FCTM Flashcards

Question

What does the CRUISE section of a QRH summary highlight?

Answer 1

CRUISE section of QRH summary highlights: - remaining systems - main limitations - flight capability of the aircraft The CRUISE section helps the flight crew to assess the situation and to select an appropriate runway for landing. As indicated in the CRUISE section, the flight crew should refer to the EFB/QRH for: ‐ The evaluation of increased fuel consumption ‐ The landing performance computation at the selected airport

Answer 2

Approach Preparation with the QRH Summary: - review STATUS - use APPROACH, LANDING, GO-AROUND sections to support approach preparation The flight crew should use the APPROACH, LANDING, and GO-AROUND sections of the QRH summary to perform the approach briefing, while they crosscheck the associated FMS pages and the STATUS page

Answer 3

To perform the approach, the flight crew should refer to the APPROACH section of the QRH summary. When the aircraft is in final configuration, the flight crew can rapidly review the LANDING and GO-AROUND sections, as a reminder (braking, NWS, reversers, and L/G retraction in the case of a go-around). Finally, the PM should check the STATUS page and check that all the APPR PROC actions are completed.

Answer 4

The relationship between the pilot input on the sidestick and the aircraft response, is called the control law. The control law determines the handling characteristics of the aircraft.

Answer 5

1. Fly. Navigate. Communicate: In this order and with appropriate tasksharing. 2. Use the appropriate level of automation at all times. 3. Understand the FMA at all times. 4. Take action if things do not go as expected.

Answer 6

The BIRD = Flight Path Vector (FPV)

Answer 7

The ATTITUDE flight reference should be used for dynamic manoeuvres, for example, take-off or go-around. An action on the sidestick has an immediate effect on the aircraft attitude. The flight crew can monitor this flight reference directly and accurately during these manoeuvres.

Answer 8

The FPV is computed from IRS DATA, therefore, it is affected by ADIRS errors. An error may be indicated by a small track error, usually of up to ± 2 °. This can be easily determined during the approach. The FPV is also computed from STATIC PRESSURE information. Therefore, the bird must be considered as not reliable, if altitude information is not reliable. The "bird" only indicates a flight path angle and track, and does not provide guidance to a ground-based radio facility

Answer 9

The TRK-FPA Flight Director (FD) is particularly useful for guiding the aircraft during non-precision approaches, although, it can also be used at other times. When using this mode of the FD, the pilot places the FPV symbol in the center of the flight path director (FPD) symbol. If the FCU is set on the correct track and flight path angle, and if the FPV and the FPD are aligned, they will guide the aircraft along a trajectory that is stabilized with respect to the ground.

Answer 10

On the downwind leg, the flight crew should position the wings of the "bird" on the horizon, in order to maintain level flight. The flight crew should position the tail of the "bird" on the blue track index on the PFD , in order to maintain the desired track downwind. On the final inbound approach, a standard 3° approach path is indicated, when the top of the bird's tail is immediately below the horizon, and the bottom of the "bird" is immediately above the 5° nose down marker.

Answer 11

The "bird" is a very useful flight reference, because it provides the trajectory parameters, and quickly warns the pilot of downburst. In addition, together with the GS MINI protection, it is an excellent indicator of shears or wind variations. The position of the "bird" in relation to the fixed aircraft symbol provides an immediate indication of the wind direction. Therefore, when approaching the minimum, the flight crew knows in which direction to search for the runway. If the target approach speed symbol moves upward, this indicates that there is headwind gust. If the "bird" drifts to the right, this indicates that there is wind from the left.

Answer 12

MANAGED MODE & SELECTED MODE The choice of mode is a strategic decision taken by the PF

Answer 13

There are two main interfaces with the AP/FD: MCDU - Long term interface FCU - Short term interface

Answer 14

Before engaging the AP, the flight crew should: ‐ Fly the aircraft on the intended path ‐ Check on the FMA that the Flight Director (FD) is engaged with the appropriate guidance modes for the intended flight path. If not, set the FD on, and the appropriate guidance mode(s) as required ‐ Center the FD bars with the aircraft symbol on the PFD.

Answer 15

If not using FD orders, turn off the FD. It is strongly recommended to turn off the FDs to ensure that the A/THR is in SPEED mode if the A/THR is active.

Answer 16

The A/THR can only be active, when the thrust levers are between IDLE and the CLB detent. When the thrust levers are beyond the CLB detent, thrust is controlled manually to the thrust lever Angle, and the A/THR is armed (A/THR appears in blue on the FMA). During one-engine inoperative situation, A/THR can be active when thrust levers are set between IDLE and MCT. Here, the thrust levers will be in MCT detent for remainder of the flight. This is because MCT is the maximum thrust that can usually be commanded by the A/THR for climb or acceleration, in all flight phases (e.g. CLB, CRZ, DES or APPR ).

Answer 17

The recommended practice is to use autothrust for approaches. On final approach, it usually gives more accurate speed control, although in turbulent conditions the actual airspeed may vary from the target speed, by as much as five knots. If the pilot is going to make the landing using manual thrust, he should disconnect the A/THR by the time he has reached 1000 ft on the final approach.

Answer 18

If the pilot makes a shallow flare, with A/THR engaged, it will increase thrust to maintain the approach speed until he pulls the thrust levers back to idle.

Answer 19

The recommended technique for setting A/THR to off is: ‐ Return the thrust levers to approximately the current thrust setting, by observing the TLA symbol on the thrust gauge ‐ Press the I/D pb. - OR, If thrust levers are set to IDLE, A/THR is set to off. This technique is usually used in descent, when the A/THR is in THR IDLE, or at landing. If the I/D pushbutton is pressed when the thrust levers are in CL detent, thrust will increase to MAX CL. This will cause an unwanted thrust increase and may destabilize the approach.

Answer 20

The A/THR can be reactivated by pressing the pushbutton on the FCU, and returning the thrust levers to the applicable detent. The thrust levers should be immediately returned to the applicable detent, in order to avoid an ECAM "AUTO FLT A/THR LIMITED" alert.

Answer 21

As a reminder, a "RETARD" aural alert will sound during landing. Normal landing during flare at 20 ft. Autoland during flare at 10 ft.

Answer 22

Use of the FCU pushbutton is considered to be an involuntary A/THR off command (e.g. in the case of a failure). When pressed, thrust is frozen and remains locked at the value it had when the flight crew pressed the A/THR pushbutton, as long as the thrust levers remain in the CLB or MCT detent. If thrust levers are out of detent, thrust is manually controlled and, therefore, unlocked. An ECAM caution and an FMA message trigger during thrust lock: ‐ THR LK appears in amber on the FMA ‐ The ECAM caution is: AUTO FLT A/THR OFF THR LEVERS ......... MOVE and then, if the thrust levers are not moved within 5 s: ENG THRUST LOCKED THR LEVERS ......... MOVE In this case, when the flight crew moves the thrust levers out of detent, full manual control is recovered, and the THR LK message disappears from the FMA.

Answer 23

When the aircraft's angle-of-attack goes beyond the ALPHA FLOOR threshold, this means that the aircraft has decelerated significantly (below ALPHA PROT speed): A/THR activates automatically and orders TOGA thrust, regardless of the thrust lever position. When the aircraft accelerates again, the angle-of-attack drops below the ALPHA FLOOR threshold. TOGA thrust is maintained or locked. TOGA LK appears on the FMA to indicate that TOGA thrust is locked. The desired thrust can only be recovered by setting A/THR to off, with the instinctive disconnect pushbutton.

Answer 24

ALPHA floor is available, when the flight controls are in NORMAL LAW, from liftoff to 100ft RA at landing. It is inhibited in some cases of engine failure.

Answer 25

A/THR should be monitored via the: ‐ FMA: SPEED / SPEED TREND on the PFD ‐ N1/N1 command (EPR) on the ECAM E/WD.

Answer 26

The principle consists in comparing the FMS position with the RADIO position (aircraft real position). Navigation Accuracy Crosscheck The flight crew inserts a radio ident in MCDU PROG page (which provides a bearing/distance relative to FMS position). Then, the flight crew compares these values with raw data received from the NAVAID that indicates the real position of the aircraft . This enables to quantify the error ε. On the ND, the flight crew compares the position of the needle and its associated DME distance (the real position of the aircraft) with the position of the NAVAID symbol and its associated distance, indicated by the range markers (these markers provide a bearing/distance, in relation to the FMS position).

Answer 27

In case of a map shift noticed by specific messages such as "CHECK A/C POSITION, FM1/FM2 POS MISMATCH", the aircraft position may be updated on the MCDU PROG page. Two techniques are available: (1) The recommended technique is to carry out a FMS update over a beacon by pressing the UPDATE prompt once estimating that the aircraft overflies the beacon using the associated needle. The potential error induced is approximately 4 to 5 NM. When the position update is achieved, the EPE is automatically set to a higher value and the navigation accuracy is low. (2) The second technique consists in updating the FM position when flying over a Point/Bearing/Distance (P/B/D) with reference to beacon raw data (Needle + Distance) rather than the beacon itself. The potential for error is far less when the distance is greater than 60 NM. The flight crew will keep in mind the potential 180° error on bearing.

Answer 28

The aircraft Gross Weight (GW) and Centre of Gravity (CG) are computed independently by the FM and FAC.

Answer 29

Mostly: • FM predictions and speeds • Computation of characteristic speeds (VLS, F, S, GD) for display on PFD • Flight control laws MSN 5437, 5460-7961 - GW and CG values FM computed are used for: • FM predictions and speeds • ECAM (GW) • MCDU (GW and CG) • Computation of characteristic speeds (VLS, F, S, GD) for display on PFD ‐ GW and CG values FAC computed are used for: • Flight control laws MSN 1767-5426, 5449 ‐ GW and CG values FM computed are used for: • FM predictions and speeds • ECAM (GW) • MCDU (GW and CG). ‐ GW and CG values FAC computed are used for: • Flight control laws • Computation of characteristic speeds (VLS, F, S, GD) for display on PFD.

Answer 30

The FAC computes its own GW and CG from aerodynamic data. GW and CG FAC computed are used for - minor adjustments on the flight control laws. ‐ On ground, FAC uses the GW FM computed. ‐ In flight, at low altitude (below 15000 ft), low speed (below 250 kt) and flight parameters stabilized, GW FAC computed comes from aerodynamic data. If these conditions are not met, GW FAC computed equates to the last memorized GW - fuel used.

Answer 31

If the GW FM computed and FAC computed differs from a given threshold, a "CHECK GW" message appears on the MCDU scratchpad.

Answer 32

The FOB on ECAM is provided from FQI data. | The fuel figure is updated once the engines are started.

Answer 33

The crew will compare the Load and Trim Sheet (LTS) figures with the FM GW and fuel used: ‐ If an obvious entry error is detected, FM GW will be updated on the MCDU FUEL PRED page. ‐ If FM and LTS GW are in accordance and appear to be correct, the FAC computed GW should be suspected (AOA sensor problem). ‐ If FM and LTS GW are in accordance but LTS GW is suspected, characteristic speeds should be extracted from QRH.

Answer 34

In flight, the rudder controls the yaw, and the vertical stabilizer ensures directional stability. The rudder and the vertical stabilizer are designed to : ‐ Provide sufficient lateral/directional control of the aircraft during crosswind takeoffs and landings, within the certified crosswind limits ‐ Provide aircraft control in the case of an engine failure, and maximum asymmetric thrust at any speed above the minimum control speed on ground (VMCG). Flight crew controls the rudder via a conventional mechanical rudder control. FACs computers provide: ‐ Yaw damping ‐ Rudder travel limitation.

Answer 35

‐ During takeoff roll, when on ground, particularly in crosswind conditions ‐ During landing flare with crosswind, for decrab purposes ‐ During the landing roll, when on the ground. On Airbus aircraft, the rudder control system includes a turn coordination function to achieve acceptable turn coordination.

Answer 36

Up to full rudder deflection can be used to compensate for the yawing moments that are due to asymmetric thrust. Note: At high speed (i.e. slats retracted), thrust asymmetry (eg. due to an engine failure) does not have a significant effect on the yaw control of the aircraft. The rudder deflection required to counter an engine failure and center the sideslip is small.

Answer 37

The flight crew may also use the rudder pedals in some abnormal situations. For example: ‐ Loss of both yaw damper systems. The flight crew uses the rudder pedals as deemed necessary, for turn coordination to prevent excessive sideslip. ‐ Rudder trim runaway. The flight crew uses the rudder pedals in order to return the rudder to neutral ‐ Landing with an abnormal landing gear position: The flight crew uses the rudder pedals for directional control on the ground. In all of the normal or abnormal situations that are described above, correct rudder pedals use does not affect the structural integrity of the aircraft.

Answer 38

The Rudder should not be used: ‐ To induce roll ‐ To counter roll, induced by any type of turbulence. Regardless of the airborne flight condition, aggressive full or nearly full opposite rudder pedal inputs must not be applied. Such inputs can lead to loads higher than the limit, and can result in structural damage or failure. The rudder travel limiter system is not designed to prevent structural damage or failure in the event of such rudder system inputs.

Answer 39

For dutch roll, the flight control laws combined with the neutral aircraft damping are sufficient to correctly damp the dutch roll oscillations. Therefore, the flight crew should not use the rudder pedals in order to complement the flight control laws.

Answer 40

The "STOP RUDDER INPUT" aural alert and red PFD message associated with MASTER WARNING light is triggered when inappropriate rudder inputs are detected. These alerts advise the flight crew to avoid excessive rudder load. The flight crew should react and immediately release the rudder pedals.

Answer 41

The flight crew should select: ‐ ABV in climb (+9 900 ft/-2 700 ft or +7 000 ft/-2 700 ft, depending on the type of TCAS control panel) ‐ ALL in cruise (+2 700 ft/-2 700 ft) ‐ BELOW, if the cruise altitude is within 2 000 ft of FL 410, or in descent (+2 700 ft/-9 900 ft or +2 700 ft/-7 000 ft, depending on the type of TCAS control panel) ‐ THRT in heavy traffic terminal area ‐ TA, in the case of: • Engine failure • Flight with landing gear down (if applicable) • In case of known nearby traffic, which is in visual contact • Operations at specific airports, and during specific procedures that an operator identifies as having a significant potential for not wanted and not appropriate RAs, e.g. closely spaced parallel runways, converging runways.

Answer 42

The flight crew should limit the vertical speeds to 1500 ft/min during the last 2000 ft of a climb or descent, especially when they are aware of traffic that is converging in altitude and intending to level off 1000 ft above or below the flight crew's assigned altitude.

Answer 43

If a RA is generated: ‐ The flight crew must always follow the TCAS RA orders, even: • If the TCAS RA orders are in contradiction with the ATC instructions • At the maximum ceiling altitude with CLIMB, CLIMB or INCREASE CLIMB, INCREASE CLIMB TCAS RA orders • If it results in crossing the altitude of the intruder. CAUTION If a pilot does not follow a RA, he should be aware that the intruder may be TCAS equipped and may be maneuvering toward his aircraft in response to a coordinated RA. This could compromize safe separation.

Answer 44

‐ The PF disconnects the AP, and smoothly and firmly follows the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) green sector within 5s, and requests that both FDs be disconnected. (Both FDs must be disconnected once APs are disconnected: ‐ To ensure autothrust speed mode ‐ To avoid possible confusion between FD bar orders and, TCAS aural and VSI orders) ‐ The PM disconnects both FDs, but will not try to see intruders. ‐ The PF will avoid excessive maneuvers, and keep the Vertical Speed outside the red area of the VSI and within the green area. If necessary, the PF must use the full speed range between Valpha max and Vmax. ‐ The PM must notify ATC. ‐ The flight crew should never maneuver in the opposite direction of the RA, because TCAS maneuvers are coordinated. ‐ In final approach, i.e. "CLIMB", "CLIMB NOW", "INCREASE CLIMB", the flight crew will initiate a go-around. When clear of conflict: ‐ The flight crew must resume normal navigation, in accordance with ATC clearance, and using the AP, as required.

Answer 45

Weather detection is based on the reflectivity of water droplets. The weather echo appears on the ND with a color scale that goes from red (high reflectivity) to green (low reflectivity). The intensity of the weather echo is associated with the droplet size, composition and quantity (e.g. the reflectivity of a water particle is five times more than an ice particle of the same size). The flight crew must be aware that the weather radar does not detect weather that has small droplets (e.g. clouds or fog), or that does not have droplets (e.g. clear air turbulence). Weather Radar Principle The purpose of the weather radar is to help the flight crew detect and avoid storm cells (e.g. cumulonimbus). Due to its large vertical expansion, a storm cell does not have the same reflectivity depending on the altitude. The quantity of liquid water in the atmosphere decreases with the altitude. Therefore the reflectivity of a storm cell decreases with the altitude.

Answer 46

The upper detection limit of the weather radar is called the radar top. The flight crew must be aware of both of the following: ‐ The radar top is not the visible top of the storm cell ‐ The storm cell and associated turbulence extend significantly above the radar top.

Answer 47

The flight crew should monitor both the long-distance and short-distance weather, in order to be able to efficiently plan appropriate course changes, and to avoid the “blind alley effect".

Answer 48

At long distance ahead of the aircraft, the accuracy of the weather displayed is low, due to both of the following: ‐ The increase in the width of the weather radar beam ‐ Signal attenuation. Therefore, the accuracy of the weather displayed is better for short-distance weather.

Answer 49

The tilt refers to the angle between the antenna beam centerline and the horizon. The radar uses data from the IRS to stabilize its antenna. Therefore, the antenna tilt is independent of the aircraft pitch and bank angle. To obtain a correct display of a storm cell, the flight crew must use the tilt knob to point the weather radar beam to the most reflective part of the storm cell. A correct tilt setting prevents the overscanning of the storm cell. At high altitude, a storm cell may contain ice particles that have low reflectivity. If the tilt setting is not correct, the ND may display only the upper (less reflective) part of a storm cell (overscanning). As a result, the flight crew may underestimate or not detect a storm cell.

