FCTM

Question 1

What type of controls/switches/levers must be crosschecked/confirmed before any action is applied by the PM or PF?

Answer 1

In flight, the PF and PM must crosscheck before any action on the following controls:

ENG MASTER lever

IR MODE selector

All guarded controls

RESET/POWER SUPPLY buttons.

Thrust Levers

Question 2

For Supplementary Procedures, If the procedure is related to engine start, how do the flight crew approach the procedure?

Answer 2

It is recommended to read the entire procedure first, and then:
The PM reads the actions, and

The PF acts on the controls.

Question 3

In handling of OVERHEAD Panel Controls, the technique by the PM After the selection of a control is to what?

e.g PM has to close the XBLEED as part of an Abnormal ECAM procedure, so the PM does AIR/XBLEED/CLOSE, then what?

Answer 3

After the selection of a control, the PM should check the SD page, in order to verify that the selected action was performed (e.g. The closure of the crossbleed valve should change the indications that appear on the SD page).

Question 4

Rules for a Computer reset, what time do you wait if a normal cockpit control is used or a Reset Button is pulled?

Answer 4

Wait three seconds if a normal cockpit control is used, or one second if a reset button was pulled

Question 5

Task-sharing rules for an Advisory?

Answer 5

First Crewmember announces “ADVISORY on XYZ system”.

Then, the PF requests the PM to monitor the drifting parameter. If time permits, the PM can refer to the FCOM, in order to review the triggering conditions of the advisory.

Question 6

what is the position of the BIRD when flying on a 3* approach path?

Answer 6

A standard -3 ° approach path is indicated, when the top of the bird’s tail is immediately below the horizon, and the bottom of the bird is immediately above the 5 ° nose down marker.

Question 7

What is the aim of the Brake to Vacate BTV?

Answer 7

ims to decelerate the aircraft, in order to reach 10 kt, at 65 m before the runway exit that the flight crew has selected

Question 8

When does the BASIC AUTO BRK activate on Landing?

Answer 8

The basic AUTO BRK activates in landing mode when:

The ground spoilers extend and the NLG is on ground, or

5 seconds after the ground spoilers extend, whichever occurs first.

Question 9

How does the BASIC AUTO BRAKE and the BTV disconnect on landing?

Answer 9

Flight Crew disconnect the BASIC AUTo BRK, otherwise the aircraft will decelerate until Full Stop.

BTV can be deactivated by the crew or the BTV deactivates when the aircraft reaches 10kt, which will be 65m from the selected exit.

Question 10

In accordance with SOP, what exit do the crew select when using BTV?

Answer 10

Crew preferably selects a Runway exit after the WET line

Question 11

What happens when the Pilot has selected the runway exit but forgets to set the selection of BTV function on the Auto brakes and leaves the BTV preparation page?

Answer 11

If the Pilot leaves the BTV preparation page before BTV arming, the BTV preparation is lost

Question 12

If ATC changes the Runway late and there is no time to prepare BTV for the new runway, what happens?

Answer 12

As a result, when BTV detects and confirms (at 300 ft) the landing runway, BTV function reverts to HI mode (BRK HI appears on the FMA associated with triple click). If the landing runway is in the OANS database, ROW/ROP functions remain active. Depending on the runway condition and flight crew discretion, the flight crew can disarm BTV function, in order to avoid strong braking (i.e. HI braking mode).

Question 13

In the case of a runway condition change from DRY to WET, and if the flight crew has not sufficient time to prepare BTV again.
If the ROW alert IF WET RWY TOO SHORT is displayed on the PFD and ND, what must the Crew do?

Answer 13

If the ROW alert IF WET RWY TOO SHORT is displayed on the PFD and ND, the flight crew must perform a go-around

Question 14

In the case of a runway condition change from DRY to WET, and if the flight crew has not sufficient time to prepare BTV again and If ROW alert IF WET RWY TOO SHORT is not displayed, what are the Crews actions?

