri-orbital swelling and diplopia

A

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

169
Q

Treatment of giant cell arteritis

A

Prednisolone

170
Q

Photosensitive malar rash in the shape of a butterfly, fatigue, fevers, muscle pain - what is it and how do you treat it?

A

SLE, do anti-dsDNA, give NSAIDs and prednisolone

171
Q

What electrolyte abnormality can be caused by losartan?

A

Hyperkalaemia

172
Q

Postpartum woman, new pain at the base of thumb

A

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

173
Q

15 year old, intermittent high fevers, rashes, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, anaemia, leukocytosis

A

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

174
Q

Hyperpigmentation, fatigue, weakness, hypotension

A

Addison’s

175
Q

Unvaccinated child, fever, sore throat, grey-white membrane in oropharynx that bleeds when scraped

A

Diphtheria

176
Q

Elderly patient dehydrated, has hypernatraemia - how do you treat it, and what happens if you don’t do it slowly?

A

5% dextrose; too quickly may cause cerebral oedema, then seizure/coma/death

177
Q

Patient with previous head trauma, now has polydipsia, polyuria and hypernatraemia - what is the condition?

A

Diabetes insipidus

178
Q

Treatment for Addisonian crisis?

A

IV hydrocortisone and IV normal saline

179
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can be caused by PPIs?

A

Hyponatraemia and hypomagnesia

180
Q

What 3 results will you see in tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Raised calcium
Raised PTH
Raised phosphate (or CKD)

181
Q

9 year old, palpable non-tender, mobile, fluid-filled lump on the midline of the neck; moves upwards on swallowing and protrusion of the tongue

A

Thyroglossal cyst

182
Q

Patient with magical thinking and dressing oddly

A

Schizotypal PD

183
Q

Treatment for OCD

A

CBT+ERP (+SSRI)

184
Q

Patient is on statin and you’re prescribing a macrolide - what do you do?

A

Withhold the statin

185
Q

Treatment for intermittent claudication

A
  1. Lifestyle advice and exercise programme
  2. Naftidrofuyl
186
Q

What murmur can occur after an inferior MI?

A

Mitral regurgitation

187
Q

Treatment for asystole

A

Adrenaline
(It’s non-shockable!)

188
Q

Young ish female, smoker, CP on rest and at night - ECG shows ST elevation when she has the chest pain - what is it and how do you treat it?

A

Prinzmetal angina; CCB

189
Q

Which bacteria in infective endocarditis?

A

Staph aureus

190
Q

Sudden onset tearing chest pain, mediastinal widening - what is it and how do you treat it?

A

Aortic dissection; morphine+beta blockers -> surgery asap

191
Q

What bacteria causes Scarlet fever?

A

Strep A

192
Q

Flu-like Sx, sandpaper rash, strawberry tongue

A

Scarlet fever

193
Q

Painless red eyes, swollen hands and feet, cracked lips, strawberry tongue

A

Kawasaki disease

194
Q

Anaemia, hand/feet swelling, delayed puberty, frequent infections

A

Sickle cell anaemia

195
Q

Frothy urine, oedema, proteinuria and haematuria

A

Glomerulonephritis

196
Q

Microaneuyrisms, blot haemorrhages, neovascularisation

A

Diabetic retinopathy

197
Q

Retinal haemorrhage, papilloedema

A

Hypertensive retinopathy

198
Q

Peripheral loss of vision, ‘halos’ around lights

A

Glaucoma

199
Q

Treatment of open angle glaucoma

A

Prostaglandin analogue eye drops

200
Q

If patient is B12 deficient and folate deficient, which do you treat first

A

B12

201
Q

What causes Cushings disease

A

Pituitary tumour

202
Q

Rash from face to trunk, lymphadenopathy and red petechiae in mouth

A

Rubella

203
Q

Recent LRTI, swinging fevers, night sweats, weight loss and chest pain

A

Empyema

204
Q

Normocytic anaemia and raised bilirubin

A

Haemolytic anaemia

205
Q

Which nerve can get damaged by shoulder dislocation

A

Axillary nerve

206
Q

What needs to be given for life after gastric bypass

A

B12

207
Q

Bilateral thigh pain, better when stooping or sitting

A

Spinal stenosis

208
Q

Patient with active cancer, undergoing chemotherapy, temperature 38’C - what will their neutrophil count be? What do you treat them with?

A

Neutropenic sepsis - <0.5, initiate sepsis 6 (give BS ABx e.g. tazocin) and then filgastrim

209
Q

Treatment of acute pancreatitis

A

Fluids, analgesics and antiemetics

210
Q

Soft stool and going a few times a day, but only passing small amounts - which laxative do you prescribe?