Answer 50

When flying towards a cell, the flight crew can estimate the vertical expansion of the cloud above/below the aircraft altitude with the following formula: Ht(ft) = d(Nm) x tilt(degrees) x 100 h(ft) is the difference between the radar top altitude and the aircraft altitude. d(NM) is the distance between the aircraft and the storm cell. Tilt(°) is the tilt setting for which the storm cell image disappears from the ND. Example: A weather return that disappears from the ND at 40 NM with a tilt setting of 1 ° down, indicates that the top of the storm cell is 4 000 ft below the aircraft altitude.

Answer 51

Particle reflectivity of a storm cell is independent of the potential weather hazard in the storm cell. There can be a high percentage of humidity in the atmosphere, when near the sea. In this case, thermal convection will produce clouds that are full of water. These clouds will have a high reflectivity, but may not necessarily be a high threat. On the other hand, in equatorial overland regions where specific converging winds produce large-scale uplifts of dry air. As a result, these storm cells have lower reflectivity than mid-latitude storm cells, and therefore can be difficult to detect. However turbulence in, or above these clouds may have a higher intensity than indicated by the image on the weather radar display. The flight crew must not underestimate a storm cell with a high vertical expansion, even if the weather return is low.

Answer 52

The flight crew should carefully observe shapes, more than colors, in order to detect adverse weather conditions. Areas of different colors that are near to one another usually indicate zones of severe turbulence. Some shapes are good indicators of severe hail and signify strong vertical drafts. Shapes that change quickly, whatever form they take, also indicate high weather activity. Examples of potential threat shapes: - closely spaced colors - fingers - hook - u-shape - scalloped edges On a weather radar display, the flight crew should always consider a black hole behind a red area as a potentially very active zone.

Answer 53

To assess the general weather conditions, the flight crew can use manual gain. Manual gain adjusts the color calibration of the radar. Therefore, the weather will appear either stronger (gain increased) or weaker (gain reduced). When operating in heavy rain, the weather radar picture can be saturated. In this case, manually reduce the gain will help the flight crew to identify the areas of heaviest rainfall, that are usually associated with active storm cells. Note: After a storm cell analysis, the flight crew must set the GAIN knob back to AUTO/CAL.

Answer 54

Radar interference may also be known as ‘spoking' or ‘alien radar'. High power external radio frequency sources that operate at a frequency next to the frequency of the weather radar may create interferences. These interferences may result in a not usual return display on the ND. The radar return will appear as a single wedge that extends out along the ND toward the source of interference. The width and color of the interference may differ on the ND, depending on the distance to the source and its strength. This interference does not damage the radar system, and will disappear as soon as the source of interference is outside the limit of the radar scan zone.

Answer 55

Consider a minimum distance of 40 NM from the convective cloud to make the decision for avoidance maneuver. Avoidance technique: ‐ If possible, perform lateral avoidance instead of vertical avoidance. Vertical avoidance is in general not recommended, particularly at high altitude, due to the reduction of buffet and performance margins. In addition, some convective clouds may have a significant and unpredictable build-up speed. ‐ Lateral avoidance: • If possible, deviate upwind instead of downwind. Usually, there is less turbulence and hail upwind of a convective cloud • If possible, avoid the identified “area of greatest threat” by at least 20 NM • Apply an additional margin if the convective clouds are very dynamic ‐ Vertical avoidance: • Avoid flying below a convective cloud, even in visual conditions, due to possible severe turbulence, windshear, microbursts, lightning strikes and hail. If an aircraft must fly below a convective cloud, the flight crew should take into account all indications (visual judgement, weather radar, weather report, pilot's report, etc.) before they take the final decision • For flight above a convective cloud, apply a vertical margin of 5 000 ft from the identified “area of greatest threat”.

Answer 56

Areas of ice crystals are usually next to, or above the core of convective clouds that have high-intensity precipitation. However, areas of ice crystals may sometimes even be several nautical miles away from the core of the associated convective cloud. When ice crystals get in contact with a hot surface, they melt. Depending on the type of surface, a water film may appear. On the windshield, this water film creates not-expected appearance of “rain” at temperatures too low for liquid water to exist. If there is a specific airflow towards a zone of the aircraft where water can build up, accretion may occur and create a block of ice. This is why flight in areas of ice crystals may result in various effects, for example engine vibrations, engine power loss, engine damage, or icing of air data probes.

Answer 57

Areas of ice crystals are usually associated with visible moisture. Ice crystals can be indicated by one or more of the following: ‐ Appearance of rain on the windshield at temperatures too low for rain to exist. This “rain” is usually associated with a “Shhhh” noise ‐ Small accumulation of ice particles on wipers ‐ Smell of ozone or Saint Elmo's fire ‐ Aircraft TAT indication that remains near 0 °C (due to freezing of the TAT probe) ‐ Light to moderate turbulence in IMC at high altitude ‐ No significant radar echo at high aircraft altitude, combined with: • High-intensity precipitation that appears below the aircraft, or • Aircraft position downwind of a very active convective cloud.

Answer 58

If the aircraft encounters ice crystals precipitation despite avoidance action, and if this results in engines or probes misbehaviors, the published procedures and recommendations apply, and in particular: ‐ ECAM alerts related to engine failure or engine stall ‐ ECAM alerts related to probe failure ‐ QRH procedures such as the ones linked to unreliable airspeed indication, engine vibrations, engine relight in flight…

Answer 59

The term "cross-cockpit communication" refers to communication between the PF and the PM. This communication is important for any flight crew. Each time one flight crewmember adjusts or changes information and/or equipment on the flight deck, the other flight crewmember must be informed, and an acknowledgement must be obtained. ``` Such adjustments and changes include: ‐ FMGS alterations ‐ Changes in speed or Mach ‐ Tuning navigation aids ‐ Flight path modifications ‐ System selections (e.g. anti-ice system). ``` When using cross-cockpit communication, standard phraseology is essential to ensure effective flight crew communication.

Answer 60

The aircraft is: ‐ in TRANSIT STOP when the last check list performed by the flight crew is the PARKING C/L ‐ in SECURED STOP when the last check list performed by the flight crew is the SECURING THE AIRCRAFT C/L The flight crew performs only the items indicated by an asterisk (*) in the Standard Operating Procedures (SOP's) when there is no flight crew change and after a TRANSIT STOP. Otherwise, the flight crew performs all the items of the SOP's.

Answer 61

Airbus' NORMAL CHECKLIST takes into account ECAM information, and includes only those items that can directly impact flight safety and efficiency, if actions are not correctly performed. These checklists are of a "non-action" type (i.e. all actions should be completed from memory before the flight crew performs the checklist). The NORMAL CHECKLIST includes 9 flight phases. The BEFORE START, BEFORE TAKEOFF, and AFTER TAKEOFF checklists are divided in two sections: The "Down to the Line" section, and the "Below the Line" section. This format is designed to help flight crews to manage the workload. The checklist actions are referred to as "challenge/response"-type actions. The PF "responds" to the "challenge" only after checking the current status of the aircraft. When both pilots have to respond, "BOTH" is indicated. If the configuration does not correspond to the checklist response, the PF must take corrective action before "responding" to the "challenge". If corrective action is not possible, then the PF must modify the response to reflect the real situation (with a specific answer).

Answer 62

The objectives of the preliminary cockpit preparation are: ‐ To ensure that all safety checks are performed before applying electrical power: • The RCL pb is pressed for at least 3 s to display the cautions and warnings from the previous flight. • The technical logbook and MEL are checked at this stage. ‐ To check the liquid levels i.e. oil, hydraulic and oxygen pressure - To check the position of surface control levers and parking brake. During the Preliminary Cockpit Preparation, the flight crew must also review all OEBs applicable to the aircraft.

Answer 63

The flight crew performs the alignment or realignment of the IRS during the cockpit preparation. This action enables the IRS to operate in the NAV mode and to continually provide the aircraft position. The IRS alignment or realignment includes following two steps: ‐ Alignment: Gyro and accelerometers prepare for the NAV computation. ‐ Position Initialization: Navigation starting point is set. COMPLETE IRS ALIGNMENT: During a complete alignment, IRSs use the gravity and earth rotation to determinate the aircraft attitude and true heading, and IRSs estimate a current aircraft latitude. The IR mode selectors must be OFF for more than 5 s. FAST IRS ALIGNMENT: During a fast alignment, IRSs reset the ground speed and some internal filters to 0, but IRSs do not estimate the aircraft position. The flight crew sets the IR mode selectors to OFF then, back to the NAV mode within 5 s.

Answer 64

DIFSRIP - Data - Init A - FPln - Sec FPln - Rad nav - Init B - Perf This sequence of entry is the most practical. INIT B should not be filled immediately after INIT A, because the FMGS would begin to compute F-PLN predictions. These computations would slow down the entry procedure.

Answer 65

After Engine start, the INIT B page is no longer available. The flight crew should use the FUEL PRED page for weight and fuel data insertion, if required.

Answer 66

The one-engine-out acceleration altitude must: * Be at least 400 ft above airport altitude * Ensure that the net flight path is 35 ft above obstacles * Ensure that the maximum time for takeoff thrust is not exceeded. Therefore, there are generally a minimum and a maximum one engine out acceleration altitude values. The minimum value satisfies the first two criteria. The maximum value satisfies the last one. Any value between those two may be retained.

Answer 67

In case of failure after V1: - continue TO, - no actions before 400 ft AGL except gear up - reaching 400 ft AGL, ECAM actions reaching EO ACC altitude: ‐ If the engine is secured, level off, accelerate and clean up ‐ Otherwise continue climbing until the engine is secured (but not above EO maximum acceleration altitude) at green dot: OP CLB, MCT. resume ECAM, after TO C/L, status ENG OUT routing: EOSID, SID, radar vector, immediate return ...

Answer 68

To achieve a correct seating position, the aircraft is fitted with an eye-position indicator on the centre windscreen post. The eye-position indicator has two balls on it. When the balls are superimposed on each other, they indicate that the pilot's eyes are in the correct position. The pilot should adjust the outboard seat armrest, so that the forearm rests comfortably on it, when holding the sidestick. There should be no gaps between the pilot's forearm and the armrest. The pilot's wrist should not be bent when holding the sidestick. The flight crew must have their feet in a position so that full rudder deflection combined with full braking, even differential, can be applied instinctively and without delay.

Answer 69

On long, straight taxiways, and with no ATC or other ground traffic constraints, the PF should allow the aircraft to accelerate to 30 kt, and should then use one smooth brake application to decelerate to 10 kt. The PF should avoid continuous brake applications. The GS indication on the ND should be used to assess taxi speed.

Answer 70

The maximum brake temperature limitation for takeoff ensures that, in the case of a hydraulic leak, any hydraulic fluid that touches the brake units does not ignite in the wheel well after the landing gear retraction.

Answer 71

BRAKING ANOMALIES: If the ACCU PRESS drops below 1500 PSI, the flight crew should be aware that the Parking Brake can, quite suddenly, become less efficient. This explains the amber range on the hydraulic pressure gauge of the ACCU PRESS. If the flight crew encounters any braking problems during taxi, they should set the A/SKID & N/W STRG sw to OFF. They should not apply pressure to the pedals while setting the A/SKID & N/W STRG sw to OFF. Then, the PF should refer to the triple brake indicator and modulate the pressure as necessary.

Answer 72

Brake fans cool the brakes, and the brake temperature sensor. Therefore, when the brake fans are running, the indicated brake temperature will be significantly lower than the indicated brake temperature when the brake fans are off. Therefore, as soon as the brake fans are switched on, the indicated brake temperature decreases almost instantaneously. On the other hand, when the brake fans are switched off, it will take several minutes for the indicated brake temperature to increase and match the real brake temperature. When the fans are running, the difference between the indicated and the actual brake temperature can range from 50 °C (when the actual brake temperature is 100 °C) to 150 °C (when the actual brake temperature is 300 °C). Therefore, before takeoff, if the fans are running, the flight crew should refer to the indicated brake temperature. When the indicated brake temperature is above 150 °C, takeoff must be delayed. Brake fans should not be used during takeoff, in order to avoid Foreign Object Damage to fans and brakes.

Answer 73

At a convenient stage, before or during taxi, and before arming the autobrake, the PF silently applies full longitudinal and lateral sidestick deflection. On the F/CTL page, the PM checks and calls out full travel of elevators and ailerons, and correct deflection and retraction of spoilers. As each full travel/neutral position is reached, the PM calls out: ‐ "Full up, full down, neutral" ‐ "Full left, full right, neutral" The PF silently checks that the PM calls are in accordance with the sidestick order. The PF then presses the PEDAL DISC pb on the nose wheel tiller and silently applies full left and full right rudder and then returns the rudder to neutral. The PM follows on the rudder pedals and, when each full travel/neutral position is reached, calls out: ‐ "Full left, full right, neutral" Full control input must be held for sufficient time for full travel to be reached and indicated on F/CTL page.

Answer 74

Before taxi, check that the amber "NWS DISC" ECAM message is off, to ensure that steering is fully available.

Answer 75

Pedals control nosewheel steering at low speed (± 6 ° with full pedal deflection). Therefore, on straight taxiways and on shallow turns, the pilot can use the pedals to steer the aircraft, keeping a hand on the tiller. In sharper turns, the pilot must use the tiller.

Answer 76

STEERING TECHNIQUE The Nosewheel steering is "by-wire" with no mechanical connection between the tiller and the nosewheel. The relationship between tiller deflection and nosewheel angle is not linear and the tiller forces are light. Therefore, the PF should move the tiller smoothly and maintain the tiller's position. Any correction should be small and smooth, and maintained for enough time to enable the pilot to assess the outcome. Being over-active on the tiller will cause uncomfortable oscillations.

Answer 77

On straight taxiways, the aircraft is correctly aligned on the centerline, when the centerline is lined-up between the PFD and ND. When the seating position is correct, the cut-off angle is 20 °, and the visual ground geometry provides an obscured segment of 42 ft (12.5 m). During taxi, a turn must be initiated before an obstacle approaches the obscured segment. This provides both wing and tail clearance, with symmetric thrust and no differential braking.

Answer 78

With one tire deflated, the aircraft speed is limited to 7 kt and nosewheel steering can be used. With two tires deflated, the aircraft speed is limited to 3 kt and nosewheel steering angle should be limited to 30 °. For turns of 90 ° or more, the aircraft speed should be less than 10 kt.

Answer 79

IF THE PF IS THE CREWMEMBER IN THE LEFT HAND SEAT: Taxi on the right hand side of the runway. Maintain a ground speed between 5 kt and 8 kt during the entire maneuver. Note: On wet or contaminated runway, it is recommended to maintain a speed of 5 kt during the entire maneuver. Turn left, maintaining a 25 ° divergence from the runway axis. Monitor the approaching runway edge. When the CM1 is physically over the runway edge: ‐ Turn right, up to full tiller deflection ‐ If necessary, use asymmetric thrust (IDLE on ENG 2) and/or differential braking (more brake pressure on the right side) to maintain a constant speed. When the 180 ° turn is complete, align with runway centerline and release the tiller to neutral position before stopping.

Answer 80

If the takeoff has to be achieved without air bleed fed from the engines for performance reasons, but air conditioning desired, the APU bleed may be used with packs ON, thus maintaining engine performance level and passenger comfort. In case of APU auto shut down during takeoff, the engine thrust is frozen till the thrust is manually reduced. The packs revert to engine bleed which causes an increase of EGT to keep N1/EPR. If the takeoff is performed with one pack unserviceable, the procedure states to set the failed pack to OFF. The takeoff may be performed with the other pack ON (if performances permit) with TOGA or FLEX thrust, the pack being supplied by the onside bleed. In this asymmetric bleed configuration, the N1 takeoff value is limited to the value corresponding to the bleed ON configuration and takeoff performance must be computed accordingly.

Answer 81

The Electronic Engine Control (EEC) computer prevents the engine stabilizing between an approximate range of 60 to 74 % N1, in order to protect against fan flutter. This range is called the Keep-Out-Zone, and the flight crew may notice a non-linear thrust response to thrust lever movement. If one lever is moved out of the Keep-Out-Zone before the other, a very slow movement of the levers may lead to asymmetric engine acceleration.

Answer 82

Once the thrust is set, the PF announces the indications on the FMA. The PM must check that the thrust is set by 80 kt and must announce "Thrust Set". The Captain must keep his hand on the thrust levers when the thrust levers are set to TOGA/FLX notch and until V1. On a normal takeoff, to counteract the pitch up moment during thrust application, the PF should apply half forward (full forward in cross wind case) sidestick at the start of the takeoff roll until reaching 80 kt. At this point, the input should be gradually reduced to be zero by 100 kt. The PF should use pedals to keep the aircraft straight.

Answer 83

The nosewheel steering authority decreases at a pre-determined rate as the groundspeed increases (no more efficiency at 130 kt) and the rudder becomes more effective. The use of the tiller is not recommended during takeoff roll, because of its high efficiency, which might lead to aircraft overreaction. Wings must be level.

Answer 84

Rotation is conventional. During the takeoff roll and the rotation, the pilot flying scans rapidly the outside references and the PFD (the better the visibility, the higher the priority given to outside references). Initiate the rotation with a smooth positive backward sidestick input (typically 1/3 to 1/2 backstick). Avoid aggressive and sharp inputs. The initial rotation rate is about 3 °/s. Avoid low rotation rates as this will have an impact on takeoff performance by increasing the takeoff ground run. Once airborne, the PF must then refine and control the pitch attitude on the PFD using FD bars in SRS mode which is then valid. During rotation, the crew must not chase the FD pitch bar, since it does not give any pitch rate order, and might lead to overreaction. The fly-by-wire control laws change into flight normal law, with automatic pitch trim active.

