FCOM QUESTIONARY BOOKLET Flashcards

1
Q

Under what conditions it is forbidden to use air conditioning packs in high mode?

A

With either one or both engine bleed air switches ON, do not operate the air conditioning packs in HIGH for takeoff, approach or landing

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2
Q

What is the required crew action in order not to encounter a nuisance stall warning stick shaker event after takeoff or missed approach, the airplane is maneuvered during flap retraction from Flaps 1 to Flaps Up with Engine Anti-Ice ON or Wing Anti- Ice selected ON after liftoff?

A

During flap retraction from Flaps 1 to Flaps Up, limit bank angle to 15 degrees and avoid higher maneuver loading of the aircraft until the Leading Edge Flaps Transit light has extinguished. If a higher bank angle is required during this time, avoid the selection of Flaps 1 to Flaps Up until maneuvering is complete or bank angles are 15 degrees or less.
Note: A non-maneuvering segment of approximately 1 nm during all-engine operations or approximately 2.5 nm for an engine-out operation will allow for flaps to be retracted from Flaps 1 to Flaps Up.

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3
Q

What are the crew actions required If vibration is suspected due to the elevator tab inflight?

A

Reduce airspeed smoothly until the vibration stops, using the thrust levers and pitch attitude. Do not use speed brakes or change airplane configuration to reduce airspeed. Do not reduce airspeed below the minimum speed for the existing flap setting and gross weight. Consider landing at the nearest suitable airport.
Stay at or below the reduced airspeed at which the vibration stopped for the rest of the flight. Limit bank angle to 15° until below 20,000 feet.
Do not deploy the speedbrakes for the remainder of the flight.
Flaps and landing gear can be extended normally during the approach and landing. The speedbrake can be armed for landing

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4
Q

What is the crew action required if VNAV has been armed for takeoff and windshear is encountered with FMC Update 10.8 and 10.8A?

A

If VNAV has been armed for takeoff and windshear is encountered, press either TO/GA switch and accomplish the Windshear Escape Maneuver. If windshear conditions continue above 400 feet AFE, press either TO/GA switch a second time when above 400 feet AFE. Verify TO/GA engagement and continue the Windshear Escape Maneuver.

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5
Q

For the first flight of the day, before starting the engines, which circumstance needs to consider placing the ignition select switch to BOTH?

A

At airport elevations at or above 2,000 feet MSL, if the temperature is below 5°C

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6
Q

What is the difference between CRZ descent and Early descent?

A

If the airplane is more than 50 nm from T/D, if a lower altitude is selected, a CRZ descent will be started if the selected altitude is at or above any FMC altitude constraint.
If the airplane is more than 50 nm from T/D, if a lower altitude is selected, an early descent will be started if the selected altitude is below any FMC altitude constraint.
If the airplane is 50 nm or less from T/D, if a lower altitude is selected, an early descent will be started.

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7
Q

Before connecting ground conditioned air:, what we need to check?

A

PACK switches……………OFF.
Packs can be damaged if they are operated while ground conditioned air is connected.

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8
Q

When making a no engine bleed takeoff or landing with the APU inoperative, or operative but not providing bleed air, what is the Bleed air switches position if engine failure occurs?

A

If engine failure occurs, do not position engine BLEED air switches ON until reaching 1500 feet or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

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9
Q

How can you extend flaps if the captain’s airspeed is erroneously high?

A

If the Captain’s airspeed is erroneously high, the flap load relief function can activate and retract the flaps to the next lower setting from the flap detent selected with the flap lever. In this case the desired flap position can be achieved by selecting the next higher flap detent beyond the desired flap position. For example, if the desired flap position is Flaps 30, select Flaps 40 and the flaps will extend to the Flaps 30 position. This applies for all flap selections protected by flap load relief.
Vol2 9.20.21

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10
Q

When Takeoffs are not recommended, wet or contaminated rwy conditions?

A

Takeoffs are not recommended when slush, wet snow, or standing water depth is more than 1/2 inch (13 mm) or dry snow depth is more than 4 inches (102 mm).

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11
Q

What is the Run up procedures?

A

When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3°C or below, an engine run up is recommended to minimize ice build-up. Use the following procedure:
Check that the area behind the airplane is clear.
Run-up to a minimum of 70% N1 for approximately 30seconds duration at intervals no greater than 30 minutes.