A

Senna

211
Q

Old patient with dementia, chronic constipation - what GI can it cause and how do you treat this?

A

Sigmoid volvulus; flatus tube

212
Q

What is the cause of 70% of small bowel obstructions?

A

Previous abdominal surgery

213
Q

What GI condition can co-amoxiclav cause?

A

Cholestasis

213
Q

Treatment for tension PTX

A

Needle decompression

214
Q

What can the scarring from GORD cause?

A

Benign oesophageal stricture

215
Q

Most common cause of raised Virchow’s node

A

Gastric cancer

216
Q

RUQ pain after ERCP, relieved by leaning forward

A

Acute pancreatitis

217
Q

Positive RPR test

A

Syphilis

218
Q

What is the timeframe for adjustment disorder

A

Within 3 months of a stressful life event

219
Q

Drugs to stop in AKI

A

Diuretics
ACEi and ARB
Metformin
NSAIDs

220
Q

Friable cervix with cobblestone appearance, dyspareunia and post coital bleeding

A

Chlamydia

221
Q

Slit lamp: shallow anterior chambers and corneal epithelial oedema

A

Acute closed-angle glaucoma

221
Q

Treatment for tension PTX

A

Needle decompression

222
Q

Patient with spontaneous PTX (primary and secondary)

A
  1. Tall young male
  2. Middle aged pt with COPD
223
Q

Patient with tension PTX (x3)

A

Ventilated, trauma or Marfan’s

224
Q

What type of cancer in colorectal cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

225
Q

When do you assess a pt for LTOT

A

Patient is stable and has <92% ORA

226
Q

Smoker, clubbing - which lung cancer

A

Squamous cell

227
Q

Smoker, SIADH - which lung cancer

A

Small cell

228
Q

Non-smoker, gynaecomastia - which lung cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

229
Q

What causes stoney dullness

A

Pleural effusion

230
Q

Cerumen impaction - treatment algorithm (3)

A
  1. Ear drops e.g. oil
  2. Ear irrigation
  3. Microsuction
231
Q

Test for peripheral vertigo

A

Head impulse test

232
Q

What can leukoplakia become

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

233
Q

Which TB med causes orange secretions

A

Rifampacin

234
Q

Which TB med causes peripheral neuropathy

A

Isoniazid

235
Q

Os closed, mild bleeding, little pain - what type of miscarriage?

A

Threatened (often 6-9 weeks)

236
Q

Os open, heavy bleeding, painful - what type of miscarriage?

A

Inevitable

237
Q

Os closed, pain and bleeding with clots, empty uterus - what type of miscarriage?

A

Complete

238
Q

Os open, pain, bleeding, products of conception are partially expelled - what type of miscarriage?

A

Incomplete

239
Q

Os closed, gestational sac with dead foetus without clinical features

A

Missed (silent)

240
Q

Crohn’s treatment 1 and 2

A
  1. Oral prednisolone
  2. Mesalazine
241
Q

Complications of Crohn’s

A

Fissures, fistulas and strictures

242
Q

Most common location for Crohn’s

A

Terminal ileum

243
Q

Most common location for UC

A

Rectum

244
Q

Complications of UC

A

Toxic megacolon and strictures

245
Q

Treatment of UC

A

Topical ASA (mesalazine)

246
Q

Pregnant woman, painless bright red blood

A

Placenta praevia

247
Q

Pregnant woman, painful dark red blood

A

Placental abruption

248
Q

What is a pterygium

A

White, wing-shaped growth across the eye, caused by exposure to UV and being in a dry, dusty environment

249
Q

Blood tests in menopause

A

High FSH, high LH and low oestrogen

250
Q

Floaters, flashers, painless vision loss starting in the periphery , blurred vision

A

Retinal detachment

251
Q

Hx of HTN, sudden painless loss of vision in one eye, cherry red spot

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

252
Q

Central loss of vision

A

Macular degeneration

253
Q

Peripheral loss of vision and halos around lights

A

Glaucoma

254
Q

Which bronchus would an inhaled foreign object go down

A

Right

255
Q

Drug that is positively inotropic, negatively chronotropic

A

Digoxin

256
Q

New York HF scale 1-4

A
  1. no symptoms
  2. mild sx
  3. symptomatic except at rest
  4. sx at rest
257
Q

Which CCBs are non-dihydropyridines

A

Verapamil and diltiazem

258
Q

H pylori and allergic to amoxicillin - what do you give!