Answer 85

- adverse weather (crosswinds, turbulence, windshear etc) - early rotation (technique or wrong speeds) - configuration (higher flap configuration gives the higher tailstrike margin) - take-off trim setting (forward CG: heavy to rotate, aft CG: early autorotation) - crosswind take-off (care should be taken to avoid using large deflection, resulting in excessive spoiler deployment. A direct effect of the reduction in lift due to the extension of the spoilers on one wing will be a reduction in tail clearance and an increased risk of tailstrike.) - oleo inflation

Answer 86

If a tailstrike occurs at take-off, flight at altitude requiring a pressurized cabin must be avoided and a return to the originating airport should be performed for damage assessment.

Answer 87

At the acceleration altitude, the FD pitch mode changes from SRS to CLB or OP CLB mode. The speed target jumps: * Either to the managed target speed e.g. speed constraint, speed limit or ECON climb speed * Or to the preselected climb speed (entered by the pilot on the MCDU PERF CLB page before takeoff).

Answer 88

If green dot speed is higher than the managed target speed (e.g. speed constraint 220 kt) displayed by the magenta triangle on the PFD speed scale, the AP/FD will guide the aircraft to green dot (as per the general managed speed guidance rule). If required by ATC, the crew will select the adequate target speed (below green dot) on the FCU.

Answer 89

If take-off is carried out at heavy weight, two protections may intervene: ‐ The Automatic Retraction System (ARS) ‐ The Alpha Lock function

Answer 90

ARS = Automatic Retraction System While in CONF 1+F and IAS reaches 210 kt, the ARS is activated. The ARS automatically retracts flaps to 0 °. The VFE displayed on the PFD change from VFE CONF1+F to VFE CONF1. As the aircraft accelerates above S speed, the flap lever can be selected to 0. If IAS decreases below VFE CONF1+F, the flaps will not extend back to 1+F.

Answer 91

The slats alpha/speed lock function will prevent slat retraction at high AOA or low speed at the moment the flap lever is moved from Flaps 1 to Flaps 0. "A. LOCK" pulses above the E/WD Slat indication. The inhibition is removed and the slats retract when both alpha and speed fall within normal values. This is a normal situation for take-off at heavy weight. If Alpha lock function is triggered, the crew will continue the scheduled acceleration, allowing further slats retraction.

Answer 92

During the Slats/Flaps transition, the flight crew must respect the VMAX displayed on the PFD. The VMAX value displayed on the PFD speed scale is based on the Slats/Flaps control lever position. The OVERSPEED WARNING is based on the actual Slats/Flaps surface position. Therefore, during Slats/Flaps transition, the dynamic acceleration of the airplane may lead to a temporary OVERSPEED WARNING even if the current speed is out of the red and black strip displayed on the PFD. In this situation, there are no operational consequences. The flight crew must report any type of overspeed event.

Answer 93

If the aircraft is required to level off below the acceleration altitude, ALT* engages and target speed goes to initial climb speed. The "LVR CLB" message flashes on the FMA. In this case, the crew should expect a faster than normal acceleration, and be prepared to retract the flaps and slats promptly.

Answer 94

The AP/FD climb modes may be either: ‐ Managed (CLB along the cleared FPLN) - Selected (OP CLB, V/S and EXPED)

Answer 95

Whenever V/S is used, pilots should pay particular attention to the speed trend as V/S takes precedence over speed requirements. If the crew selects a high V/S, it may happen that the aircraft is unable to climb with this high V/S and to maintain the target speed with Max Climb thrust, for performance reasons. In that case, the AP/FD will guide to the target V/S, and the A/THR will command up to Max Climb thrust, in order to try to keep the target speed; but the aircraft will decelerate and its speed might reach VLS. When VLS is reached the AP will pitch the aircraft down so as to fly a V/S, which allows maintaining VLS. A triple click is generated.

Answer 96

The EXPED mode is used to climb with maximum vertical gradient i.e. the target speed becomes green dot. Its use should be avoided above FL 250.

Answer 97

The managed climb speed, computed by the FMGS, provides the most economical climb profile as it takes into - account weight - actual and predicted winds - ISA deviation - Cost Index (CI). The managed climb speed also takes into account any speed constraints, e.g. the default speed limit which is 250 kt up to 10 000 ft.

Answer 98

When selected speed is used, the predictions on the F-PLN page assume the selected speed is kept till the next planned speed modification, e.g. 250 kt /10 000 ft, where managed speed is supposed to be resumed. Consequently, the FM predictions remain meaningful. When IAS is selected in lower altitude, there is an automatic change to Mach at a specific crossover altitude.

Answer 99

The speed to achieve the maximum rate of climb, i.e. to reach a given altitude in the shortest time, lies between ECON climb speed and green dot. As there is no indication of this speed on the PFD, a good rule of thumb is to use turbulence speed to achieve maximum rate.

Answer 100

The speed to achieve the maximum gradient of climb, i.e. to reach a given altitude in a shortest distance, is green dot. The MCDU PERF CLB page displays the time and distance required to achieve the selected altitude by climbing at green dot speed.

Answer 101

The MCDU PROG page provides the crew with the MAX REC ALT and with the OPT ALT. This information is to be used to rapidly answer to ATC: "CAN YOU CLIMB TO FL XXX?" The MCDU PERF CLB page provides predictions to a given FL in terms of time and distance assuming CLB mode. This FL is defaulted to the FCU target altitude or it may be manually inserted. This information is to be used to rapidly answer to ATC: "CAN YOU MAKE FL XXX by ZZZ waypoint?" Or 10 NM before ZZZ point?"

Answer 102

When at cruise FL, the AP altitude control is soft. This means that the AP will allow small altitude variation around the cruise altitude (typically ± 50 ft) to keep cruise Mach before a readjustment of thrust occurs. This optimizes the fuel consumption in cruise.

Answer 103

Wind entries should be made at waypoints when there is a difference of either 30 ° or 30 kt for the wind data and 5 °C for temperature deviation. This will ensure that the FMS fuel and time predictions are as accurate as possible.

Answer 104

ETP function should be used to assist the crew in making a decision should an en-route diversion be required. Suitable airport pairs should be entered on the ETP page and the FMS will then calculate the ETP. Each time an ETP is sequenced, the crew should insert the next suitable diversion airfield. The SEC F-PLN is a useful tool and should be used practically. The ETP should be inserted in the SEC F-PLN as a PD (Place/Distance) and the route to diversion airfield should be finalized. By programming a potential en-route diversion, the crew would reduce their workload should a failure occur. This is particularly true when terrain considerations apply to the intended diversion route. When an ETP is sequenced, the crew will: ‐ Access the ETP page ‐ Insert the next applicable diversion airfield with associated wind ‐ Read new ETP ‐ Insert new ETP as a PD ‐ Copy active on the SEC F-PLN ‐ Insert the new diversion as New Dest in the SEC F-PLN from new ETP.

Answer 105

For diversion purpose, the crew can also use the CLOSEST AIRPORT page which provides valuable fuel/time estimates to the four closest airports from the aircraft position, as well as to an airport the crew may define. The fuel and time predictions are a function of the average wind between the aircraft and the airport.

Answer 106

If ATC requires a position report, the crew will use the REPORT page which can be accessed from PROG page.

Answer 107

The DIR TO with ABM facility allows both a better crew orientation and the previously entered winds to be still considered.

Answer 108

The Cost Index (CI) is used to take into account the relationship between fuel and time related costs in order to minimize the trip cost. The CI is calculated for each sector. From an operational point of view, the CI affects the speeds (ECON SPEED/MACH) and cruise altitude (OPT ALT). CI=0 corresponds to maximum range whereas the CI=999 corresponds to minimum time. The SEC F-PLN can be used to check the predictions associated with new CI. If they are satisfactory, the crew will then modify the CI in the primary F-PLN.

Answer 109

When the cruise altitude is reached, the A/THR operates in SPEED/MACH mode. The optimum cruise Mach number is automatically targeted. Its value depends on: ``` ‐ CI ‐ Cruise flight level ‐ Temperature deviation ‐ Weight ‐ Headwind component (e.g. +50 kt head wind equates to M +0.01) ```

Answer 110

A continuous speed decay during cruise phase may be due to: ‐ A large and continuous increase in tailwind or decrease in headwind, in addition to an increase in the Outside Air Temperature (OAT), that results in a decrease of the REC MAX FL ‐ A large downdraft with a vertical speed of more than 500 ft/min, when the flight crew flies (parallel and) downwind in a mountainous area, due to orographic waves will require the flight crew to climb in order to maintain altitude, and the pitch angle and the thrust value increase. Without sufficient thrust margin, the flight crew may notice that aircraft speed decays, but the REC MAX FL is not modified. - The maximum available thrust decreases when there is an increase in altitude. The nearer the aircraft is to the REC MAX FL, the smaller the thrust margin.

Answer 111

REC MAX FL is displayed on MCDU PROG page and reflects the present engine and wing performance and does not take into account the cost aspect. It provides a 0.3 g buffet margin. If the crew inserts a FL higher than REC MAX into the MCDU, it will be accepted only if it provides a buffet margin greater than 0.2 g. Otherwise, it will be rejected and the message "CRZ ABOVE MAX FL" will appear on the MCDU scratchpad. This message may also be triggered in case of temperature increase leading the aircraft to fly above the REC MAX FL.

Answer 112

OPT FL is displayed on MCDU PROG page and is the cruise altitude for minimum cost when ECON MACH is flown and should be followed whenever possible. It is important to note that the OPT FL displayed on the PROG page is meaningful only if the wind and temperature profile has been accurately entered.

Answer 113

Since the optimum altitude increases as fuel is consumed during the flight, from a cost point of view, it is preferable to climb to a higher cruise altitude when the aircraft weight permits. This technique, referred to as a Step Climb, is typically accomplished by initially climbing approximately 2 000 ft above the optimum altitude and then cruising at that flight level until approximately 4 000 ft below optimum. The MCDU STEP ALT page may be called by a vertical revision from the MCDU F-PLN page or from the MCDU PERF CRZ page. The optimum step computation will be accurate if a vertical wind profile has been properly entered. It may be advantageous to request an initial cruise altitude above optimum if altitude changes are difficult to obtain on specific routes. Before accepting an altitude above optimum, the crew should check REC MAX FL and projected flight conditions such as turbulence, standing waves or temperature change.

Answer 114

Fuel freeze refers to the formation of wax crystals suspended in the fuel, which can accumulate when fuel temperature is below the freeze point (-47 °C for jet A1) and can prevent proper fuel feed to the engines. Fuel temperature will slowly reduce towards TAT. The rate of cooling of fuel can be expected to be in the order of 3 °C per hour with a maximum of 12 °C per hour in the most extreme conditions.

Answer 115

If fuel temperature approaches the minimum allowed, the ECAM outputs a caution. Consideration should be given to achieving a higher TAT: * Descending or diverting to a warmer air mass may be considered. Below the tropopause, a 4 000 ft descent gives a 7 °C increase in TAT. In severe cases, a descent to as low as 25 000 ft may be required. * Increasing Mach number will also increase TAT. An increase of M 0.01 produces approximately 0.7 °C increase in TAT. In either case, up to 1 h may be required for fuel temperature to stabilise. The crew should consider the fuel penalty associated with either of these actions.

Answer 116

ACTUAL LANDING DISTANCE (ALD) The ALD is the distance to come to a complete stop from a point 50 ft above the landing surface. The ALD is a regulatory landing distance established during flight tests in non-operational conditions (rate of descent, piloting skills…), not representative of daily operations.

Answer 117

REQUIRED LANDING DISTANCE (RLD) The RLD is a regulatory landing distance based on the Actual Landing Distance multiplied by a regulatory coefficient. It is used for dispatch only. RLD (Dry) = ALD / 0.6 RLD (Wet) = 1.15 x RLD (Dry) RLD (Contaminated) = greatest of [1.15 x ALD (Contaminated) OR RLD (Wet)]

Answer 118

LANDING DISTANCE (LD) The LD is the landing distance calculated in-flight (also called in-flight landing distance). LD wants to be more representative of the landing technique followed by line pilot and so more representative of daily operations.

Answer 119

FACTORED LANDING DISTANCE (FLD) The LD calculated in flight does not include margins. It assumes a stabilized approach in outside conditions consistent with the computation assumptions. In order to cover the variability in flying techniques and unexpected conditions at landing, the flight crew should apply an appropriate margin to the in-flight landing distance (either determined with or without failure). It is the airline responsibility to define the margins that the flight crew should apply on top of the in-flight landing distance. The Airbus recommendation is to add a margin of 15 % to the in-flight landing distance. Under exceptional circumstances, the flight crew may disregard this margin.

Answer 120

THE RUNWAY CONDITION ASSESSMENT MATRIX (RCAM) The RCAM provides the flight crew with a combination of all available information (Runway Surface Conditions: State or / and Contaminant, Pilot Report of Braking Action (PIREP) or Estimated Surface Friction (ESF)) in order to assess the Related Landing Performance Code - Level. ``` The RCAM provides six Landing Performance Codes - Levels: ‐ 6 - Dry ‐ 5 - Good ‐ 4 - Good to Medium ‐ 3 - Medium ‐ 2 - Medium to Poor ‐ 1 - Poor ``` The RCAM also provides the maximum demonstrated crosswind value (gust included) for each landing performance.

Answer 121

In order to assess the landing performance without failure (or in the case of a failure that does not affect landing performance), the flight crew should follow the three main steps described below: 1. Determine the Landing Performance Code - Level using the RCAM, 2. Determine the VAPP by referring to the VAPP computation table without failure of the QRH, 3. Calculate the In-Flight Landing Distance with the IFLD tables without failure of the QRH.

Answer 122

The VAPP is defined by the flight crew to perform the safest approach. It is function of the aircraft: - landing weight - slats/flaps configuration - wind conditions - use of A/THR - icing conditions. In most cases, the FMGC provides a correct VAPP value on the MCDU PERF APPR, when tower wind and FLAPS 3 or FLAPS FULL landing configuration have been inserted. In a general manner, the VAPP value is the sum of the VLS and the APPRroach CORrection (APPR COR).

Answer 123

REFERENCE DISTANCE (REF DIST) The flight crew should determine the REF DIST depending on the landing configuration (CONF 3 or CONF FULL) and the braking mode (Maximum manual braking, Autobrake LOW or MED). The QRH provides REF DIST for a given aircraft landing weight (the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW) of the aircraft family), at sea level, in ISA conditions, no wind, on runway with no slope, without reverse thrust, in manual landing and at a VAPP equal to the VLS of the corresponding configuration.

Answer 124

When the REF DIST is determined, flight crew applies, when relevant, the corrections for each parameter having an effect on the in-flight landing distance: ``` ‐ WGT ‐ SPD - ALT - WIND ‐ TEMP ‐ SLOPE ‐ REV ‐ OVW ```

Answer 125

In order to assess the landing performance in the case of a failure that affects landing performance (LDG DIST … PROC APPLY displayed on ECAM), the flight crew should follow the three main steps described below: 1. Determine the Landing Performance Code - Level using the RCAM, 2. Determine the VAPP by referring to the VAPP computation table with failure of the QRH, 3. Calculate the In-Flight Landing Distance with the In-Flight Landing Distance tables with failure of the QRH.

Answer 126

Some failures affect the approach speed: ‐ Some failures (typically slats or flaps failure) increase the VLS. In this case, the VLS displayed on the PFD (if available) takes into account the actual configuration, ‐ In some others failures, it is required to fly at speed higher than VLS to improve the handling characteristics of the aircraft. This speed increment is to be added to the VLS displayed on the PFD when the landing configuration is reached. VAPP = VREF + ΔVREF + APPR COR

Answer 127

Two different factors affect the life of carbon brakes: ‐ The wear of the disks ‐ The oxidation of the disks. Oxidation may rapidly degrade the carbon brakes and may cause the rupture of a brake disk. The main cause of oxidation is the repetitive high temperature of the brakes (particularly above 400 °C). Therefore, the flight crew should preferably use autobrake LO when performance permits.

Answer 128

The main objective of the approach briefing is for the PF to inform the PM of his intended course of action for the approach. - It should be concise logical - It should be given at a time of low workload if possible, to enable the crew to concentrate on the content

Answer 129

The FMGS calculates the Top Of Descent point (TOD) backwards from a position 1 000 ft on the final approach with speed at VAPP. It takes into account any descent speed and altitude constraints and assumes managed speed is used. The first segment of the descent will always be idle segment until the first altitude constraint is reached. Subsequent segments will be "geometric", i.e. the descent will be flown at a specific angle taking into account any subsequent constraints.

Answer 130

As a general rule when DES mode is used, the descent is monitored using VDEV called "yoyo" on PFD, or its digital value on the PROG page, as well as the level arrow on the ND.

Answer 131

As a general rule when OP DES or V/S modes are used, the descent is monitored using the Energy Circle. The Energy Circle is displayed in HDG or TRK modes and indicates the required distance to descend, decelerate and land from present position on the ND.

Answer 132

If the descent is delayed, a "DECELERATE" or "T/D REACHED" message appears in white on the PFD and in amber on the MCDU. Speed should be reduced towards green dot, and when cleared for descent, the pilot will push for DES and push for managed speed. The speed reduction prior to descent will enable the aircraft to recover the computed profile more quickly as it accelerates to the managed descent speed.

Answer 133

‐ The speed will increase towards the upper limit of the speed range, to keep the aircraft on the path with IDLE thrust. ‐ If the speed reaches the upper limit, THR IDLE is maintained, but the autopilot does not allow the speed to increase any more, thus the VDEV will slowly increase. ‐ A path intercept point, which assumes half speedbrake extension, will be displayed on the ND descent track. ‐ If speed brakes are not extended, the intercept point will move forward. If it gets close to an altitude-constrained waypoint, then a message "AIR BRAKES" or "MORE DRAG", depending of the FMGS standard, will be displayed on the PFD and MCDU.

Answer 134

The speed will decrease towards the lower limit of the speed range with idle thrust. When the lower speed limit is reached the A/THR will revert to SPEED/MACH mode and apply thrust to maintain the descent path at this lower speed. The path intercept point will be displayed on the ND, to indicate where the descent profile will be regained.

Answer 135

In OP DES mode, the A/THR commands THR IDLE and the speed is controlled by the THS.

Answer 136

If a hold is to be flown, provided NAV mode is engaged and the speed is managed, an automatic speed reduction will occur to achieve the hold speed when entering the holding pattern. The default hold speed is the lowest of the following: ‐ Maximum Endurance speed ‐ ICAO limit holding speed ‐ Speed constraint (if any). When no specific speed limit applies, the default hold speed is the Maximum Endurance speed, which is approximately equal to Green Dot and provides the lowest hourly fuel consumption. If the Maximum Endurance speed is greater than the ICAO or state maximum holding speed, the crew should select flap 1 below 20 000 ft and fly S speed. Fuel consumption will be increased when holding in anything other than clean configuration and Maximum Endurance speed.

Answer 137

When the holding fix is sequenced, the FMGS assumes that only one holding pattern will be flown and updates predictions accordingly. Once in the holding pattern, the VDEV indicates the vertical deviation between current aircraft altitude and the altitude at which the aircraft should cross the exit fix in order to be on the descent profile. The DES mode guides the aircraft down at -1 000 ft/min whilst in the holding pattern until reaching the cleared altitude or altitude constraint.

Answer 138

When in the holding pattern, LAST EXIT UTC/FUEL information is displayed on the MCDU HOLD page. These predictions are based upon the fuel policy requirements specified on the MCDU FUEL PRED page with no extra fuel, assuming the aircraft will divert. The crew should be aware that this information is computed with defined assumptions e.g.: ‐ Aircraft weight being equal to landing weight at primary destination ‐ Flight at FL 220 if distance to ALTN is less than 200 NM, otherwise FL 310 performed at maximum range speed. ‐ Constant wind (as entered in alternate field of the DES WIND page). ‐ Constant delta ISA (equal to delta ISA at primary destination) ‐ Airway distance for a company route, otherwise direct distance.

Answer 139

Alternate airport may be modified using the MCDU ALTN airport page which can be accessed by a lateral revision at destination.

Answer 140

To exit the holding pattern, the crew should select either: ‐ IMM EXIT (The aircraft will return immediately to the hold fix, exit the holding pattern and resume its navigation), or ‐ HDG if radar vectors, or ‐ DIR TO if radar vectors.

Answer 141

All approaches are divided into three parts (i.e initial, intermediate and final). INITIAL APPROACH: Check NAV accuracy Select approach type and strategy INTERMEDIATE APPROACH: Manage aircraft deceleration according to strategy Manage final approach path interception Select flying reference FINAL APPROACH: Monitor correct engagement of intended approach modes Monitor trajectory according to approach strategy Stabilize by 1000 ft (500 ft)

Answer 142

The discontinued approach is an alternative technique to the GO AROUND procedure to interrupt an approach when the aircraft is at or above the selected FCU altitude. Contrary to the GO AROUND procedure, the discontinued approach technique does not require the flight crew to set the thrust levers to TOGA detent. The flight crew should initiate the discontinued approach technique with the callout: “CANCEL APPROACH”. The first action of the flight crew is to disengage and disarm any AP/FD approach mode, by pressing on the APPR pb or LOC pb.

Answer 143

DECELERATED APPROACH This technique refers to an approach where the aircraft reaches 1 000 ft in the landing configuration at VAPP. In most cases, this equates to the aircraft being in CONF 1 and at S speed at the FDP. This is the preferred technique for an approach using vertical managed guidance. The deceleration pseudo waypoint assumes a decelerated approach technique. EARLY STABILIZED APPROACH This technique refers to an approach where the aircraft reaches the FDP in the landing configuration at VAPP. This technique is recommended for non-precision approaches. To get a valuable deceleration pseudo waypoint and to ensure a timely deceleration, the pilot should enter VAPP as a speed constraint at the FDP.

Answer 144

The purpose of the intermediate approach is to bring the aircraft at the proper speed, altitude and configuration at FDP.

Answer 145

To achieve a constant deceleration and to minimize thrust variation, the crew should extend the next configuration when reaching the current configuration maneuvering speed +10 kt (IAS must be lower than VFE next), e.g. when the speed reaches green dot +10 kt, the crew should select CONF 1. Using this technique, the mean deceleration rate will be approximately 10 kt/NM in level flight. This deceleration rate will be twice i.e. 20 kt/NM, with the use of the speedbrakes.

Answer 146

If, for any reason, one flight parameter deviates from stabilized conditions, the PM will make a callout. Following a PM flight parameter exceedance call out, the suitable PF response will be: ‐ Acknowledge the PM callout, for proper crew coordination purposes ‐ Take immediate corrective action to control the exceeded parameter back into the defined stabilized conditions ‐ Assess whether stabilized conditions will be recovered early enough prior to landing, otherwise initiate a go-around.

Answer 147

When cleared to intercept the glide slope, the flight crew should: ‐ Press the APPR pb on FCU and confirm G/S is armed, ‐ Select the FCU altitude above aircraft altitude to avoid unwanted ALT*, ‐ Select V/S 1 500 ft/min initially. V/S in excess of 2 000 ft/min will result in the speed increasing towards VFE. In order to get the best rate of descent when cleared by ATC and below the limiting speeds, the flight crew should lower the landing gear and select flaps as required (at least CONF 2 should be selected to ensure that the aircraft speed will not increase). The go-around altitude should be set on the FCU at G/S*.

Answer 148

The Decision Height (DH) is the wheel height above the runway elevation by which a go around must be initiated unless appropriate visual reference has been established and the aircraft position and the approach path have been assessed as satisfactory to continue the automatic approach and landing safely. The DH is based on RA.

Answer 149

The Alert Height (AH) is the height above the runway, based on the characteristics of the aeroplane and its fail-operational automatic landing system, above which a CATIII approach would be discontinued and a missed approach initiated if a failure occurred in one of the redundant parts of the automatic landing system, or in the relevant ground equipment. It is generally stated that if a failure affecting the fail-operational criteria occurs below the AH, it would be ignored and the approach continued (except if AUTOLAND warning is triggered). The AH concept is relevant when CAT 3 DUAL is displayed on FMA. On single aisle Airbus family, the AH =100 ft.

Answer 150

CAT 3 SINGLE is announced when the airborne systems are fail passive which means that a single failure will lead to the AP disconnection without any significant out of trim condition or deviation of the flight path or attitude. Manual flight is then required. This minimum DH is 50 ft.

Answer 151

CAT 3 DUAL is announced when the airborne systems are fail-operational. In case of a single failure, the AP will continue to guide the aircraft on the flight path and the automatic landing system will operate as a fail-passive system. In the event of a failure below the AH, the approach, flare and landing can be completed by the remaining part of the automatic system. In that case, no capability degradation is indicated. Such a redundancy allows CAT III operations with or without DH.

Answer 152

QRH Most of these failures are monitored by the FMGS and the landing capability will be displayed on the FMA once the APPR pb is pressed, i.e. CAT 2, CAT 3 SINGLE, CAT 3 DUAL. However, there are a number of failures which affect the aircraft's landing capability which are not monitored by the FMGS and, consequently, not reflected on the FMA. It is very important, therefore, that the crew refer to the QRH to establish the actual landing capability if some equipment are listed inoperative.

Answer 153

As a rule of thumb, an incorrect seating position which reduces the cut-off angle by 1 ° reduces the visual segment by approximately 10 m (30 ft). A too low seat position may greatly reduce the visual segment. When the eye reference position is lower than intended, the visual segment is further reduced by the cut-off angle of the glareshield or nose.

Answer 154

The use of landing lights at night in low visibility can be detrimental to the acquisition of visual reference. Reflected lights from water droplets or snow may actually reduce visibility. The landing lights would, therefore, not normally be used in CAT II/III weather conditions.

Answer 155

In addition to the standard approach briefing, the following points should be emphasised during an approach briefing for a low visibility approach: ``` ‐ Aircraft capability ‐ Airport facilities ‐ Crew qualification ‐ Weather minima ‐ Task sharing ‐ Call-outs ‐ Go-around strategy ```

Answer 156

PF Tasks The PF supervises the approach (trajectory, attitude, speed) and takes appropriate decision at DH or in case of failure. Since the approach is flown with AP/FD/A-THR, the PF must be continuously ready to take-over if a major failure occurs or any doubt arises. The PF announces "LAND", when displayed on FMA. PM Tasks The PM is head down throughout the approach and landing. The PM monitors: ‐ The FMA and calls all mode changes below 350 ft as required (i.e. after PF calls "LAND") ‐ The Auto call out ‐ The aircraft trajectory or attitude exceedance ‐ Any failures. The PM should be go-around minded.

Answer 157

SOME SYSTEM PARTICULARS ‐ Below 700 ft RA, data coming from the FMS is frozen e.g.: ILS tune inhibit. ‐ Below 400 ft RA, the FCU is frozen. ‐ At 350 ft, LAND must be displayed on FMA. This ensures correct final approach guidance. ‐ Below 200 ft, the AUTOLAND red light illuminates if: • Both APs trip off • Excessive beam deviation is sensed • Localizer or glide slope transmitter or receiver fails • A RA discrepancy of at least 15 ft is sensed. ‐ Flare comes at or below 40 ft ‐ THR IDLE comes at or below 30 ft ‐ RETARD auto call out comes at 10 ft for autoland as an order (Instead of 20 ft for manual landing as a reminder).

Answer 158

Required conditions to continue: ‐ With DH: In CAT II operations, the conditions required at DH to continue the approach are that the visual references should be appropriate to monitor the continued approach and landing and that the flight path should be acceptable. If both these conditions are not satisfied, it is mandatory to initiate a go-around. In CAT III operations, the condition required at DH is that there should be visual references which confirm that the aircraft is over the touch down zone. Go-around is mandatory if the visual references do not confirm this. ‐ Without DH: The decision to continue does not depend on visual references, even though a minimum RVR is specified. The decision depends only on the operational status of the aircraft and ground equipment. If a failure occurs prior to reaching the AH, a go-around will be initiated. A go-around must nevertheless be performed if AUTOLAND warning is triggered below AH. However, it is good airmanship for the PF to acquire visual cues during flare and to monitor the roll out.

Answer 159

Loss of visual reference ‐ With DH before touch down: If decision to continue has been made by DH and the visual references subsequently become inappropriate a go-around must be initiated. A late go-around may result in ground contact. If touch down occurs after TOGA is engaged, the AP remains engaged in that mode and A/THR remains in TOGA. The ground spoilers and auto-brake are inhibited. ‐ With DH or without DH after touch down: If visual references are lost after touch down, a go-around should not be attempted. The roll-out should be continued with AP in ROLL OUT mode down to taxi speed.

Answer 160

For CAT II approaches, autoland is recommended. If manual landing is preferred, the PF will take-over at 80 ft at the latest. This ensures a smooth transition for the manual landing.

Answer 161

The flight crew can use the DIR TO RADIAL IN function to sequence the F-PLN. When cleared for final approach course interception, the pilot should press the APPR p/b on FCU. On the FMA, APP NAV mode becomes armed or engaged and FINAL mode becomes armed. The VDEV or "brick" scale becomes active and represents the vertical deviation, which may include a level segment. The VDEV/brick scale will only be displayed if ILS or LS pb is not pressed. If the ILS or LS pb is pressed by mistake, the V/DEV will flash in amber on the PFD. The final approach course interception will be monitored through applicable raw data.

Answer 162

For a managed approach, FINAL APP becomes active and the FMS manages both lateral and vertical guidance. The crew will monitor the final approach using: ‐ Start of descent blue symbol on ND ‐ FMA on PFD ‐ VDEV, XTK, F-PLN on ND with GPS PRIMARY ‐ VDEV, XTK, F-PLN confirmed by needles, distance/altitude. If FINAL does not engage at the beginning of the final descent, the flight crew should consider to interrupt the instrument approach procedure unless they can maintain visual references throughout the approach. In some NPAs, the final approach flies an "idle descent" segment from one altitude constraint to another, followed by a level segment. This is materialized by a magenta level off symbol on ND followed by a blue start of descent.

Answer 163

When cleared for final approach course interception: - If NAV ACCURACY HIGH: NAV mode can be used. Under radar vectoring, the crew should use the DIR TO FDP with RADIAL INBD facility. - If NAV ACCURACY LOW: Select appropriate TRK on FCU, in order to establish final course tracking with reference to navaid raw data. As for intermediate approach, NAV mode can be used if NAV ACCURACY is HIGH, TRK mode must be used if NAV ACCURACY is LOW. The Final Path Angle (FPA) should be preset on the FCU 1 NM prior to the FDP at the latest. A smooth interception of the final approach path can be achieved by pulling the FPA selector 0.3 NM prior to the FDP. The vertical trajectory should be monitored with altitude/distance raw data.

Answer 164

LOC ONLY approaches may be flown using the LOC signal for lateral navigation and FPA for vertical guidance. DESCENT (CROSSING FL100) The flight crew will select LS p/b on the EFIS control panel. INITIAL/INTERMEDIATE APPROACH The flight crew will press LOC pb-sw on the FCU when cleared for approach and on the intercept trajectory for the final approach course. The flight crew will monitor the LOC armed mode and then LOC capture. FINAL APPROACH Approaching the point where the final descent starts, the flight crew will initiate the descent as for approach using vertical selected guidance.

Answer 165

The flight crew will aim to get the following configuration at beginning of the downwind leg: ‐ Both AP and FDs will be selected off ‐ BIRD ON ‐ A/THR confirmed active in speed mode, i.e. SPEED on the FMA ‐ Managed speed will be used to enable the "GS mini" function ‐ The downwind track will be selected on the FCU to assist in downwind tracking ‐ The downwind track altitude will be set on FCU. Assuming a 1500 ft AAL circuit, the base turn should be commenced 45s after passing abeam the downwind threshold (3s/100 ft +/- 1s/1kt of head/downwind). The final turn onto the runway centreline will be commenced with 20 ° angle of bank. Initially the rate of descent should be 400 ft/min, increasing to 700 ft/min when established on the correct descent path The pilot will aim to be configured for landing at VAPP by 500 ft AAL, at the latest. If not stabilised, a go-around must be carried out.

Answer 166

The "bird" is to be used as the flying reference. The approach technique is the early stabilized approach. The TRK index will be set to the ILS course and, once established on the LOC, the tail of the bird should be coincident with the TRK index. This method allows accurate LOC tracking taking into account the drift. Should the LOC deviate, the pilot will fly the bird in the direction of the LOC index, and when re-established on the LOC, set the tail of the bird on the TRK index again. If there is further LOC deviation, check unwanted residual bank angle. Also a slight IRS drift should be suspected as the bird is computed out of IRS data. The ILS course pointer and the TRK diamond are also displayed on PFD compass. When ½ dot below the G/S, the pilot should initiate the interception of the G/S by smoothly flying the FPV down to the glide path angle. Should the G/S deviate, the pilot will make small corrections in the direction of the deviation and when re-established on the G/S, reset the bird to the G/S angle.

Answer 167

When reaching 50 ft, auto-trim ceases and the pitch law is modified to flare law. The system memorizes the attitude at 50 ft, and that attitude becomes the initial reference for pitch attitude control. As the aircraft descends through 30 ft, the system begins to reduce the pitch attitude to -2° nose down over a period of 8s. Consequently, the pilot will have to move the stick rearwards, so as to reproduce conventional aircraft aerodynamic characteristics. The flare technique is thus very conventional.

Answer 168

Compared to typical sea level flare heights for flat and adequate runway lengths, pilot need to be aware of factors that will require an earlier flare, in particular: ‐ High airport elevation. Increased altitude will result in higher ground speeds during approach with associated increase in descent rates to maintain the approach slope. ‐ Steeper approach slope (compared to nominal 3 °). ‐ Tailwind. Increased tailwind will result in higher ground speed during approach with associated increase in descent rates to maintain the approach slope. ‐ Increasing runway slope. Increasing runway slope and/or rising terrain in front of the runway will affect the radio height callouts down to over flying the threshold used by the flight crew to assess the height for the start of flare possibly causing flare inputs to be late. The visual misperception of being high is also likely. Note that the cumulative effect of any of the above factors combined for one approach will require even more anticipation to perform an earlier flare.

Answer 169

The pilot must ensure that all thrust levers are at IDLE detent at the latest at touchdown, to ensure ground spoilers extension at touchdown.

Answer 170

The recommended de-crab technique is to use all of the following: ‐ The rudder to align the aircraft with the runway heading during the flare ‐ The roll control, if needed, to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline. Any tendency to drift downwind should be counteracted by an appropriate lateral (roll) input on the sidestick. In the case of strong crosswind, in the de-crab phase, the PF should be prepared to add small bank angle into the wind in order to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline. The aircraft may be landed with a partial de-crab (residual crab angle up to about 5 °) to prevent an excessive bank. This technique prevents wingtip/sharklet (or engine nacelle) strike caused by an excessive bank angle. As a consequence, this may result in touching down with some bank angle into the wind (hence with the upwind landing gear first).

Answer 171

During crosswind landings, the reversers have a destabilizing effect on the airflow around the rudder and thus decrease the efficiency of the rudder. Furthermore they create a side force, in case of a remaining crab angle, which increases the lateral skidding tendency of the aircraft. This adverse effect is quite noticeable on contaminated runways with crosswind. In case a lateral control problem occurs in high crosswind landing, the pilot will consider to set reversers back to Idle. At lower speeds, the directional control of the aircraft is more problematic, more specifically on wet and contaminated runways. Differential braking is to be used if necessary. On wet and contaminated runways, the same braking effect may be reached with full or half deflection of the pedals; additionally the anti skid system releases the brake pressure on both sides very early when the pilot presses on the pedals. Thus if differential braking is to be used, the crew will totally release the pedal on the opposite side to the expected turn direction.

Answer 172

Three systems are involved in braking once the aircraft is on the ground: ‐ The ground spoilers ‐ The thrust reversers ‐ The wheel brakes.

Answer 173

When the aircraft touches down with at least one main landing gear and when at least one thrust lever is in the reverse sector, the ground spoilers partially automatically deploy to ensure that the aircraft is properly sit down on ground. Then, the ground spoilers automatically fully deploy. This is the partial lift dumping function. The ground spoilers contribute to aircraft deceleration by increasing aerodynamic drag at high speed. Wheel braking efficiency is improved due to the increased load on the wheels. Additionally, the ground spoiler extension signal is used for auto-brake activation.

Answer 174

The selection of REV MAX is the standard practice for landing. On DRY or wet runways, the flight crew may select REV IDLE, provided all conditions are met and satisfied during descent preparation. Thrust reversers are more efficient at high speeds: The flight crew must select reverse thrust immediately after main landing gear touchdown. Below 70 kt, thrust reversers efficiency rapidly decreases. Below 60 kt with REV MAX selected, engine stall may occur. Therefore, it is recommended to reduce the reverse thrust to REV IDLE at 70 kt, and keep REV IDLE until taxi speed. At taxi speed, and not above, stow the thrust reversers before leaving the runway, in order to avoid foreign object ingestion. However in an emergency case, the flight crew must keep REV MAX until full-stop of the aircraft.

Answer 175

ALD : The Actual Landing Distance is the distance used on a dry runway from the crossing of the runway threshold at 50 ft until full-stop of the aircraft, using maximum manual braking. No reverse thrust is considered for the calculation of the ALD. The ALD is demonstrated during flight test campaign for certification purpose. RLD dry : The Required Landing Distance on a dry runway is a factored ALD. The factor is 1.67. (RLD dry = ALD x 1.67) RLD wet : The Required Landing Distance on a wet runway is a factored ALD. The factor is 1.92 (RLD wet = RLD dry x 1.15)

Answer 176

For landing distance computation at dispatch, the airline uses the RLD. The runway slope is not considered for the landing distance computation at dispatch. On a destination airport with multiple runways, the landing distance computation at dispatch may be performed on the longest landing runway with no wind. The landing distance computation at dispatch (RLD) does not consider REV IDLE operation.

Answer 177

Wheel brakes contribute the most to aircraft deceleration on the ground. Many factors may affect efficient braking such as: - load on the wheels - tire pressure - runway pavement characteristics - runway contamination - braking technique. The only factor over which the pilot has any control is the use of the correct braking technique.

Answer 178

The anti-skid system adapts pilot applied brake pressure to runway conditions by sensing an impending skid condition and adjusting the brake pressure to each individual wheel as required. The anti-skid system maintains the skidding factor (slip ratio) close to the maximum friction force point. This will provide the optimum deceleration with respect to the pilot input. Full pedal braking with anti-skid provides a deceleration rate of 10 kt/sec.

Answer 179

‐ The use of A/BRAKE is usually preferable because it minimizes the number of brake applications and thus reduces brake wear. - The A/BRAKE provides a symmetrical brake pressure application which ensures an equal braking effect on both main landing gear wheels on wet or evenly contaminated runway. - The A/BRAKE is recommended on short, wet, contaminated runway, in poor visibility conditions and in Auto land. ‐ The use of LO auto brake should be preferred on long and dry runways whereas the use of MED auto brake should be preferred for short or contaminated runways. The use of MAX auto brake is not recommended. ‐ In case of manual braking, do not ride the brakes but apply pedal braking when required and modulate the pressure without releasing. This minimizes brake wear. Note: In the case of uneven contamination on a wet or contaminated runway, the autobrake may laterally destabilize the aircraft. If this occurs, consider deselecting the autobrake.

Answer 180

The green DECEL light comes on when the actual deceleration is 80 % of the selected rate. The DECEL light is not an indicator of the autobrake operation as such, but that the deceleration rate is reached. For example, the DECEL light might not appear when the autobrake is selected on a contaminated runway, because the deceleration rate is not reached with the autobrake properly functioning. Whereas the DECEL light might appear with LO selected on a dry runway while only the reversers achieve the selected deceleration rate without autobrake being actually activated.

Answer 181

Deviations from normal landing techniques are the most common causes of tail strikes. The main reasons for this are due to: ‐ Allowing the speed to decrease well below VAPP before flare means high angle of attack and high pitch attitude, thus reducing ground clearance. When reaching the flare height, the pilot will have to significantly increase the pitch attitude to reduce the sink rate. This may cause the pitch to go beyond the critical angle. ‐ Prolonged hold off for a smooth touch down can lead to a pitch attitude increase beyond the critical angle. ‐ Too high flare can result in a combined decrease in airspeed and a long float. Since both lead to an increase in pitch attitude, the result is reduced tail clearance. ‐ Too high sink rate, just prior reaching the flare height the pilot may attempt to avoid a firm touch down by commanding a high pitch rate. ‐ Bouncing at touch down, the pilot may be tempted to increase the pitch attitude to ensure a smooth second touch down.

Answer 182

The following aircraft systems help to prevent tail strike occurrence: ‐ A "PITCH-PITCH" synthetic voice sounds when the pitch attitude becomes excessive, ‐ A tail strike pitch limit indicator appears on the PFD to indicate the maximum pitch attitude to avoid a tail strike. This design is installed as an option on A320 and A321.

Answer 183

In case of light bounce, maintain the pitch attitude and complete the landing, while keeping the thrust at idle. Do not allow the pitch attitude to increase, particularly following a firm touch down with a high pitch rate. In case of high bounce, maintain the pitch attitude and initiate a go-around. Do not try to avoid a second touch down during the go-around. Should it happen, it would be soft enough to prevent damage to the aircraft, if pitch attitude is maintained. Only when safely established in the go-around, retract flaps one step and the landing gear. A landing should not be attempted immediately after high bounce, as thrust may be required to soften the second touch down and the remaining runway length may be insufficient to stop the aircraft.

Answer 184

For all Non Precision Approaches, there is a minimum OAT. Below this temperature, the error on the barometric altitude is no longer acceptable, and altitude should be corrected in temperature. As it is not authorized to make these altitude corrections to the final approach segment of the FM Flight Plan (F-PLN) through the MCDU, it is not possible to use FINAL APP when OAT is below this minimum OAT. The flight crew must then use selected vertical guidance. This minimum OAT is indicated on the approach chart or must be defined by the operator based on the terrain profile (plus adequate margin).

Answer 185

The flight crew must consider to perform a go-around if: ‐ There is a loss or a doubt about situation awareness, or ‐ There is a malfunction which jeopardizes the safe completion of the approach e.g. major navigation problem, or ‐ ATC changes the final approach clearance resulting in rushed action from the crew or potentially unstable approach, or ‐ The approach is unstable in speed, altitude, or flight path in such a way that stability is not obtained by 1 000 ft AAL in IMC or (500 ft AAL in VMC), or is not maintained until landing, or ‐ Any of the following alerts occur: • GPWS, or • TCAS, or • Windshear - Adequate visual references are not obtained at minima or lost below minima.

Answer 186

When the thrust levers are set to the TOGA detent, and provided the real slats/flaps configuration is different from clean configuration, all of the following occur: ‐ If the autopilot or the flight director is in use, SRS and GA TRK(NAV) modes engage. ‐ If the autopilot and both flight directors are off, the PF will maintain 15 ° of pitch. ‐ The GA phase activates on the FMS: • The missed approach becomes the active F-PLN • At the end of the missed approach procedure, the FMS strings the previous flown approach in the active F-PLN. ‐ If not previously engaged, the FD automatically engages with the HDG/VS reference on the FCU. - If extended, the speed brakes automatically retract.

Answer 187

GO-AROUND WITH FD ON The SRS mode guides the aircraft with the highest speed of VAPP or IAS at time of TOGA selection (limited to maximum of VLS +25 with all engines operative or VLS +15 with one engine inoperative with FMS 2) until the acceleration altitude where the target speed increases to green dot. Some FMS misbehavior may prevent this automatic target speed increase. Should this occur, pulling the FCU ALT knob for OP CLB manually disengages SRS mode and allows the target speed to increase to green dot. It should be noted however, that the target speed increases to green dot speed as soon as ALT* mode engages when approaching the FCU clearance altitude. The missed approach route becomes the ACTIVE F-PLN provided the waypoints have been correctly sequenced on the approach.

Answer 188

Go-Around at Vapp and Stabilized thrust ~ 10 feet Go-Around at Vapp and Idle thrust ~ 35-40 feet

Answer 189

The purpose of leaving the go-around phase is to obtain the proper target speed and proper predictions depending upon the strategy chosen by the crew. During the missed approach, the crew will elect either of the following strategies: ‐ Fly a second approach ‐ Carry out a diversion. If a second approach is to be flown, the crew will activate the approach phase in the MCDU PERF GO-AROUND page. The FMS switches to Approach phase and the target speed moves according to the flaps lever setting, e.g. green dot for Flaps 0. If a diversion is to be flown: ‐ If the crew has prepared the ALTN FPLN in the active F-PLN, a lateral revision at the TO WPT is required to access the ENABLE ALTN prompt. ‐ If the crew has prepared the ALTN FPLN in the SEC F-PLN, the SEC F-PLN will be activated, and a DIR TO performed as required. AP/FD must be in HDG mode for the ACTIVATE SEC F-PLN prompt to be displayed. ‐ If the crew has not prepared the ALTN FPLN, a selected climb will be initiated. Once established in climb and clear of terrain, the crew will make a lateral revision at any waypoint to insert a NEW DEST. The route and a CRZ FL (on PROG page) can be updated as required.

Answer 190

Slush, standing water, or deep snow reduces the aircraft takeoff performance because of increased rolling resistance and the reduction in tire-to-ground friction. A higher flap setting increases the runway limited takeoff weight, but reduces second the segment limited takeoff weight.

Answer 191

Whenever icing conditions are encountered or expected, the engine anti-ice should be turned on. Although the TAT before entering clouds may not require engine anti-ice, flight crews should be aware that the TAT often decreases significantly, when entering clouds. If the recommended anti-ice procedures are not performed, engine stall, over-temperature, or engine damage may occur. Wing anti-ice should be turned on, if either severe ice accretion is expected, or if there is any indication of icing on the airframe. HOLDING: If holding is performed in icing conditions, the flight crew should maintain clean configuration. This is because prolonged flight in icing conditions with the slats extended should be avoided. APPROACH: If significant ice accretion develops on parts of the wing, the aircraft speed must be increased.

Answer 192

The ADIRS computes the FPA from inertial data and barometric altitude. When the temperature is lower than ISA: ‐ The true altitude of the aircraft is lower than the altitude that the ADIRS computes. ‐ The FPA that the aircraft actually flies, is less steep than the FPA that the ADIRS computes.

Answer 193

Severe turbulence is defined as turbulence that causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. It usually causes large variations in airspeed. If severe turbulence occurs during a flight, the flight crew must make a logbook entry in order to initiate maintenance action.

Answer 194

If turbulence is expected: ‐ The flight crew must set the SEAT BELTS sw to ON, in order to prepare passengers and prevent injuries ‐ All loose equipment must be secured in the cockpit and in the cabin. For takeoff in high turbulence, the flight crew must wait for the target speed +20 kt (limited to VFE-5) before retracting the slats/flaps. If severe turbulence is encountered, the flight crew should keep the AP engaged. Thrust levers should be set to turbulence N1 (Refer to QRH), and the A/THR should then be disconnected. Use of the A/THR is, however, recommended during approach, in order to benefit from the GS mini. If the aircraft is flown manually, the flight crew should be aware of the fact that flight control laws are designed to cope with turbulence. Therefore, they should avoid the temptation to fight turbulence, and should not over-control the sidestick. CONF FULL provides better handling capability in turbulent conditions, however, CONF 3 provides more energy and less drag.

Answer 195

The windshear is mostly due to cool shaft of air, like a cylinder between 0.5 NM and 1.5 NM width that is moving downward. When the air encounters the ground: ‐ Mushrooms horizontally, causing horizontal wind gradient ‐ Curls inward at the edges, causing vertical air mass movement. Flight safety is affected, because: ‐ Horizontal wind gradient significantly affects lift, causing the aircraft to descend or to reach very high AOA. ‐ Vertical air mass movement severely affect the aircraft flight path.

Answer 196

The strategy to cope with windshear is: ‐ Increasing flight crew awareness through the Predictive Windshear System (if available) ‐ Informing the flight crew of unexpected air mass variations through FPV and approach speed variations ‐ Warning the flight crew of significant loss of energy through "SPEED, SPEED, SPEED" and "WINDSHEAR" aural warnings (if available). ‐ Providing effective tools to escape the shear through ALPHA FLOOR protection, SRS pitch order, high AOA protection and Ground Speed mini protection.

Answer 197

When the airshaft of a microburst reaches the ground, it mushrooms outward carrying with it a large number of falling rain droplets. The radar can measure speed variations of the droplets, and as a result, assess wind variations. This predictive capability to assess wind variations is performed by the Predictive Windshear System (PWS). The PWS automatically operates below a given altitude, if the radar is ON or OFF, provided that the PWS sw is in the AUTO position.

Answer 198

The "SPEED, SPEED, SPEED" low energy warning is based on the aircraft speed, acceleration and flight path angle. This warning attracts the PF eyes to the speed scale, and request rapid thrust adjustment. In windshear conditions, it is the first warning to appear, before the activation of the alpha floor. Typical values of the speed at which the warning could occur: Deceleration Rate : Flight Path Angle : Warning -1 kt/second : -3 °. : VLS -7 kt -1 kt/second : -4 ° : VLS -1 kt

Answer 199

There are three efficient tools to assist the flight crew to escape: ‐ The alpha floor protection ‐ the SRS AP/FD pitch law ‐ The high angle of attack protection When the alpha floor protection is triggered, the A/THR triggers TOGA on all engines. The FMA displays A FLOOR, that changes to TOGA LK, when the aircraft angle-of-attack has decreased. TOGA/LK can only be deselected by turning the A/THR off. The SRS pitch mode ensures the best aircraft climb performance. The high angle-of-attack protection enables the PF to safely pull full aft stick, if needed, in order to follow the SRS pitch order, or to rapidly counteract a down movement. This provides maximum lift and minimum drag, by automatically retracting the speed brakes, if they are extended.

Answer 200

In the case of suspected windshear or if the predictive windshear aural alert “MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY" is triggered (alert is inhibited when the speed is greater than 100 kt and altitude is below 50 kt), the flight crew: ‐ Must set TOGA ‐ Can change the aircraft configuration, provided that the aircraft does not enter windshear.

Answer 201

If the predictive windshear aural alert “WINDSHEAR AHEAD" is triggered during the takeoff roll up to 100 kt, the captain must reject the takeoff (the aural alert is inhibited when the speed is greater than 100 kt and altitude is below 50 ft). If the predictive windshear aural alert “WINDSHEAR AHEAD" is triggered above 50 ft, the flight crew must set TOGA. The flight crew can change the aircraft configuration, provided that the aircraft does not enter windshear. During Approach, either delay the approach or divert to another airport. Use the most favorable runway and consider config 3. The flight crew may increase VAPP displayed on MCDU PERF APP page up to a maximum VLS +15 kt in case of strong or gusty crosswind greater than 20 kt.

Answer 202

‐ If windshear occurs before V1 with significant speed and speed trend variations and the captain decides that there is sufficient runway to stop the airplane, the captain must initiate a rejected take-off. ‐ If windshear occurs after V1, the flight crew must set TOGA. The following points should be stressed: • Rotate normally • The PF must fly SRS pitch orders rapidly and smoothly, but not aggressively • The configuration should not be changed until definitely out of the shear, because operating the landing gear doors causes additional drag • The PM should call wind variations from the ND and V/S • When out of the shear, the PF should recover smoothly to a normal climb and the PM should report the encounter to ATC. If the predictive windshear aural alert “GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD" is triggered during approach, the flight crew must set TOGA for go-around. The flight crew can change the aircraft configuration, provided that the aircraft does not enter windshear:

Answer 203

The flight crew should select the takeoff configuration that: ‐ Optimizes takeoff performance (takeoff weight, etc.) ‐ If possible, increases flexible temperature ‐ Reduces takeoff speed (higher configuration for a dedicated flexible temperature). A higher slats and flaps configuration (i.e. slats and flaps more extended) slightly increases fuel consumption. But, with a higher flexible temperature, such a higher configuration results in a cost reduction.

Answer 204

Takeoff with flexible thrust increases fuel consumption compared with takeoff with TOGA thrust, due to the longer takeoff phase. But the use of flexible thrust reduces engine wear and reduces general costs.

Answer 205

If the APU is necessary during or after taxi (e.g. when takeoff performance requires APU bleed), the flight crew may set the APU bleed to ON, in order to reduce fuel consumption. This opens the crossbleed valve and automatically closes the engine bleed. As the bleed air is not supplied by the engines, the fuel consumption is reduced. However, the use of APU bleed can lead to exhaust gases ingestion into the air conditioning system.

Answer 206

CONF 3 + REV IDLE + Autobrake LO

Answer 207

If the flight crew needs to reduce the landing distance, they should consider to use the deceleration devices in the following order: 1. FLAPS FULL 2. REV MAX 3. Autobrake MED.

Answer 208

OPTIMUM SPEED: In clean configuration, the flight crew should fly at Green Dot speed, in order to optimize the Lift-to-Drag ratio, i.e. Fly at optimum speed.

Answer 209

The primary objective of a touch and go is to practice approach and landing. The flight crew should pay attention to the following remarks when they perform a touch and go: ‐ The decision speed (V1) does not apply to touch and go. The PFD does not display V1 during the roll phase of a touch and go. Therefore, the flight crew should be go-minded. ‐ If the instructor wants to abandon the touch and go, the instructor calls “STOP – I HAVE CONTROL". The decision to discontinue a touch and go after the application of TOGA must only be taken if the instructor is sure that the aircraft cannot safely fly. ‐ If the trainee selects reverse thrust, the flight crew must perform a full-stop landing.

Answer 210

‐ Perform usual flare and landing technique ‐ Maintain the runway centerline. ‐ Disarm the ground spoilers at nosewheel touchdown ‐ Order “STAND UP". Move forward the thrust levers approximately 5 cm (2 in), in order to prevent the reduction of engines to ground idle. ‐ Set flaps configuration for takeoff (Config 2) ‐ If necessary, reset the rudder trim ‐ Monitor/adjust the pitch trim movement towards the green band ‐ Place one hand behind the thrust levers to ensure that they are advanced to approximately 5 cm (2 in) ‐ Order “GO" when the aircraft is in the correct configuration (pitch trim, rudder trim and flaps). - Set TOGA thrust. - Remove the hand from the thrust levers. ‐ Check engine parameters and announce “THRUST SET" ‐ Order “ROTATE" at VAPP ‐ Maintain the hand behind the thrust levers to protect against an inadvertent stop. - Rotate the aircraft and target takeoff pitch attitude, then follow SRS.

Answer 211

Should a single FMGC failure occurs, the AP, if engaged on affected side, will disconnect. The AP will be restored using the other FMGC. The A/THR remains operative. Furthermore, flight plan information on the affected ND may be recovered by using same range as the opposite ND. The crew should consider a FMGC reset as detailed in QRH.

Answer 212

Should a dual FMGC failure occurs, the AP/FD and A/THR will disconnect. The crew will try to recover both AP and A/THR by selecting them back ON (The AP and A/THR can be recovered if the FG parts of the FMGS are still available). If both AP and A/THR cannot be recovered, the thrust levers will be moved to recover manual thrust. The pilot will switch off the FDs and select TRK / FPA to allow the blue track index and the bird to be displayed. The RMPs will be used to tune the NAVAIDs. The crew will refer to the QRH for system reset considerations and then will refer to FCOM to reload both FMGC as required.

Answer 213

The emergency electrical configuration is due to the loss of AC BUS 1 and 2. The RAT extends automatically. This powers the blue hydraulic circuit which drives the emergency generator. The emergency generator supplies both AC and DC ESS BUS. Below 125 kt, the RAT stalls and the emergency generator is no longer powered. The emergency generation network is automatically transferred to the batteries and AC SHED ESS and DC SHED ESS BUS are shed. Below 100 kt, the DC BAT BUS is automatically connected and below 50 kt, the AC ESS BUS is shed.

Answer 214

- The handling of this failure is referred to as a "complex procedure" - As only PFD1 is available, the left hand seat pilot becomes PF. - MAYDAY to ATC - AP/FD and ATHR are lost. The flight is to be completed manually in alternate and then, when gear down, in direct law. - As only the EWD is available, disciplined use of the ECAM Control Panel (ECP) is essential. - Consideration should be given to starting the APU as indicated by the ECAM and taking into account the probability to restore using APU generator. - A clear reading of STATUS is essential to assess the aircraft status and properly sequence actions during the approach. - A summary with SYS remaining for handling the procedure is included in the QRH, which will be referred to upon completion of the ECAM procedure. - The approach speed must be at least min RAT speed (140 kt) to keep the emergency generator supplying the electrical network. - The BSCU are lost. Consequently, the NWS and anti skid are lost. Alternate braking with yellow hydraulic pressure modulation up to 1 000 PSI will be used. - Additionally, reversers are not available. - RA 1+2 are lost with their associated call out. Call out will be made by PM. - Approaching 50 kt during the landing roll, all CRTs will be lost.

Answer 215

Significant remaining systems in ELEC EMER CONFIG: FLY PFD1, alternate law NAVIGATE ND1, FMGC1, RMP1, VOR1/ILS1, DME1 COMMUNICATE VHF1, HF1, ATC1 On BAT, some additional loads are lost such as FAC1 and FMGC1.

Answer 216

Except if a procedure requires an engine shutdown, it is usually preferable to keep the engine running. Even at idle, the engine powers the hydraulic, electric, and bleed systems. In addition, if the flight crew is not sure which engine has a malfunction, the flight crew should keep the engines running. If really damaged, the affected engine will eventually fail.

Answer 217

The all engines failure is the situation where the aircraft entirely or partially loses engine thrust, and is no longer able to maintain level flight. The all engines failure can be identified by the Flight Warning Computer (FWC) or by the flight crew: 1. Mostly FWC displays: ENG ALL ENGINES FAILURE ECAM or ENG DUAL FAIL 2. In some cases, the FWC does not detect the all engines failure condition. In the case of partial loss of thrust (no engine flame out) on one or more engines, the residual N2 may remain slightly above the ENG 1(2) FAIL alert threshold. Even if the ENG ALL ENGINES FAILURE or ENG DUAL FAIL alert is not triggered, the flight crew must rapidly decide to apply either the ALL ENG FAIL QRH procedure, or the EMER LANDING QRH procedure, depending on their assessment of the situation. If the flight crew considers there is sufficient time to attempt an engine relight, they must apply the ALL ENG FAIL QRH procedure. However, if the flight crew considers there is not sufficient time to attempt an engine relight, they must apply the EMER LANDING QRH procedure.

Answer 218

An all engines failure situation mainly results in an emergency electrical configuration and in the loss of the green and yellow hydraulic systems. ELECTRICAL CONFIGURATION In the case of an all engines failure: ‐ All the AC busbars are lost ‐ The RAT automatically deploys to supply the emergency generator. The EMER GEN supplies both the AC ESS and the DC ESS bus bars. The AC ESS SHED bus bar and DC ESS SHED bus bar are: ‐ Supplied by the CSM/G ‐ Shed, when the aircraft is supplied only by batteries. The emergency generator can supply all the electrical loads that are necessary for the remainder of the flight. The EMER GEN, that is connected to the network, remains connected even if all the main generators are recovered (following engines relight), or if the APU generator is connected. Below FL 250, if the flight crew can start the APU, the normal electrical configuration partly recovers. HYDRAULIC GENERATION The green and yellow hydraulic systems are lost. The RAT automatically deploys to pressurize the blue hydraulic system. When the hydraulic power is lost, the right aileron is lost and goes to its zero hinge moment position. There is enough authority to balance this roll, but instead of flying with permanent stick deflection in roll, the PF may use the rudder trim to generate sideslip and therefore compensate for this upfloating aileron. When the APU generator is connected, the control of the right aileron is restored due to the recovery of ELAC 2. As hydraulic power is only available from the RAT, the PF should avoid large and rapid rudder deflections. If engine windmilling is sufficient, additional hydraulic power may be recovered.

Answer 219

Following an all engines failure, the cockpit indications change significantly, because the generators disconnect from the AC and DC bus bars: ‐ AP, FD, and A/THR are lost ‐ Aircraft operates in alternate law ‐ F/O PFD and F/O ND are lost. - The EWD remains available. The PM can display the SD pages on EWD by pressing and holding the associated system page pushbutton on the ECP. - For approach, only slats are available.

Answer 220

When at least one engine is recovered, AC 1, DC 1, AC 2 and DC 2 are recovered and normal electrical configuration is restored except, that AC ESS BUS bar and DC ESS BUS bars remain supplied by the emergency generator. When at least one engine is recovered, green, yellow and blue hydraulic systems are restored: ‐ Green and yellow systems due to the engine and associated EDP recovery, and the other hydraulic system by means of the PTU operation ‐ Blue hydraulic system is recovered as the electrical supply of the blue electric pump is restored.

Answer 221

An engine flameout may trigger an ECAM alert. The flight crew can detect an engine flameout without damage by a rapid decrease of EPR/N1, N2, EGT and FF.

Answer 222

The flight crew can suspect engine damage, if the flight crew observes two or more of the following symptoms: ‐ Rapid increase of the EGT above the red line ‐ Important mismatch of the rotor speeds, or absence of rotation ‐ Significant increase of aircraft vibrations, or buffeting, or both vibrations and buffeting ‐ Hydraulic system loss ‐ Repeated, or not controllable engine stalls.

Answer 223

If an engine failure occurs at low speed, the resultant yaw may be significant, leading to rapid displacement from the runway centreline. To regain or maintain directional control on the runway, it is necessary: ‐ To immediately reduce both thrust levers to IDLE, which will reduce the thrust asymmetry caused by the failed engine ‐ To select both reversers irrespective of which engine has failed ‐ To use rudder pedal for directional control, supplemented by symmetrical or differential braking if needed. The steering hand-wheels may be used when taxi is reached. Below 72 kts, the ground spoilers will not deploy and the auto brake will not activate.

Answer 224

On ground: Rudder is used conventionally to maintain the aircraft on the runway centreline. At VR, rotate the aircraft smoothly, at a slower rate than with all engines operation, using a continuous pitch rate to an initial pitch attitude of 12.5 °. Airborne: The essential and primary tasks are linked to aircraft handling. The aircraft must be stabilized at the correct pitch and airspeed, and established on the correct track prior to the initiation of the ECAM procedure.

Answer 225

After initial stabilization: - follow the SRS orders which may demand a lower pitch attitude to acquire or maintain V2. - with a positive rate of climb and when the radio height has increase, gear up - center the blue beta target - engage AP - ECAM actions above 400 ft - delay the acceleration till engine is secure - At the EO acceleration altitude, push V/S to level off - allow the speed to increase - Retract the flaps as normal. - When the flap lever is at zero, the beta target reverts to the normal sideslip indication. - At Green Dot speed, pull for OPEN CLIMB, set THR MCT when the LVR MCT message flashes on the FMA - Continue ECAM - When the STATUS is displayed, the AFTER TAKEOFF/CLIMB checklist should be completed and both the computer reset and engine relight (if no damage) considered. - STATUS should then be reviewed.

Answer 226

An engine is considered as secured when the ECAM actions of the procedures are performed until: ‐ "ENG MASTER OFF" for an engine failure without damage ‐ "AGENT 1 DISCH" for an engine failure with damage ‐ Fire extinguished or "AGENT 2 DISCH" for an engine fire.

Answer 227

Following an EF, the blue beta target will replace the normal sideslip indication on the PFD. Since the lateral normal law does not command the full needed rudder surface deflection, the pilot will have to adjust conventionally the rudder pedals to center the beta target. When the beta target is centred, total drag is minimized even though there is a small amount of sideslip. The calculation of the beta target is a compromise between drag produced by deflection of control surfaces and airframe drag produced by a slight sideslip. Centering the beta target produces less total drag than centering a conventional ball, as rudder deflection, aileron deflection, spoiler deployment and aircraft body angle are all taken into account. The crew will keep in mind that the yaw damper reacts to a detected side slip. This means that, with hands off the stick and no rudder input, the aircraft will bank at about 5 ° maximum and then, will remain stabilized. Thus, laterally, the aircraft is a stable platform and no rush is required to laterally trim the aircraft. Control heading conventionally with bank, keeping the beta target at zero with rudder. Accelerate if the beta target cannot be zeroed with full rudder. Trim the rudder conventionally.

Answer 228

When an engine failure occurs during cruise, three possible strategies apply: ‐ The standard strategy (M0.78/300 kt) ‐ The obstacle strategy (green dot) ‐ The fixed speed strategy. (EDTO)

Answer 229

For EF in Cruise: ‐ Set all thrust levers to MCT ‐ Disconnects A/THR. ‐ HDG set and pull as appropriate ‐ SPEED M#0.78/300 and pull - ALT set and pull OP DES ‐ refer PROG PG for EO LRC ceiling or refer PERF PG for GD drift down ceiling ATC notify When appropriate, the PF requires the ECAM/OEB actions. When V/S < 500fpm, set V/S 500fpm and ATHR ON

Answer 230

The A/THR is disconnected to avoid any engine thrust reduction when selecting speed according to strategy or when pulling for OPEN DES to initiate the descent. With the A/THR disconnected, the target speed is controlled by the elevator when in OPEN DES.

Answer 231

The speed of 0.78/300 kt is chosen to ensure the aircraft is within the stabilized windmill engine relight in-flight envelope.

Answer 232

MCDU PROG page: displays REC MAX EO Cruise altitude, which equates to LRC Engine-Out maximum FL with anti-icing off MCDU PERF CRZ page: displays the drift down ceiling with target speed at GD for Obstacle Strategy.

Answer 233

An engine stall is the disruption of the airflow in a turbine engine. When the blades of the engine compressors stall, they are no longer able to compress the air from the front to the rear of the engine. In some cases, there may be a breakdown of the airflow, with the high pressure air at the end of the compressor reversing flow, and exiting from the front of the engine. If this occurs, it may result in an immediate and significant loss of thrust. From the flight crew perspective, the engine stall is one of the most startling events at takeoff or during flight.

Answer 234

An engine stall can be due to any of the following reasons: ‐ An engine degradation (e.g. compressor blade rupture, or high wear) ‐ Ingestion of foreign objects (e.g. birds), or ice ‐ A malfunction of the bleed system ‐ A malfunction of the engine controls (e.g. fuel scheduling, or stall protection devices)

Answer 235

During takeoff, and at high power settings, the symptoms of an engine stall are the following: ‐ One or more very loud bangs, usually compared to a shotgun being fired a few meters away ‐ An instant loss of thrust, or even a reverse thrust, that causes a yaw movement ‐ Fluctuations of the engine parameters - An increase of the EGT ‐ Engine vibrations ‐ Flames may be visible from both ends of the engine (inlet / tail pipe) ‐ Acrid smell in the cockpit

Answer 236

During cruise, and at low power settings the symptoms of an engine stall are the following: ``` ‐ One or more muffled bangs ‐ Slow or no thrust lever response ‐ Fluctuations of the engine parameters ‐ An increase of the EGT ‐ Engine vibrations ‐ Acrid smell in the cockpit ```

Answer 237

When the FADEC detects an engine stall, the FADEC requests that the ENG 1(2) STALL ECAM alert is triggered. The FADEC is not able to detect an engine stall in all cases. Therefore, if the flight crew detects one or a combination of the engine stall symptoms, the flight crew should suspect an engine stall, and apply the QRH Engine Stall procedure.

Answer 238

Most of the FADECs have functions that: ‐ Regulate the airflow through the compressor, to prevent engine stalls ‐ Are able to detect engine stalls ‐ Try to recover from an engine stall, without flight crew action, by modifying the airflow

Answer 239

The Engine Stall procedure (ECAM or QRH) is as follows: ‐ When the flight crew has stabilized the aircraft trajectory, the flight crew first reduces thrust to idle on the affected engine. This action reduces the differential pressure across the compressor. This helps the engine airflow to become more stable. ‐ When at idle thrust, the flight crew checks the stability of the engine parameters on the EWD, and particularly the EPR/N1, EGT, N2. The flight crew should also check the engine vibrations on the ENG SD page. ‐ The flight crew shuts down the engine if: • The fluctuations of the engine parameters, or the high EGT, or the engine vibrations persist, or • The symptoms of the engine stall persist at idle thrust. ‐ If the engine parameters are normal: • The flight crew selects the anti-ice on, in order to increase the bleed demand. This reduces the pressure at the exit of the compressor, and helps the airflow to circulate in the engine turbine from front to rear. • Then, the flight crew slowly advances the thrust levers, as long as the engine stall does not occur again. The engine response may be slow at high altitude. ▪ If the engine stall reoccurs, the flight crew keeps the engine thrust below the stall threshold. The flight crew should not shut down the engine if the engine stall can be avoided. The flight crew should manually control the thrust on the affected engine between idle and the identified stall threshold for the remainder of the flight. ▪ If the engine stall does not reoccur, the flight crew can resume normal operation of the engine. The flight crew must report any engine stall for maintenance action.

Answer 240

An engine tailpipe fire can only occur at engine start or at engine shutdown. It is the result of an excess of fuel in the combustion chamber, in the turbine or in the exhaust nozzle, that ignites. A tailpipe fire is an internal fire in the engine, compared with an engine fire that occurs outside the engine core and gas path. No critical areas are affected in the engine in the case of a tailpipe fire. However, it can have an effect on the aircraft (e.g. damage the flaps). The correct method to manage an engine tailpipe fire is to stop the fuel flow, and to ventilate the engine. In the case of a tailpipe fire, there is no cockpit alert. The only indication can be an increasing EGT due to the fire in the turbine. Therefore, most of the time, the ground crew, cabin crew, or ATC visually detect the tailpipe fire.

Answer 241

In the case of a tailpipe fire, the flight crew must apply the QRH ENG TAILPIPE FIRE procedure, which requires the flight crew to: ‐ Shut down the engine, in order to stop the fuel flow ‐ Dry crank the engine, to remove the remaining fuel. If the tailpipe fire procedure does not stop the fire, or if bleed air is not easily available, the ground crew can use a ground fire extinguisher as a last option. Ground fire extinguishing agent can cause serious corrosive damage to the engine and requires a maintenance action on the engine.

Answer 242

The flight crew should not use the ENG FIRE pb. This cuts off the electrical supply of the FADEC, and stops the dry crank sequence performed by the FADEC. The flight crew should not use the fire extinguisher, as it does not extinguish an internal engine fire. As a first priority, the fuel flow must be stopped, and the engine must be ventilated.

Answer 243

Engine vibrations are usually caused by an imbalance of the engine that can be due to many reasons such as: ‐ A deformation of one or several blades due to Foreign Object Damage (FOD), or a bird strike ‐ A rupture or a loss of one or several blades ‐ An internal engine failure (e.g. engine stall) ‐ A fan icing

Answer 244

High engine vibration alone does not require an engine in-flight shutdown. If the engine needs to be shutdown, other symptoms and certainly an ECAM alert will warn the flight crew, and request them to shut down the engine. A high N1 vibration level may be accompanied by perceivable airframe vibrations. When the vibration level exceeds a certain threshold, the ECAM advisory function automatically highlights the affected parameter. When the flight crew identifies high engine vibrations, the flight crew must refer to the ECAM ADVISORY CONDITIONS section of the QRH for the procedure.

Answer 245

In the case of high engine vibrations, the flight crew first checks the engine parameters, and crosschecks them with the other engine. The flight crew identifies if there are engine vibrations only, or if there is another problem on the engine for which the flight crew may expect an ECAM alert. Then the flight crew determines if icing is suspected or not. The flight crew should suspect icing if N1 vibrations occur without variation on other engine parameters.

Answer 246

If the flight crew suspects icing, and if flight conditions permit, the flight crew should shed the ice with the following procedure: ‐ The flight crew disconnects the A/THR ‐ The flight crew performs several large thrust variations from idle to a thrust compatible with the flight phase. It may be necessary to perform several engine run-ups (decrease and then increase of thrust) to fully shed the ice.

Answer 247

If the flight crew does not suspect icing, and if flight conditions permit, the flight crew reduces thrust to make the vibrations decrease, and stay below the advisory threshold. If the vibrations do not decrease, there may be another problem with the engine. The flight crew should expect an ECAM alert that will provide guidance on the actions to perform. Finally, during the taxi-in phase, the flight crew may consider to shut down the engine to avoid increased damage to the engine.

Answer 248

A one engine inoperative go-around is similar to a go-around flown with all engines. On the application of TOGA, the flight crew must apply rudder promptly to compensate for the increase in thrust and consequently to keep the beta target centred. Provided the flap lever is selected to Flap 1 or greater, SRS will engage and will be followed. If SRS is not available, the initial target pitch attitude will be 12.5 °.

Answer 249

Autoland is available with one engine inoperative, and maximum use of the AP should be made to minimise crew workload. If required, a manual approach and landing with one engine inoperative is conventional. The flight crew should trim to keep the slip indication centred. It remains yellow as long as the thrust on the remaining engine(s) is below a certain value. With flap selected and above this threshold value, the indicator becomes the blue beta target. This is a visual cue that the aircraft is approaching its maximum thrust capability. The flight crew should not select the gear down too early, as large amounts of power will be required to maintain level flight at high weights and/or high altitude airports. The flight crew can reset the rudder trim in the later phase of the approach, before engine thrust reduction. On pressing the rudder trim reset button, the trim is removed and the flight crew should anticipate the increased rudder force required. With rudder trim at zero, the neutral rudder pedal position corresponds to zero rudder and zero nose wheel deflection.

Answer 250

If at least one reverser is operative, the general recommendation is to select the reverser thrust on both engines during rejected takeoff (RTO) and at landing, as per normal procedures. The ENG 1(2) REVERSER FAULT ECAM caution may be triggered after the reverser thrust is selected. This is to remind the flight crew that one reverser is inoperative. If no reversers are operative, the general recommendation is to not select the reverser thrust during RTO and at landing. However, the PF still sets both thrust levers to the IDLE detent, as per normal procedures.

Answer 251

Abnormal operation of the flaps and/or slats may be due to one of the following problems: ‐ Double SFCC failure ‐ Double hydraulic failure (B+G or Y+G) ‐ Flaps/Slats jammed (operation of the WTB)

Answer 252

Abnormal operation of the flaps and slats has significant consequences since: ‐ The control laws may change ‐ The selected speed must be used ‐ A stabilized approach should be preferred ‐ The approach attitudes change ‐ Approach speeds and landing distances increase ‐ The go-around procedure may have to be modified. Note: The FMS predictions do not take into account the slat or flap failures. Since fuel consumption is increased, these predictions are not valid. For approach, assuming VLS is displayed on the PFD, VAPP should be close to VLS + wind correction, since this speed is computed on the actual slat/flap position.

Answer 253

Should a flap/slat retraction problem occur at takeoff, the crew will PULL the speed knob for selected speed to stop the acceleration and avoid exceeding VFE. The overspeed warning is computed according to the actual slats/flaps position. The landing distance available at the departure airport and the aircraft gross weight will determine the crew's next course of action.

Answer 254

The detection of a slat or flap failure occurs with the selection of flap lever during the approach. With A/THR operative, the managed speed target will become the next manoeuvring characteristic speed e.g. S speed when selecting flap lever to 1. At this stage, if a slat or flap failure occurs, the crew will: ‐ Pull the speed knob for selected speed to avoid further deceleration ‐ Delay the approach to complete the ECAM procedure ‐ Refer to LANDING WITH FLAPS OR SLATS JAMMED QRH procedure. ‐ Update the approach briefing. In the QRH, the line, "SPD SEL............VFE NEXT -5 kt" is designed to allow the crew to configure the aircraft for landing whilst controlling the speed in a safe manner. This procedure may involve reducing speed below the manoeuvring speed for the current configuration which is acceptable provided the speed is kept above VLS. The AP may be used down to 500 ft AGL.

Answer 255

During the approach briefing, emphasis should be made of: ‐ Tail strike awareness ‐ The go-around configuration ‐ Any deviation from standard call out ‐ The speeds to be flown, following a missed approach ‐ At the acceleration altitude, selected speed must be used to control the acceleration to the required speed for the configuration. Consider the fuel available and the increased consumption associated with a diversion when flying with flaps and/or slats jammed. Additionally, when diverting with flaps/slats extended, cruise altitude is limited to 20 000 ft.

Answer 256

Fuel check will be carried out by: ‐ Checking that the remaining fuel added to the burnt fuel corresponds to the fuel on board at the gate. ‐ Maintaining the fuel log and comparing fuel on board to expected flight plan fuel would alert the crew to any discrepancy.

Answer 257

Fuel checks should be carried out when overflying a waypoint or at least every 30 min. Any discrepancy should alert the crew and investigation should be carried out without delay.

Answer 258

- The sum of FOB and FU is significantly less (or more) than FOB at engine start ‐ A passenger or cabin crew observes a fuel spray from an engine/pylon or a wing ‐ The total fuel quantity abnormally decreases ‐ A fuel imbalance develops ‐ The fuel flow is excessive (leak from engine) ‐ Fuel is smelt in the cabin ‐ The destination EFOB is decreasing or is displayed amber on the FMS

Answer 259

The main steps of the FUEL LEAK procedure are: - If the fuel leak is confirmed coming from the engine/pylon: The affected engine is shut down to isolate the fuel leak and fuel cross-feed valve may be used as required. If the fuel leak is not confirmed coming from the engine/pylon or the leak is not located: ‐ Isolate each tank : maintain the cross-feed valve closed and switch off the center pumps. ‐ If the fuel quantity decrease faster in one wing than in the other wing tank, the fuel leak is identified as coming from one wing tank. In this case, the associated engine is shut down in order to confirm if the leak comes from the wing tank or from the engine ‐ If the fuel quantity symmetrically decrease in both wing tanks and the fuel quantity in the center tank decrease, the fuel leak comes from the center tank or the APU feed line.

Answer 260

The aircraft has three continuously operating hydraulic systems: green, blue and yellow. A bidirectional Power Transfer Unit (PTU) enables the yellow system to pressurize the green system and vice versa. Hydraulic fluid cannot be transferred from one system to another.

Answer 261

In flight, the PTU operates automatically if differential pressure between green and yellow systems exceeds 500 PSI. This allows to cover the loss of one engine or one engine driven pump cases.

Answer 262

When required by the ECAM, the PTU should be switched off without delay in case of: ‐ HYD G(Y) RSVR LO LVL ‐ HYD G(Y) RSVR LO AIR PR (Only if pressure fluctuates) ‐ HYD G(Y) RSVR OVHT This is done to avoid a PTU overheat which may lead to the loss of second hydraulic circuit.

Answer 263

Single hydraulic failures have very little effect on the handling of the aircraft but will cause a degradation of the landing capability to CAT 3 SINGLE.

Answer 264

‐ Loss of AP ‐ Flight control law degradation ‐ Landing in abnormal configuration ‐ Extensive ECAM procedures with associated workload and task-sharing considerations ‐ Significant considerations for approach and landing. - both FD and A/THR still remain.

Answer 265

The stabilizer is lost. In alternate law, the auto trim function is provided through the elevators. At landing gear extension, switching to direct law, the auto trim function is lost. However, the mean elevator position at that time is memorized, and becomes the reference for centered sidestick position. This is why, in order to ensure proper centered sidestick position for approach and landing, the procedure requires to wait for stabilization at VAPP, before landing gear extension. If this procedure is missed, the flare and pitch control in case of go-around may be difficult. The PFD message USE MAN PITCH TRIM after landing gear extension should thus be disregarded.

Answer 266

The flight crew must check for the three landing gear green indications on the ECAM WHEEL SD page: at least one green triangle on each landing gear is sufficient to indicate that the landing gear is down and locked. The flight crew must also rely also on the “LDG GEAR DN” green MEMO. This is sufficient to confirm that the landing gear is downlocked. If one landing gear is not downlocked, the flight crew must perform the LDG WITH ABNORMAL L/G QRH procedure. In this case, it is always better to land with any available gear rather than carry out a landing without any gear.

Answer 267

- Weight should be reduced as much as possible to provide the slowest possible touchdown speed. - Consider a fuel imbalance as landing with a lighter wing on the affected side allows to keep it up longer and delay the moment of nacelle contact. If the imbalance advisory triggers, the flight crew can disregard it, as the aircraft handling qualities are not significantly affected. - Inform the cabin crew to prepare for emergency landing. - If one or both main landing gears in abnormal position, the ground spoilers will not be armed to keep as much roll authority as possible for maintaining the wings level. Ground spoiler extension would prevent spoilers from acting as roll surfaces. - The flight crew will not arm the autobrake as manual braking will enable better pitch and roll control. Furthermore, with at least one main landing gear in the abnormal position, the autobrake cannot be activated (ground spoilers not armed). - With one main landing gear not extended, the reference speed used by the anti-skid system is not correctly initialized. Consequently, the anti-skid must be switched off to prevent permanent brake release. - Fly a normal approach and try to maintain normal attitude after landed for as long as possible - Switch off engines appropriately

Answer 268

- The engines should be shut down early enough to ensure that fuel is cut off prior to nacelle touchdown, but late enough to keep sufficient authority on control surfaces in order to: ‐ Maintain runway axis ‐ Prevent nacelle contact on first touch down ‐ Maintain wing level and pitch attitude as long as possible. Considering a realistic hydraulic demand, the hydraulic power remains available up to approximately 30 s after the shut down of the related engine. It is the reason why the recommendations to switch the ENG masters OFF are as follow: ‐ If NOSE L/G abnormal Before nose impact ‐ If one MAIN L/G abnormal At touch down ‐ If both MAIN L/G abnormal In the flare, before touch down. The engines and APU fire pbs are pushed when the use of flight controls is no longer required i.e. when aircraft has stopped.

Answer 269

If the Nose Wheel Steering (NWS) is lost for taxiing, the flight crew can steer the aircraft with differential braking technique. If the flight crew does not have experience with this technique, he should preferably request a towing to return to the gate. The flight crew can request the towing early in approach, if the failure has been triggered in flight.

Answer 270

Damage on one or more tires has an impact on the landing distance. The performance impact of a burst tire is equivalent to a brake released. The flight crew must assess the number of damaged tires and compute the impact on landing distance using the Airbus EFB LDG PERF application or the QRH. If the Airbus EFB LDG PERF application is used, the flight crew must select the appropriate failure case: ‐ WHEEL TIRE DAMAGED SUSPECTED (ONE) ‐ WHEEL TIRE DAMAGED SUSPECTED (MORE THAN ONE). If the QRH is used, the flight crew must select the appropriate failure case: ‐ ONE BRK RELEASE failure case if one tire is damaged ‐ TWO BRK RELEASE failure case if more than one tire is damaged.

Answer 271

After landing, before the taxi in, it is necessary to assess the exact condition of the wheels and landing gear. To do so, the flight crew must ask for an inspection of the landing gear before the taxi is initiated and make sure the condition of the affected wheels is in accordance with FCOM limitations.

Answer 272

As per design, each structural ply (Inner ply or Middle ply) can sustain twice the maximum differential pressure of a standard flight. Therefore, depending on the part of the windshield/window that is damaged, the structural integrity of the windshield/window may not be impacted.

Answer 273

The emergency descent should only be initiated on positive confirmation that cabin altitude and rate of climb are excessive and uncontrollable. However, the flight crew must rely on the CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT warning, even if not confirmed on the CAB PRESS SD page. The CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT warning can be triggered by a cabin pressure sensor, different from the one used to control the pressure and display the cabin altitude on the SD.

Answer 274

The flight crew should perform the actions of the EMER DESCENT in two steps: ‐ First step: Apply the memory items. ‐ Second step: Perform the read-&-do procedure (ECAM or QRH). During the first step, the PM should focus on monitoring the FMA to ensure that the PF had correctly established the aircraft in descent. During the second step, the PF should refine the settings. To initiate the emergency descent, the use of autopilot (AP) and autothrust is highly recommended. At high flight levels, the flight crew should extend the speed brakes while monitoring the VLS. This is in order to avoid the activation of the angle of attack protection which may result in the retraction of the speed brakes and in AP disconnection.

Answer 275

When in IDLE thrust, high speed and with speed brake extended, the rate of descent is approximately 7 000 ft/min. To descend from FL 390 to FL 100, it takes approximately 4 min and 40 NM.

Answer 276

The flight crew should suspect structural damage in case of a loud bang, or high cabin vertical speed. If the flight crew suspects structural damage, apply both of the following: ‐ Set the SPEED/MACH pb to SPEED, to prevent an increase in the IAS, or to reduce the speed. This action minimizes the stress on aircraft structure ‐ Carefully use the speed brakes, to avoid additional stress on aircraft structure. Below FL 100, the flight crew should limit the rate of descent to approximately 1 000 ft/min, except during the approach phase.

Answer 277

In some rare cases, the loss of all engines occurs at a very low height above ground level, and there is not sufficient time to attempt an engine relight. The flight crew must use the remaining time to fly the aircraft to an appropriate landing spot, and to prepare the aircraft for touchdown (ditching or forced landing). The EMER LANDING procedure provides the flight crew with the following items and actions to perform, for the best possible touchdown: ‐ The landing gear position ‐ The slats/flaps configuration ‐ The speed ‐ The pitch attitude, in the case of ditching. Flight crew actions that are considered as basic airmanship (notify the ATC, notify the cabin crew, etc.) are not included in the EMER LANDING procedure.

Answer 278

Incapacitation can occur in many forms, that range from sudden death to partial loss of function and occurs more frequently than any other Emergency. In order to help with the early detection of flight crew incapacitation, principles of CRM should be applied: ‐ Correct crew coordination that involves routine monitoring and aural crosschecks. The absence of standard callouts at the appropriate time may indicate incapacitation of one flight crewmember ‐ If one flight crewmember does not feel well, he must inform the other flight crewmember. Other symptoms, for example incoherent speech, a pale and(or) fixed facial expression, or irregular breathing, may indicate the beginning of incapacitation.

Answer 279

‐ Take over and ensure a safe flight path: • Announce ″I have control″ • If the incapacitated flight crewmember causes interference with the handling of the aircraft, press the sidestick pb for 40 seconds • Keep or engage the onside AP, as required • Perform callouts (challenge and response included) and checklists aloud. ‐ Inform the ATC of the emergency, consider a diversion to a suitable airport ‐ Take assistance from cabin crew to contain the incapacitated pilot. Consider: • Early approach preparation and checklists reading • Automatic Landing • Use of radar vectoring and long ‐ Arrange medical assistance for after landing, providing as many details as possible about the condition of the affected flight crewmember ‐ Request assistance from any medically qualified passenger on board

Answer 280

In severe damage cases, it might be necessary for the flight crew to revert to the use of a “back to basics" flying techniques, where bank, pitch, and thrust are the primary parameters to manually control. During assessment of the flight controls, the flight crew should apply smooth sidestick input and should limit the bank angle to 15°, in order to prevent possible destabilization of the aircraft. In addition, the flight crew should avoid use of the speedbrakes before the end of the flight, unless necessary. The flight crew must continue to perform all navigation and communication tasks. Prior to landing and at an appropriate altitude, the flight crew must perform an assessment of aircraft handling qualities in landing configuration in order to help determine an appropriate strategy for approach and landing. The flight crew must perform this analysis at different speeds down to VAPP. If it becomes difficult to control the aircraft when the aircraft goes below a specific speed, the flight crew must perform the approach landing at a speed above this specific speed.

Answer 281

The SPEED, SPEED, SPEED aural alert announces a low energy situation. This situation requires a flight crew action to increase energy. Increase the thrust and/or adjust the pitch depending on the circumstances, until the aural alert stops.

Answer 282

350 kt/M 0.82 In the case of overspeed, the aircraft may encounter vertical load factors that may exceed the aircraft limits. In this case, exceeding VMO/MMO requires maintenance inspection.

Answer 283

- Keep AP & ATHR ON - Decrease the speed target away from the VMO/MMO band, but well about the GD speed especially in turbulent conditions at high altitude. - In case speed continues to increase, use speed brakes depending on the rate of acceleration. The length of the speed trend is a good indication of the rate of acceleration.

Answer 284

The use of speed brakes is an efficient way to decelerate that is certified for the entire flight envelope. However, the use of speed brakes increases VLS and reduces the buffet margin at high altitudes. The use of speed brakes results in pitch up for which the AP and the normal law compensate.

Answer 285

The flight crew must apply the overspeed recovery technique if the aircraft exceeds VMO/MMO. The OVERSPEED warning is triggered when the speed exceeds VMO+4 kt / MMO+M 0.006, and lasts until the speed is below VMO/MMO. - Keep AP On to minimize the vertical load factors - Extend speed brakes - Keep ATHR engaged and check that thrust reduces to idle

Answer 286

In the case of severe overspeed, the AP disengages and the High Speed Protection activates in normal law. As a result, the aircraft encounters an automatic pitch up.

Answer 287

The AP does not automatically disengage as soon as the speed reaches the green bars (that represent the threshold when the High Speed Protection activates) on the PFD. The AP disengagement depends on the speed variations and the High Speed Protection logic. The High Speed Protection is designed to request the appropriate demand of vertical load factor. Therefore, the flight crew should smoothly adjust the pitch attitude to avoid excessive load factors. The flight crew must DISREGARD the FD orders while the high speed protection is active. The FD orders do not take into account the High Speed Protection. The flight crew should keep the speed brakes because the use of the speed brakes is compatible with the High Speed Protection.