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12
Q

What conditions we do not need altitude correction due to cold temperature?

A

a. While under ATC radar vectors
b. When maintaining an ATC assigned flight level
c. When the reported airport temperature is above 0°C or if the airport temperature is at or above the minimum published temperature for the procedure being flown.

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13
Q

What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot during an ILS approach?

A

800 feet.

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14
Q

Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected?

A

Approach mode.

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15
Q

At what altitude will both A/P’s automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during an ILS dual channel approach?

A

350 FEET

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16
Q

İf a CLB1 or CLB2 is selected, the derate is maintained for the initial part of the climb. When thrust eventually increases to maximum climb?

A

15000 feet.

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17
Q

What does it mean ‘INSUFFICIENT FUEL’ FMC alerting message appears in CDU?

A

A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 900kg / 2000 lbs or less.

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18
Q

When the IRS mode selector is turned OFF, the IRS remains powered for approximately …. seconds. The ……… light illuminates until the system is completely shut down.

A

30 / ALIGN

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19
Q

What is the purpose of the landing gear transfer unit?

A

Automatically use hydraulic system B for gear retraction if No.1 engine is lost and the landing gear is positioned up.

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20
Q

What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation in the main fuel tanks for ground operation of the electric hydraulics pumps?

A

760 kgs in the related main tank.

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21
Q

What is the purpose of PTU Power transfer unit?

A

The purpose of the PTU is to supply the additional volume of the hydraulic fluid needed to operate the autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when system B engine- driven hydraulic pump volume is lost.

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22
Q

When autobrake is initiated with the AUTO BRAKE select switch at RTO?

A

Wheel speed is > 90 kts and thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.

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23
Q

TCAS RAs are inhibited below approximately ……. feet radio altitude. Below …… feet when the TA/RA mode is selected on the transponder panel, TA only mode is enabled automatically and the TCAS message TA ONLY displays on the ND.

A

1000 / 1000

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24
Q

When turning a 737-800 with winglets on the ground, the minimum pavement width for a 180-degree turn is?

A

24.3 meter

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25
Q

Which conditions will illuminate AUTO FAIL light?

A
  • A loss of DC power
  • controller fault
  • outflow valve control fault
  • excessive diff pressure (>8.75psi)
  • an excessive rate of cabin pressure change (+/- 2000 sea level feet/minute),
  • high cabin altitude (15,800 feet)
26
Q

What is the indication of the autothrottle disengagement light is flashing amber?

A

An autothrottle airspeed error if speed is not held within +10 or -5 knots of commanded speed when in flight, flaps not up and autothrottle engaged in MCP SPD or FMC SPD mode.

27
Q

What does the meaning of the Autopilot Disengage light illuminates steady red during an autopilot go-around?

A

The altitude acquire mode is inhibited (Stabilizer not trimmed for single A/P operation).

28
Q

The A/P go-around mode requires dual A/P operation and becomes armed when?

A

FLARE armed is annunciated.

29
Q

At which conditions the Generator DRIVE lights are illuminated?

A

IDG failure, engine shutdown, IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature or IDG disconnected through generator drive DISCONNECT switch.

30
Q

Which sections are pressured with the standby hydraulic pump?

A

Standby rudder actuator, leading edge devices and thrust reversers.

31
Q

What does it mean with the indication of DRAG REQUIRED message on the FMC CDU?

A

The airspeed is 10 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 5 Knots of Vmo/Vmmo.

32
Q

At what range the Weather radar WX/TURB mode displays detected turbulence?

A

40 NM

33
Q

Automatic engine out rudder compensation is provided during A/P approach and landing.
In the event of a A/P go-around, the A/P will continue to compensate for asymmetric thrust until ………………..

A

Another roll mode is selected

34
Q

WHAT IS AUTO-RELIGHT?

A

An auto-relight capability is provided for flameout protection. Whenever the EEC detects an engine flameout, both igniters are activated. A flameout is detected when an uncommanded rapid decrease in N2 occurs, or N2 is below idle RPM.

35
Q

What will happen if the thrust levers are advanced until take off position to hear theTake-off Configuration warning even if the engine is off or IRS not aligned?

A

The weather radar automatically begins scanning for windshear

36
Q

How can APP mode be disengaged after localizer and glideslope capture?

A

a. pushing a TO/GA switch
b. disengaging A/P and turning off both F/D switches
c. retuning a VHF NAV receiver.

37
Q

When does a DRIVE light illuminate? 6.10.9

A

-IDG failure
-Engine shutdown
-IDG automatic disconnect -high oil temp
-IDG disconnect manually

38
Q

Which indications are the primary engine indications? 7.20.1

A

-N1

-EGT

39
Q

Secondary engine indicators?

A

-N2
-Oil temp
-Oil pressure
-Oil quantity
-Fuel flow
-Engine vibrations

40
Q

What is the function of Mach Trim System? 9.20.7

.

A

Provides speed stability at the higher mach numbers. Automatically accomplished above Mach .615

41
Q

What is the purpose of Speed Trim System? 9.20.8

A

Speed stability augmentation system designed to improve flight characteristics during operations with
-low grossweight
-aft center of gravity
-high thrust
-A/P not engaged

42
Q

You landed without arming speed brake. do they deploy automatically and how? 9.20.18

A

Yes
But 3 conditions;
1.main landing gear wheel spin up(60kts)
2.both thrust levers are retarted to IDLE
3.reverse thrust levers are postioned for reverse thrust

43
Q

When is radar windshear detection active on descent? 11.20.13

A

Below 2300 ft

44
Q

What is the maximum hydraulic system pressure? 13.10.3

A

3500 psi
%106 quantity

Refill below %76 (onground)

45
Q

Which systems are powered by standby hydraulic system? 13.20.5

A

-thurst reversers
-rudder
-leading edge flaps and slats (extend only)
-standby yaw dampers

46
Q

What are the conditions that sound take-off config warning? 15.20.6

A

-wrong TE flap config
-skew or flap asymmetry
-wrong leading edge devices
-speed brake lever is not down
-parking brake is set
-stabilizer trim is not set

47
Q

What does PSEU monitör? 15.20.7

A

-take of config warnings
-landing config warnings
-landing gear
-air/ground sensing

inhibited
-in flight
-to power
-until 30 seconds after landing

48
Q

WHEN DOES THE AIRSPEED DISAGREE ALERTS SHOWN ON THE PFD ?

A

Indicates the Captain’s and F/O’s airspeed indications disagree by more than 5 knots for 5 continuous seconds.

49
Q

What is max. Motoring?

A

Maximum motoring accurs when N2 acceleration is less than 1% in approx. 5 seconds.

50
Q

When do all emergency exit lights automatically illuminate , switch in arm position? 1.30.9

A

1) DC bus no 1 fails
2) AC power is turned off

51
Q

Can a passanger open an overwing exit door during taxi? 1.40.62

A

1)Three of the four Entry/Service doors are closed
2)Either engine is running
3)the airplane air/ground logic indicates that airplane is in the air or both thrust reversers are advanced

52
Q

Which lights can be reset by using trip reset switch for -800 aircraft? 2.10.4

A

1)Bleed trip off
2)Pack
3)Zone temp

wing body overheat can not reset

53
Q

Can you operate two packs in fligt using APU bleed? 2.30.1

A

No; on ground operate two packs on flight one pack

54
Q

TR unit light illuminates in flight. What does it mean? 6.10.7

A

on ground- any TR has failed
in flight
* TR1 failed or
* TR2 and TR3 failed

55
Q

What does ELEC light indicate? 6.20.1

A

a fault exists in DC power system or standby power system
* inhibited in flight

56
Q

What is static inverter? 6.20.17

A

Static inverter converts 24 volt DC power from the battery to 115V AC power

57
Q

The engine fails in flight). ENGINE START switch in GRD, IGN R selected. Which igniter is active when start lever is moved to IDLE? 7.15.1

A

GRD- Yerde selected igniter
havada her ikisi
CONT selectd
OFF- no igniter
n2 birden azalırsa
n2 57-50 arası
n2 idle 5 arası olursa both

58
Q

When secondary Engine indicators are automaticly displayed?

A

1.Exceedence
2.Engine start levers cutoff
3.N2 below idle
4.initially receive electrical power

59
Q

When does EEC become energized during battery start? 7.20.2

A

Engine N2 becomes %15

60
Q

Predictive windshear automatically turns on below…..

A

2300 ft RA

But
Alerts issued below 1200 ft RA

61
Q

Windshear alerts during approach or takeoff below..

A

1500 ft Ra