A

Metronidazole, clarithomycin and omeprazole

259
Q

Diverticular disease vs. diverticulosis

A

DD - pain, blood, bowel changes
D - incidental finding of outpouches, no inflammation

260
Q

HELLP syndrome

A

H - haemolysis
EL - elevated liver enzymes
LP - low platelets

261
Q

What drug can’t be taken if having cataract surgery

A

Tamsulosin

262
Q

What drug should a pregnant woman not touch

A

Finasteride

263
Q

How long until POP works

A

48 hours

264
Q

BP target after a stroke

A

130/80mmHg

265
Q

What can sodium valproate do to INR

A

Raise it

266
Q

When can you drive after your first seizure

A

6 months

267
Q

What can lithium do to thyroid

A

Hypothyroidism

268
Q

What would histology from thyroid cancer show?

A

Papillary

269
Q

Male, >60, wakes up at night with back pain regularly

A

Multiple myeloma

270
Q

Intrinsic factor is involved in the transportation and absorption of what?

A

B12

271
Q

Lack of dopamine, starts with bradykinesia

A

Parkinsons

272
Q

Which drug - modulates cellular keratinisation and inflammatory procresses

A

Adapalene

273
Q

Worst skin change to have on mole

A

Irregular shape

274
Q

A 39-year-old female teacher presents with a burning sensation affecting her arms and legs. She thinks she is becoming colour blind, as she can no longer discern the colour of the red pen she uses for marking.

A

MS

275
Q

A 28-year-old white woman who has smoked 1 pack per day for the last 10 years presents with subacute onset of cloudy vision in one eye, with pain on movement of that eye. She also notes difficulty with colour discrimination, particularly of reds. She was treated for a sinus infection 2 weeks ago and, on further history, recalls that she had a 3-week history of unilateral hemibody paraesthesias during examination week in university 6 years ago. She occasionally has some tingling on that side if she is overly tired, stressed, or hot.

A

MS

276
Q

Baby, ejection systolic murmur, low oxygen sats, cyanosed

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

277
Q

Which leads do you see LBBB/RBBB in?

A

V1 and V6

278
Q

Haemophilia A&B = which factors? And which is more common?

A

A = 8
B = 9
(A = more common)

279
Q

CT chest shows honeycombing

A

Asbestosis and IPF

280
Q

Two drugs that can cause pulmonary fibrosis

A

Methotrexate and nitrofurantoin

281
Q

SIADH values

A

High urine osmolality, low serum osmolality, low Na

282
Q

Treatment for nephrotic syndrome (+minimal change)

A

Prednisolone

283
Q

Gold standard Ix for bronchiectasis

A

High resolution CT chest

284
Q

How much protein = pre-eclapsia

A

More than or qual to 0.3g in 24 hours

285
Q

Treatment for aortic dissection

A

IV labetolol

286
Q

Ix for phaeochromocytoma

A

24hr catecholamine collection

287
Q

Ix for Cushing’s

A

1 = 24hr urinary free cortisol
GOLD = overnight dexamethasone suppression test

288
Q

Ix for Addison’s

A

GP - 8-9am cortisol
GOLD = ACTH stimulation test

289
Q

Ix for Conn’s

A

Renin:aldosterone

290
Q

Ix for SLE (sensitive vs specific)

A

Sensitive = ANA
Specific - Anti-dsDNA

291
Q

Ix for Sjogren’s

A

Anti-Ro and Anti-La antibodies

292
Q

GCA treatment

A

Prednisolone

293
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia = electric shocks on face, what is the treatment

A

Carbemazepine

294
Q

Ix for Osgood Schlatters

A

Knee XR

295
Q

Tumour marker for colon cancer

A

CEA

296
Q

T2DM + heart failure/ACS

A

Metformin + SGLT-2 inhibitor (flozin)

297
Q

2nd line and 3rd line for T2DM

A

Gliptin (DPP4)
Gliclazide

298
Q

Three drugs that can cause agranulocytosis

A

Clozapine
Carbimazole
Methotrexate

299
Q

Treatment for Addisonian crisis

A

IV hydrocortisone

300
Q

Other name for Conn’s

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism

301
Q

Other name for Addison’s

A

Primary adrenal insufficiency

302
Q

Cardiac drug that can cause thyroid issues

A

Amiodarone

303
Q

First-line for PCOS

A

COCP

304
Q

Treatment for eclamptic seizure

A

IV magnesium sulphate

305
Q

At how many weeks can gestational HTN be diagnosed?

A

20 weeks

306
Q
A

FCM FINAL (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions