FCOM

Question 1

Max takeoff and landing tailwind component

Answer 1

15kts

Question 2

Max operating altitude

Answer 2

43100 feet pressure altitude

Question 3

Max takeoff and landing altitude

Answer 3

8400 feet pressure altitude

Question 4

Runway slop max

Answer 4

+/- 2%

Question 5

Operational check of flight deck access door has been accomplished within?

Answer 5

48 hours

Question 6

Max demonstrated takeoff and landing crosswind is ?

Answer 6

38 kts

Question 7

Severe turb air penetration speed

Answer 7

270kts < 25000 feet
280kts or 0.82 Mach whichever is lower at 25000 feet or above
Maintain minimum 15kts above the min man speed at all times when airspeed is below .82 Mach

Question 8

Avoid weather radar operation in

Answer 8

Hangar or within 50 feet of fuelling operations or a fuel spill

Question 9

Rvsm altitmeter check

Answer 9

75 feet between captains or FO altimeter and field elevation

Question 10

Max wind for Autoland

Answer 10

Head 25
Tail 15
Cross 25

Question 11

Max and min glide slope for auto land

Answer 11

3. 25 deg max

2. 5 deg min

Question 12

Min altitude for FLCH

Answer 12

1000 ft

Question 13

Max tank fuel temperature

Answer 13

49 deg

For take off no less than -40 deg or 3 deg above fuel freezing point whichever is higher

Question 14

In tail winds and x winds between 30 and 45 kts engine power should be limited to

Answer 14

70% N1

And no more than thrust required for normal taxi operation in more than 45 kts

Question 15

APU start attempts

Answer 15

3 starts in 60 min period max

1 min apart max

Question 16

Max flap operating altitude

Answer 16

20000 ft

Question 17

ADIRU alignment should not be attempted in latitudes greater than

Answer 17

78 deg 14.75 min

Question 18

The centre tank may contain up to ………. kg of fuel with less than full main tanks

Answer 18

1360 kg

Question 19

GPWS look ahead terrain alerting

Answer 19

Do not use terrain display for navigation

Prohibited within 15 nm of take off approach or landing at an airport not contained in GSPWS data base

Question 20

Wing anti ice

Answer 20

Only on mid span slats

Doesn’t work on the ground

Question 21

Pulling the engine fire switch does what ?

Answer 21

1 closes spar fuel valve
2 closes bleed air valve
3 trips the generator
4 shuts off hydraulic fluid to engine driven pump
5 depressurises engine driven hydraulic pump
6 removes power to the thrust reverser isolation valve

Question 22

AIRSPEED LOW in climb ?

Answer 22

If below 15kts above min manœuvre speed when climbing through FL200

Question 23

Flight parameter deviation callouts
SPEED 
SINK RATE
PITCH
BANK
LOCALIZER
GLIDESLOPE

Answer 23

\+10/-5 kts or below V2 or Vref
Excessive in relation to agl/aal
Excessive high or low in relation to flight phase
More than 30 deg
More than one dot
Note than one dot

Question 24

When do we need to use the flight at low gross weight sup ?

Answer 24

Below 154,221kg

Question 25

Max number of seconds after FUEL CONTROL switch is moved to RUN for EGT rise ?

Answer 25

20 secs

Question 26

N1 rotation should be indicated by how much N2 rotation on engine start ?

Answer 26

50%

Question 27

Flaps 1 equals Vref 30 plus ?

Answer 27

60

Question 28

Drift down level off altitude has a residual rate of climb .... and is dependant on ......

Answer 28

100 ft/min and ISA deviation

Question 29

Wingspan

Answer 29

64.80 M

Question 30

Stabiliser wingspan

Answer 30

21.53 M

Question 31

Length ?

Answer 31

73.86 M

Question 32

Height of the tail ?

Answer 32

18.85 M

Question 33

Min width of pavement for 180 deg turn ?

Answer 33

48 m

Question 34

Flashlights battery light meaning

Answer 34

Green- 1 flash during test equals normal Red- 1 flash during test equals should be replaced, one flash every ten seconds means battery has reached the end of its life.

Question 35

In the CRC the AIRFLOW OFF light is illuminated when ?

Answer 35

Below 25,000ft or when conditioned air is not available. | Pushing the light above 25,000ft when the light is illuminated resets the air con system.

Question 36

Temp control range ?

Answer 36

From 18 to 29 deg, mid position sets approx 24 deg

Question 37

Equipment cooling OVRD illuminated amber when ?

Answer 37

1 both equip cooling supply fans failed or 2 smoke detected in equip cooling system or 3 the EQUIP COOLING switch is off or 4 the CARGO FIRE ARM FWD switch is in ARMED

Question 38

How many temperature zones ?

Answer 38

7, the flight deck and 6 passenger cabin zones

Question 39

Predictive windshear system enabled below ?

Answer 39

1200 ft

Question 40

Weather position is not displayed by the PWS on the ND in what mode ?

Answer 40

Plan mode

Question 41

Immediate windshear detected by GPWS below ?

Answer 41

1500 ft

Question 42

If cruise altitude is unavailable from the FMC in AUTO, the cabin altitude controller assumes a cruise altitude of ?

Answer 42

39000 ft

Question 43

When the take off field elevation is higher than 8000 ft the cabin will ?

Answer 43

Descend to the cabin altitude while the airplane is climbing.

Question 44

Landing elevation limits are ?

Answer 44

1000 ft below sea level to 14000 ft above sea level

Question 45

The cabin altitude limiter closes both outflow valves If cabin altitude exceeds ?

Answer 45

15000 ft

Question 46

If landing altitude is unavailable from the FMC the EICAS advisory message ................. is displayed and the cabin altitude controller assumes a landing altitude of ............

Answer 46

LANDING ALT | 2000 ft

Question 47

APU bleed air is available below ?

Answer 47

22000 ft

Question 48

When TAT is above 10 deg C, wing anti-ice is inhibited after lift off for how long ?

Answer 48

5 min

Question 49

Automatic wing anti-ice operation inhibited when :

Answer 49

TAKEOFF mode selected and | Less than 10 minutes had elapsed after liftoff

Question 50

IAS/MACH window display range

Answer 50

100 - 399 kts | .400 - .950 Mach

Question 51

IAS/MACH window automatically changes from IAS to MACH and MACH to IAS at ?

Answer 51

.840 Mach | 310 kts

Question 52

If there is a dual FMC failure LNAV may be re-engaged if ?

Answer 52

If there is an active CDU ALTN NAV route available

Question 53

Bank limit selector limits in AUTO ?

Answer 53

15 - 25 degrees depending on TAS

Question 54

The automatic flight control system consists of ?

Answer 54

AFDS controlled by MCP and FMC | A/T

Question 55

Changes in Autoland status below..........., other than transition to NO AUTOLAND status, are inhibited.

Answer 55

200 ft

Question 56

After liftoff, the AFDS commands a pitch attitude to maintain:

Answer 56

1) A target speed of V2 plus 15kts or the airspeed at rotation plus 15kts, whichever is greater. 2) If current airspeed exceeds the target speed for 5 seconds, the target speed is reset to the lesser of the current airspeed or V2 plus 25kts. 3) the IAS/MACH window speed if the window speed is changed to a speed greater than the target speed.

Question 57

Autothrottle disconnect occurs automatically when ?

Answer 57

1) fault in the active autothrottle mode 2 either thrust lever is raised to reverse idle 3) thrust levers are over ridden during manual landing, after the autothrottle has begun to retard the trust levers to idle 4) both engines are shut down

Question 58

If the autothrottle is not activated by ..... kts it can’t be activated by ..... ft

Answer 58

50kts 400 ft

Question 59

During takeoff the FMC records the barometric altitude as the airplane accelerated through ?

Answer 59

100 kts

Question 60

If an engine failure occurs on the ground, the pitch command target speed at lift-off is ........ or ......... , whichever is greater.

Answer 60

V2 or airspeed at lift-off

Question 61

After lift-off: | If an engine failure occurs, the pitch command target speed is:

Answer 61

1) V2, if airspeed is below V2 2) existing airspeed, if airspeed is between V2 and V2+15 3) V2+15, if airspeed is above V2+15

Question 62

Runway alignment occurs at ?

Answer 62

1) 500 ft for crosswinds requiring more than 10 deg crab angle. Side slip of 5 deg reduces crab angle 2) for crosswinds requiring crab angle between 5 and 10 deg, initial alignment at 500 ft followed by second at 200 ft to further decrease crab angle 3) no runway alignment for required crab angle less than 5 deg

Question 63

If an engine fails prior to the approach the AFDS introduces a side slip at ....... If an engine fails during the approach ....

Answer 63

1300 ft to establish wing level configuration. | The wing level configuration is established when the engine failure is detected

Question 64

LAND 2 is inhibited below ?

Answer 64

200 ft

Question 65

Automatic Flight - Go Around TO/GA switches are inhibited on the ground, including when below ....... for a period greater than ....., and enabled again when airborne ( above ..... )

Answer 65

2 ft RA, 3 secs, above 2 ft RA

Question 66

LNAV engages at ?

Answer 66

50 ft when autopilot is not engaged | 200 ft when autopilot engaged

Question 67

During go-around from LAND 2 or 3 approach, automatic LNAV engagement causes disconnect of .....

Answer 67

Autopilot rudder control, careful if TAC inop

Question 68

APU to pack takeoff is prohibited at airport altitudes above ?

Answer 68

6900 ft field elevation

Question 69

Passenger oxygen masks automatically drop when cabin altitude approximately exceeds ?

Answer 69

13500 feet

Question 70

APU to pack take-off prohibited above ?

Answer 70

6900 ft field elevation

Question 71

TAC is available except ?

Answer 71

When below 70kts on ground When reverse thrust is applied When auto disengaged

Question 72

The highest and lowest elevations of the obstacles and terrain displayed are inhibited when further than ?

Answer 72

320 nm

Question 73

PWS is enabled to provide windshear alerts .... seconds after radar begins scanning for windshear.

Answer 73

12

Question 74

In flight weather radar begins scanning for windshear below ...... feet radio altitude.

Answer 74

2300ft

Question 75

Immediate windshear detected below ?

Answer 75

1500 feet and begins at rotation