Answer 14

If the flight crew selected an exit after the WET line in the wet zone, the flight crew can continue the approach and land

If the flight crew selected an exit between the DRY and WET lines in the dry zone, they may miss the selected runway exit and vacate the runway at the next appropriate exit.

Question 15

How does the PF deactivate BTV before the aircraft reaches 10 kt?

Answer 15

• Press one of the two A/THR instinctive disconnect pb on the thrust levers, or
• Apply sufficient deflection on the brake pedals to override BTV. Brake pedals are always available in case of emergency.

Question 16

BTV cannot know the type of exit that the flight crew selects (i.e. standard exit or high speed turn off).

BTV uses a reference point to compute the remaining distance (65m) between the aircraft position and the selected exit.

How is this reference point determined?

Answer 16

The reference point is the intersection of the yellow centerline of the taxiway and the runway edge.

The BTV objective is to manage the aircraft deceleration, in order to reach 10 kt at 65 m from the reference point, for all types of exit.

Question 17

What height does the RETARD aural alert sound during landing?

Answer 17

In flare, this aural alert will occur at 20 ft, except in the case of autoland where it occurs at 10 ft.

Question 18

If no AP/FD pitch mode is engaged (i.e. AP is off and FD is off), what mode is A/THR in?

Answer 18

A/THR controls speed.

Question 19

When you change the FCU Altitude target whilst in ALT*, what reversion mode do you get?

Answer 19

V/S (FPA)
note: you get the current V/S. this target does not modify the pitch behavior of the aircraft.

Question 20

You are in NAV, and change to HDG/TRK, what reversion mode do you get in a managed Climb?

Answer 20

Question 21

If you are in Managed modes DES NAV or G/S LOC and select Heading, what reversion mode do you get?

Answer 21

This reversion to V/S (FPA) mode on the current V/S target does not modify the pitch behavior of the aircraft. It is the flight crew’s responsibility to adapt pitch if necessary.

Question 22

What reversion mode do you get laterally and Vertically when THE AIRCRAFT ENTERS A F-PLN DISCONTINUITY?

Answer 22

NAV mode is lost, when entering a F-PLN discontinuity:

On the lateral axis, the aircraft reverts to HDG (or TRK) mode

On the vertical axis, get V/S

Question 23

THE PF MANUALLY FLIES THE AIRCRAFT WITH THE FD ON, AND DOES NOT FOLLOW THE FD PITCH ORDERS, an A/THR mode reversion occurs. What is the A/THR reversion?

This reversion is effective, when the A/THR is in THRUST MODE (THR IDLE, THR CLB), and the aircraft reaches the limits of the speed envelope (VLS, VMAX):

Answer 23

The FD bars will disappear, because they are not being followed by the PF.

Question 24

ROW ALERTS DURING FINAL APPROACH

If during final approach, the IF WET: RWY TOO SHORT message is displayed on the PFD, what are the pilot reactions?

Answer 24

the flight crew must perform a go-around when the runway condition is either not dry or contaminated. If the runway condition is dry, the flight crew can disregard the message and continue the approach.

Question 25

ROW ALERTS DURING FINAL APPROACH

If during final approach, the RWY TOO SHORT message is displayed on the PFD, what are the Crews actions?

Answer 25

the flight crew must perform a go-around. In addition to the message displayed on the PFD, the aural alert “RUNWAY TOO SHORT” triggers below 200 ft AGL to remind the flight crew of the necessity to perform a go-around.

Question 26

ROP Operating Techniques
If the “SET MAX REVERSE” aural alert triggers, can the pilot disregard the Alert?

Answer 26

No.
the flight crew must immediately apply and keep maximum reverse thrust.

Question 27

When does “KEEP MAX REVERSE” aural alert trigger?

Answer 27

At 80 kt, the aural alert “KEEP MAX REVERSE” is triggered one time .

The aural alert “KEEP MAX REVERSE” is triggered to ask the flight crew to keep max reverser deployed below 80 kt.

Below 70 kt, when the flight crew considers that the aircraft can stop on the runway and the PFD message MAX REVERSE is no longer displayed, the flight crew sets idle reverse thrust. Unless required due to an emergency, it is recommended to avoid the use of high level of reverse thrust at low speed in order to avoid engine stall and excessive EGT.

Question 28

The ROP does not take into account the airport layout (e.g. taxiway at the end of the runway), and expects that the aircraft will decelerate with a minimum rate before it vacates at the runway end.

What technique should the PF adopt to ensure the ROP alert does not trigger?

Answer 28

the flight crew should ensure a minimum deceleration rate and reach a groundspeed below 30 kt when the aircraft approaches the runway end.

Question 29

TCAS RA, you get a CLIMB or DESCEND aural alert (corrective), what time does the PF have to react to get the correct V/S?

Answer 29

Smoothly and firmly (0.25 g) follow the green area of the V/S scale within 5 secs

Question 30

TCAS RA, you get a CLIMB NOW or INCREASE CLIMB, DESCEND NOW or INCREASE DESCEND, what time does the PF have to get the correct V/S?

Answer 30

Smoothly and firmly (0.35 g) follow the green area of the V/S scale within 2.5 s.

Question 31

What heights are TCAS RA’s inhibited?

Answer 31

RAs are inhibited if the aircraft is below:

900 ft AGL in descent

1 100 ft AGL in climb.

Question 32

Can you keep the A/P on for a TCAS RA?

Answer 32

Only for a CLIMB RA and you are on approach with Conf 3 or Full Flap.

Question 33

Is the VD data, i.e. MORA and MSA, certified data?

Answer 33

NO. The flight crew should be aware that the use of approved charts (i.e. Electronic or paper charts) remains the primary source of information for safe altitudes, because VD data is not certified data.

Question 34

The MORA displayed on the ND is based on what?

Answer 34

The ND displays the max Grid MORA around the aircraft within a 40 NM fixed radius

Question 35

The MORA or MSA displayed on the VD is what information?

Answer 35

The VD displays the MORA and the MSA along the flight path/ Vertical Cut (i.e. along the F-PLN when in NAV mode, or along the track when in HDG/TRACK mode), in a corridor linked to the RNP value, within the VD range.

Question 36

What is the main reason to turn FD off for a TCAS RA maneuver?

Answer 36

Ensure that autothrust is in SPEED/MACH mode

Question 37

For the IR alignment, what is the difference between a complete alignment and a fast alignment?

Answer 37

complete alignment, the ADIRS uses gravity to determine the aircraft attitude. It then determines true heading, and estimates the present latitude.

Whilst during a fast alignment, the ADIRS resets the ground speed to 0. Therefore, the ADIRS will start the position computation with accurate initial speed.

The ADIRS does not estimate the latitude during a fast alignment

Question 38

When standard Operating procedures require a cross check of the OIS T.O PERF results, what are the 8 items that are cross checked?

Answer 38

Runway ident
This ensures that the runway used for the computation in the OIS and/or inserted in the FMS is the same

Takeoff shift
This ensures that the flight crew took into account the correct intersection

PACKS

ANTI-ICE

V speeds (V1, VR, V2)

Takeoff thrust (TOGA, FLEX, DERATED)

FLAPS

EO ACCEL ALT.

Question 39

When using a Selected Climb speed on the AFS CP, what does the FMS use for its predictions?

Answer 39

When the flight crew uses the selected speed/Mach, the FMS predictions on the ACTIVE/F-PLN page assume a return to the managed speed/Mach at the next climb speed limit or speed constraint where the managed speed becomes greater than the selected speed (e.g. 250 kt /10 000 ft).

Question 40

When in ALT CRZ (on the FMAs), what is the benefit?

Answer 40

Going into ALT CRZ rather than ALT allows the A/THR to go into soft mode, which allows slight speed/Mach variation around the cruise speed/Mach (i.e. +/- 4 kt to 6 kt) while reducing the thrust variations. This optimizes the fuel consumption

Question 41

What cost index equates to Maximum Range in cruise?

Answer 41

Cost index 0

Question 42

If ATC give you a speed constraint in cruise, what will the FMS use for predictions?

Answer 42

If the ATC requires a speed constraint for a limited period of time, the flight crew selects the cruise speed on the AFS CP. The FMS updates the predictions accordingly until the aircraft reaches either the next step climb or the top of descent, where the managed speed/Mach applies again. Therefore, the FMS predictions remain realistic.

Question 43

What is the limitation of the Optimum Altitude given by the FMS?

Answer 43

OPT FL is meaningful only if the flight crew entered an accurate wind and temperature profile.

Question 44

Take Off data

What Take off conditions warrant the Take Off performance to be recalculated?

Answer 44

The following changes in conditions require a takeoff performance recomputation:

– Runway change

– Intersection departure

– Runway conditions deteriorate

When TOGA thrust is used or FLEX thrust with less than 300 metres stop margin available as calculated in TOPA:

– Any adverse change in environmental conditions (e.g. OAT increase or QNH decrease).

When utilising FLEX thrust with a stop margin of 300 metres or greater as calculated in TOPA:

– Headwind component decreases by 5 knots (2 m/s) or more;

– ANY increase in tailwind component;

– OAT increases by 2 degrees Celsius or more;

– Barometric pressure reduces by 2 hPa or more (0.03 inHg).

In the above-mentioned cases, the flight crew must update the takeoff data, and they independently compute again the performance data.

After this new double computation, The PF (if taxiing) delegates the PM to enter the revised takeoff data in the FMS ACTIVE/PERF page.

Before pushback or start is also the right time to perform a final check of takeoff performance data, even if the takeoff conditions are unchanged. To do so:

The PM launches the XCHECK WITH AVNCS function to crosscheck the performance data

The PM compares his/her OIS TAKEOFF application results page with the FMS PERF T.O page. This is in order to crosscheck the runway ident and intersection and the EO acceleration altitude that are not part of the XCHECK WITH AVNCS function.

Question 45

what are key notes about Carbon Brakes wear?

Answer 45

Carbon brake wear depends on the number of applications and temperature.

It does not depend on the applied pressure or duration of the braking.

Question 46

Why is the Max brake temperature 300*?

Answer 46

in the case of a hydraulic leak, any hydraulic fluid that touches the brake units does not ignite in the wheel well after the landing gear retraction.

Question 47

Taxi

If the ETACS does not work, what indications are you using to start a 90* turn left or right?

Answer 47

initiate a sharp turn when the PF sees the taxiway (runway) centerline at the level of the shoulder through the sliding window.

Question 48

Taxi out

What is a technique to check the Global consistency of FMS entries (position and flight plan)?

Answer 48

Check the runway and SID on the ND in comparison to the aircraft symbol that indicates the current aircraft position.

Question 49

Take Off

Prior to 100kts, what is one ECAM that you don’t reject for?

Answer 49

ENG THR LEVERS NOT SET
This may be a case where the F/O is PF and sets FLEX instead of TOGA.

Question 50

Take Off

What pitch does the aircraft lift Off?

Answer 50

FCTM states 10* of pitch, 4-5 secs after initial rotation.

Question 51

Take Off

What gives you better Tail strike margin, Flap 1+F or Flap 3?

Answer 51

Flap 3 gives you a better margin. The higher the slt/flsp config, the higher the tailstrike margin.

Question 52

Climb Phase

When ATC asks “Can you make FLXXX by ZZZ waypoint”, how can you calculate the answer?

Answer 52

The CLB panel of the FMS ACTIVE/PERF page displays time, dist predictions for a given FL, which defaults to what is set on the AFS CP target altitude. This is where the crew puts in the FL asked by ATC to work out the answer.

Question 53

Cruise Phase

What buffet margin does REC MAX FL provide?

And what consideration does REC MAX FL have on cost?

Answer 53

It provides a 0.3 g buffet margin. If the flight crew inserts a FL higher than the REC MAX FL, the FMS accepts the CRZ FL only if it provides a buffet margin of more than 0.2 g.

It does not take into account the cost aspect

Question 54

Cruise Phase

What does OPT FL mean?

Answer 54

is the cruise altitude for minimum cost when the aircraft flies at the ECON speed/Mach.

OPT FL is meaningful only if the flight crew entered an accurate wind and temperature profile.

Question 55

Landing phase

When the runway is wet or contaminated, what stopping systems should be used for landing calculations and landing?

Answer 55

The use of Full reverse, and

If contaminated, HI Autobrake setting

Question 56

Landing

When the Flight crew use a AIREP, SNOWTAM or ESP to downgrade the Braking Performance Level for Landing calculations, can the Pilot use the AIREP, ESP or other complementary information to upgrade a primary Braking Performance Level that was based on Runway Condition information?

Answer 56

the flight crew must not use an AIREP, ESF or any other complementary information to upgrade a primary Braking Performance Level that was based on Runway Condition information.

Question 57

Landing

What report can the flight crew use to upgrade the runway surface condition when calculating Landing performance?

Answer 57

The flight crew may accept an upgraded RWYCC (Runway condition code) reported by the airport.

Question 58

Descent

Is there any thrust adjustment when the aircraft is in the IDLE segment of the descent?

Answer 58

The idle segment assumes a defined managed speed flown with idle thrust plus a small amount of thrust. This provides some flexibility to keep the aircraft on the descent path if engine anti-ice is used or if winds vary. This explains the THR DES display on the FMA

Question 59

Descent

What vertical mode engages when Heading is selected whilst in DES mode i.e ATC gives a radar heading?

Answer 59

The V/S mode automatically engages when the flight crew engages the HDG or TRACK mode, while in DES mode.

Question 60

Holding

What speed does the FMS achieve when in NAV and Managed speed?

Answer 60

The maximum endurance speed is close to green dot + 25 kt and provides the lowest fuel consumption.

Question 61

Cold weather procedures

Is the FLS beam corrected for cold temperatures?

Answer 61

Yes.

Question 62

Approach

When should you chose a Early Stabilised Approach procedure?

Answer 62

Decelerated is the preferred technique for ILS approaches or for NPA flown with the FLS function, in the F-APP or F-APP+RAW cases.

However EARLY STABILISED APPROACH technique is recommended for non-precision approach flown without the FLS function (i.e using FPA)

To get a valuable deceleration pseudo waypoint and to ensure a timely deceleration, the flight crew should enter VAPP as a speed constraint at the FAF.

Question 63

Approach

Can you use NAV guidance during an approach with Navigation accuracy LOW?

Answer 63

No, must be in TRK when Navigation accuracy LOW

Question 64

Approach

When using FLS, F-LOC & F-G/S or even LOC & F-G/S, can you have RAW only capability displayed on the FMA?

Answer 64

No, not authorised, minimum must have F- APP+RAW, unless flying a RNAV with a LNAV/ VNAV minima, in this case must have F-APP only

Question 65

Approach

Vapp adjustments say for shear or gusty conditions, what must the adjustment be between?

Answer 65

VLS+5 minimum to VLS+15 maximum.

Or another way, between Vapp and Vapp+10

Question 66

Approach

When does the PM call “PITCH” during approach?

Answer 66

When pitch attitude is beyond +7 °/ -3 °

Question 67

Arrival & Approach

When you need to update the waypoint sequencing with DIR TO or DIR TO COURSE IN fuction, what must you be wary off?

Answer 67

Using DIR TO or DIR TO COURSE IN function arms the NAV mode. If the NAV mode is not appropriate, pull the HDG/TRK knob to disarm it.

Question 68

Approach

With GPS PRIMARY lost and only NAV ACCUR LOW, what are the major points to consider for an approach?

Answer 68

ROSE LS or ROSE VOR must be displayed on the PF side, optional for PM

Can’t use managed NAV, HDG or TRK only.

Select LS off.

Question 69

Go-Around

What details occur when you commence a go-around and push the Thrust levers to TOGA ( 5 of them) ?

Answer 69

1) The SRS GA and the GA TRK (NAV) modes engage

The GA phase activates on the FMS:

2) The missed approach becomes the active F-PLN

3) At the end of the missed approach procedure, the FMS strings the previous flown approach in the active F-PLN.

4) If not previously engaged, the FD automatically engages with the HDG/V/S reference on the AFS CP

For the go-around, the appropriate flight reference is the attitude, because go-around is a dynamic maneuver

5) If extended, the speed brakes automatically retract.

Question 70

Go-around

If the thrust levers are set to the TOGA detent with the FLAPS lever at 0, what will occur?

Answer 70

The AP/FD remain engaged in approach or landing mode (e.g. G/S, LOC, LAND, FLARE on FMA)

The FMS does not engage the GA phase, and remains in APPR phase

LVR CLB flashes on FMA.

Consequently, as the thrust levers are set to the TOGA detent, the aircraft energy will rapidly increase but the aircraft will remain on its approach path.

In this case, the flight crew must take appropriate actions without delay.

Question 71

Go- Around

What is the SRS mode commanding during a Go-around?

Answer 71

The SRS mode guides the aircraft with a maximum speed of VAPP, or IAS at time of TOGA selection (limited to maximum of VLS + 25 with all engines operative or VLS + 15 with one engine inoperative) until the acceleration altitude where the target speed increases to the CLB speed.

Question 72

Go-around

If the decision after the go-around is to attempt a second approach, what is one of the first actions to ask the PM to do?

Answer 72

Activate Approach Phase

Question 73

Landing

If ROP calls for KEEP MAX REVERSE, when decelerating through 70kts, do you revert to normal reverse procedures?

Answer 73

Despite the potential for Engine stall, an emergency case or if “KEEP MAX REVERSE” sounds, the flight crew must keep REV MAX until full-stop of the aircraft.

Question 74

Landing

DECEL that appears on the lower part of the airspeed scale of the PFD indicates what?

Answer 74

80 % of the selected deceleration rate is achieved.

DECEL is not an indicator of the basic AUTO BRK operation as such, but it indicates that the selected deceleration rate is reached. The DECEL maybe coming from Reversers, spoilers and headwinds

Question 75

Landing

Technique to apply when you experience a light bounce on landing?

Answer 75

maintain the pitch attitude and complete the landing. Keep the thrust at idle. Do not let the pitch attitude to increase,

Question 76

Landing

Technique for a high bounce on landing?

Answer 76

maintain the pitch attitude and initiate a go-around. Do not try to avoid a second touchdown during the go-around. If it happens, it would be soft enough to prevent damage to the aircraft, if pitch attitude is maintained.

Only when safely established in the go-around, retract flaps one step and the landing gear.

Question 77

Take off

Where is the table kept for determining crosswind limits based on runway surface conditions?

Answer 77

In the Limitations section.

Question 78

Windshear

When is Predictive Windshear inhibited on Take off?

Answer 78

Predictive windshear alerts are inhibited when the aircraft speed is above 100 kt and up to 50 ft.

Question 79

Turbulence

What is the technique for cleaning up after T/off when in moderate to severe Turbulence?

Answer 79

For takeoff in high turbulence, the flight crew should wait for the minimum retraction speed (F or S speed) +20 kt (limited to VFE-5 kt) before retracting the slats/flaps (e.g. the flight crew should wait for F+20 kt before they set Flaps 1).