Answer 288

The significant speed variations near VMO/MMO and above VMO/MMO may be one of the first indications of possible severe turbulence.

Answer 289

- Fly a long straight in early stabilized approach - VAPP established at the FAF - Reduce speed to reach VLS at runway threshold to minimize the aircraft energy - Elect the landing configuration according to the "maximum weight for go-around in CONF 3" table - The crew should be aware that the transition from -3 ° flight path angle to go around climb gradient requires a lot of energy and therefore some altitude loss. - Taking into account the runway landing distance available, the use of brakes should be modulated to avoid very hot brakes and the risk of tire deflation. - When the aircraft weight exceeds the maximum landing weight, structural considerations impose the ability to touch down at 360 ft/min without damage. This means that no maintenance inspection is required if vertical speed is below 360 ft/min. If vertical speed exceeds 360 ft/min at touch down, a maintenance inspection is required.

Answer 290

Experience has shown that a rejected takeoff can be hazardous, even if correct procedures are followed. Some factors that can detract from a successful rejected takeoff are as follows: ‐ Tire damage ‐ Brakes worn or not working correctly ‐ Brakes not being fully applied ‐ Error in gross weight determination ‐ Incorrect performance calculations ‐ Incorrect runway line-up technique ‐ Initial brake temperature ‐ Delay in initiating the stopping procedure ‐ Runway friction coefficient lower than expected.

Answer 291

In order to help the Captain to make a decision, the ECAM inhibits the warnings that are not essential from 80 kt to 1500 ft (or 2 min after lift-off, whichever occurs first). Therefore, any warning received during this period must be considered as significant. To assist in the decision making process, the takeoff is divided into low and high speeds regimes, with 100 kt being chosen as the dividing line.

Answer 292

To assist in the decision making process, the takeoff is divided into low and high speeds regimes, with 100 kt being chosen as the dividing line and to avoid unnecessary stops from high speed.

Answer 293

Below 100 kt: The decision to reject the takeoff may be taken at the Captain's discretion, depending on the circumstances. The Captain should seriously consider discontinuing the takeoff, if any ECAM warning/caution is activated.

Answer 294

``` Above 100 kt, and below V1: Rejecting the takeoff at these speeds is a more serious matter, particularly on slippery runways. At these speeds, the Captain should be "go-minded" and very few situations should lead to the decision to reject the takeoff: 1. Fire warning, or severe damage 2. Sudden loss of engine thrust 3. Malfunctions or conditions that give unambiguous indications that the aircraft will not fly safely 4. Any red ECAM warning 5. Any amber ECAM caution listed bellow: ‐ F/CTL SIDESTICK FAULT ‐ ENG FAIL ‐ ENG REVERSER FAULT ‐ ENG REVERSE UNLOCKED ‐ ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT ``` Exceeding the EGT red line or nose gear vibration should not result in the decision to reject takeoff above 100 kt. In case of tire failure between V1 minus 20 kt and V1, unless debris from the tires has caused serious engine anomalies, it is far better to get airborne, reduce the fuel load, and land with a full runway length available.

Answer 295

The decision to reject the takeoff and the stop action is the responsibility of the Captain and must be made prior to V1 speed. It is therefore recommended that the Captain keeps his hand on the thrust levers until the aircraft reaches V1, whether he is Pilot Flying (PF) or Pilot Monitoring (PM). ‐ If a malfunction occurs before V1, for which the Captain does not intend to reject the takeoff, he will announce his intention by calling "GO". ‐ If a decision is made to reject the takeoff, the Captain calls "STOP". This call both confirms the decision to reject the takeoff and also states that the Captain now has control. It is the only time that hand-over of control is not accompanied by the phrase "I have control".

Answer 296

PIC: - "STOP" - THR levers IDLE - Max REV PM: - "REVERSERS" - "DECEL" - Cancel any audio Aircraft Stopped (position the aircraft away from fire) PIC: PM: - REV stowed - ATC notify - Park BRK ON. - EMER EVAC procedure locate (QRH) - Cabin crew notify - ECAM actions ordered. - ECAM action perform

Answer 297

‐ If a rejected takeoff is initiated and MAX auto brake decelerates the aircraft, the captain will avoid pressing the pedals (which might be a reflex action). ‐ If the autobrake is inoperative or if the takeoff is rejected prior to 72 kt (autobrake not active and no deployment of spoilers), the captain simultaneously reduces thrust and applies maximum pressure on both pedals. The aircraft will stop in the minimum distance, only if the brake pedals are maintained fully pressed until the aircraft comes to a stop. After a rejected takeoff, if the aircraft comes to a complete stop using autobrake MAX, release brakes prior to taxi by disarming spoilers.

Answer 298

‐ Announcing the deceleration means that the deceleration is felt by the crew, and confirmed by the VC trend on the PFD. The deceleration may also be confirmed by the DECEL light (if the autobrake is on). However, this light only comes on when the actual deceleration is 80 % of the selected rate, it is not an indicator of the proper autobrake operation. For instance, the DECEL light might not appear on a contaminated runway, with the autobrake working properly, due to the effect of the antiskid.

Answer 299

After an RTO for ANY reason (even ATC), the flight crew have to return to the gate for a engineering inspection.

Answer 300

The stall is a condition in aerodynamics where the Angle of Attack (AOA) increases beyond a point such that the lift begins to decrease. As per basic aerodynamic rules, the lift coefficient (CL) increases linearly with the AOA up to a point where the airflow starts to separate from the upper surface of the wing.

Answer 301

‐ Buffeting, which depends on the slats/flaps configuration and increases at high altitude due to the high Mach number ‐ Pitch up effect, mainly for swept wings and aft CG. This effect further increases the AOA.

Answer 302

If the AOA further increases up to a value called AOAstall, the lift coefficient will reach a maximum value called CL MAX. When the AOA is higher than AOAstall, the airflow separates from the wing surface and the lift coefficient decreases. This is the stall. The stall will always occur at the same AOA for a given configuration, Mach number and altitude.

Answer 303

Slats and Flaps have a different impact on the Lift coefficient obtained for a given AOA. Both Slats and Flaps create an increase in the maximum lift coefficient. Effect of Flaps: Greater CL at a lower AOA Effect of Slats: Greater CL and greater AOA

Answer 304

Speed brake extension and ice accretion reduce the maximum lift coefficient. Flight control laws and stall warning threshold take into account these possible degradations. Effect of Speed brakes: Lower CL at a given AOA Effect of Icing: Lower CL and lower AOA

Answer 305

To summarize, loss of lift is only dependant on AOA. The AOAstall depends on: ‐ Aircraft configuration (slats, flaps, speed brakes) ‐ Mach and altitude ‐ Wing contamination

Answer 306

‐ Aural stall warning The aural stall warning is designed to sound when AOA exceeds a given threshold, which depends on the aircraft configuration. This warning provides sufficient margin to alert the flight crew in advance of the actual stall even with contaminated wings. ‐ Stall buffet Buffet is recognized by airframe vibrations that are caused by the non-stationary airflow separation from the wing surface when approaching AOAstall. When the Mach number increases, both the AOAstall and CL MAX will decrease. The aural stall warning is set close to AOA at which the buffet starts. For some Mach numbers the buffet may appear just before the aural stall warning. In A320neo Stall warnings are designed as and Aural and Visual stall warnings on the PFD

Answer 307

‐ The immediate key action is to reduce AOA: The reduction of AOA i.e. nose down pitch order will enable the wing to regain lift and ensure an immediate aircraft response. In case of lack of pitch down authority, it may be necessary to reduce thrust. Ensure that the wings are level in order to reduce the required lift and AOA. As a general rule, minimizing the loss of altitude is secondary to the reduction of the AOA as the first priority is to regain lift. As AOA reduces below the AOAstall, lift and drag will return to their normal values. ‐ The secondary action is to increase energy: When stall indications have stopped, the flight crew should increase thrust smoothly as needed and must ensure that the speed brakes are retracted. Furthermore, for under wing mounted engines, the thrust increase generates a pitch up that may prevent the required reduction of AOA. If in clean configuration and below FL 200, during flight path recovery, the flight crew must select FLAPS 1 in order to increase the margin to AOAstall.

Answer 308

At lift-off, a damaged AOA probe may cause a stall warning to spuriously sound in the cockpit. If the aural stall warning sounds at liftoff, the flight crew must fly the appropriate thrust and pitch for takeoff in order to attempt to stop the aural stall warning and ensure a safe flight path. The flight crew applies TOGA thrust in order to get the maximum available thrust. Simultaneously, the pilot flying must target a pitch angle of 15 ° and keep the wings level in order to ensure safe climb. Then, when a safe flight path and speed are achieved, if the aural stall warning is still activated the flight crew must consider that it is a spurious warning.

Answer 309

Avoid flight into areas of known volcanic activity. If a volcanic eruption is reported while the aircraft is in flight, reroute the flight to remain well clear of the affected area (volcanic dust may spread over several hundred miles). If possible, stay on the upwind side of the volcano (at least 20 NM upwind of it if it is erupting).

Answer 310

In hours of darkness or in meteorological conditions that obscure volcanic dust, one or several of the following phenomena indicate that the aircraft may be flying into ash cloud: • smoke or dust in the cockpit, • acrid odor similar to electrical smoke, • at night, the appearance of St. Elmo's fire and static discharges around the windshield, • bright white or orange glow appearing in the engine inlets, • sharp, distinct beams from the landing lights, • multiple engine malfunctions, such as rising EGT, decreasing power, stall, or flame out.

Answer 311

An aircraft upset is an undesired aircraft state characterized by unintentional divergences from parameters normally experienced during operations. An aircraft upset may involve pitch and/or bank angle divergences and may lead to inappropriate airspeeds for the conditions. Deviations from the desired aircraft state will become larger UNTIL the flight crew takes action to stop the divergence.

Answer 312

The prevention of aircraft upset is possible with effective monitoring of: ‐ The environment (turbulences, icing conditions, weather) ‐ The aircraft energy state ‐ The aircraft flight path ‐ The aircraft technical state (Flight controls laws, systems failure). All flight crew members are responsible of the monitoring to ensure that the aircraft state is understood and correct for the situation. As such, the flight crew should be able to assess the energy, to stop any flight path divergence, and to recover a stabilized flight path before the upset situation.

Answer 313

* For a nose low upset, normally the airspeed is increasing, altitude is decreasing and the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) indicates a descent * For a nose high upset, the airspeed normally is decreasing, altitude is increasing and the VSI indicates a climb. A stalled condition can exist at any attitude and could be recognized by stall buffet and/or stall aural alert. If the aircraft is stalled, apply the stall recovery procedure.

Answer 314

The Primary Flight Display (PFD) is a primary reference for recovery. Pitch attitude is determined from the PFD pitch reference scale. Even in extreme attitudes, some portion of the sky or ground indications is present to assist the pilot in analyzing the situation. The bank indicator on the PFD should be used to determine the aircraft bank. Other attitude sources should be checked: Standby Attitude Indications, the pilot monitoring (PM) instruments, or references outside the cockpit when possible.

Answer 315

The Nose high/Nose low techniques represent a logical progression for recovering the aircraft. They are not necessarily procedural. The sequence of actions is for guidance only and represents a series of options for the pilot to consider and to use depending on the situation.

Answer 316

- Recognize and confirm the situation - Take over and disconnect the AP & ATHR - Apply nose down pitch order (incremental inputs on the trim wheel may be required to improve the effectiveness of the elevator control) - Adjust the thrust (Select up to maximum thrust available while ensuring adequate pitch control. Increasing thrust may reduce the effectiveness of nose-down pitch control. It may be necessary to limit or reduce thrust to the point where control of the pitch is achieved.) - The bank angle should be the least possible to start the nose down and never exceed approximately 60 degrees. If the bank angle is already greater than 60 degrees, the flight crew should reduce it to an amount less than 60 degrees. - Recover to level flight at a sufficient airspeed while avoiding a stall due to premature recovery at low speed, or excessive g-loading at high speed.

Answer 317

- Recognize and confirm the situation - Take over and disconnect the AP & ATHR - Recover from stall if required - Adjust the roll in the shortest direction to wings level - Reduce the thrust and/or use the speedbrakes to control the speed. - Recover to level flight at a sufficient airspeed while avoiding a stall due to premature recovery at low speed, or excessive g-loading at high speed.

Answer 318

Each ADIRS has two parts (ADR and IRS), that may fail independently of each other. Additionally the IRS part may fail totally or may be available in ATT mode. Single NAV ADR FAULT or NAV IRS FAULT are simple procedures, and only require action on the switching panel as indicated by the ECAM. Dual NAV ADR or NAV IRS failures will cause the loss of AP and A/THR and the flight controls revert to ALTN law. Triple ADR failure, AP and A/THR are lost and the flight controls revert to ALTN law and crew selects to fly the BUSS Triple IRS failure will lead to crew flying solely on standby instruments.

Answer 319

The ADRs detect most of the failures affecting the airspeed or altitude indications. These failures lead to: ‐ Lose the associated speed or altitude indications in the cockpit ‐ Trigger the associated ECAM alerts. However, there may be cases where an airspeed and/or altitude output is erroneous, while the ADRs do not detect it as erroneous. In such a case, no ECAM alert is triggered and the cockpit indications may appear to be normal whereas they are actually false.

Answer 320

The most probable reason for erroneous airspeed and/or altitude information is an obstruction of the pitot and/or static probes.

Answer 321

All the aircraft systems which use anemometric data, have built-in fault accommodation logics. The fault accommodation logics rely on a voting principle: When the data provided by one source diverges from the average value, the systems automatically reject this source and continue to operate normally using the remaining two sources. The flight controls system and the flight guidance system both use this voting principle.

Answer 322

Each ELAC receives speed information from the three ADRs and compares the three values. The ELACs do not use the pressure altitude. Each FAC receives speed and pressure altitude information from the three ADRs and compares the three values.

Answer 323

The ELACs and the FAC and/or FMGC eliminate the erroneous ADR. There is no cockpit effect (no caution, normal operation is continued), except that one display is wrong and the autoland capability is downgraded to CAT 3 SINGLE.

Answer 324

Both the AP and A/THR disconnect. The ELACs trigger the NAV ADR DISAGREE ECAM caution. The flight controls revert to alternate law without high and low speed protection. On both PFDs: ‐ The SPD LIM flag appears ‐ No VLS, no VSW and no VMAX are displayed. This situation is latched for the remainder of the flight, until the ELACs are reset on ground, without any hydraulic pressure. However, if the anomaly is only transient, the AP and the A/THR can be re-engaged when the disagree disappears.

Answer 325

The systems reject the correct ADR and continue to operate using the two erroneous but consistent ADRs. The flight crew can encounter such a situation when, for example, two or all three pitot tubes are obstructed at the same time, to the same degree, and in the same way. (Flight through a cloud of volcanic ash, takeoff with two pitots obstructed by foreign matter (mud, insects)).

Answer 326

Transient speed drop until water drains. IAS fluctuations. IAS step drop and gradual return to normal.

Answer 327

Permanent IAS drop.

Answer 328

Total pressure leaks towards static pressure. IAS drop until obstruction is cleared. If the obstruction clearing fluctuates, fluctuation, A/THR is transient.

Answer 329

Total pressure blocked. Constant IAS in level flight, until obstruction is cleared. In climb, IAS increases. In descent, IAS decreases. Abnormal AP/FD and A/THR behavior : a. AP/FD pitch up in OP CLB to hold target IAS. b. AP/FD pitch down in OP DES to hold target IAS

Answer 330

Static pressure blocked at airfield level. Normal indications during T/O roll. After lift-off altitude remains constant. IAS decreases, after lift-off. IAS decreases, when aircraft climbs. IAS increases, when aircraft descends.

Answer 331

Analysis of the in-service events shows that: ‐ The majority of unreliable speed events at low altitude are permanent situations, due to the obstruction of pitot probes by rain, severe icing, or foreign objects (refer to the table above). ‐ At high altitude, typically above FL 250, the cases of unreliable speed situation are mostly a temporary phenomenon: They are usually due to contamination of the pitots, by water or ice, in particular meteorological conditions. In-service experience shows that such a contamination typically disappears after few minutes, allowing to recover normal speed indications.

Answer 332

If the barometric altitude is unreliable, the Flight Path Vector (FPV) and the Vertical Speed (V/S) are affected. In addition, the ATC transponder may transmit an incorrect altitude to ATC or to other aircraft, which can lead to confusion. Therefore, advise ATC. Because the barometric altitude may be erroneous, the Autopilot (AP) may not be able to accurately maintain level flight.

Answer 333

The "UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION" procedure has two objectives: ‐ To fly the aircraft, ‐ To identify and isolate the affected ADR(s). It includes the following steps: 1. Memory items (if necessary), 2. Flight path stabilization, 3. Troubleshooting and isolation, 4. Flight using pitch/thrust references or the BackUp Speed Scale (BUSS, below FL 250), if the troubleshooting has not enabled to isolate the faulty ADR(s).

Answer 334

The flight crew should consider applying the “UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION” procedure when: ‐ The “ADR CHECK PROC... APPLY” action line is displayed on ECAM for example due to the NAV ADR DISAGREE alert - The flight crew suspects an erroneous indication, without any ECAM alert.

Answer 335

The flight crew can suspect an erroneous speed/altitude indication, in the following cases: ‐ A speed discrepancy (between ADR1, 2, 3 and standby indications), ‐ Fluctuating or unexpected changes of the indicated airspeed or altitude, ‐ Abnormal correlation between the basic flight parameters (pitch, thrust, airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed indications). For example: • The altitude does not increase, whereas there is an important nose-up pitch and high thrust, • The IAS increases, whereas there is an important nose-up pitch, • The IAS decreases, whereas there is an important nose-down pitch, • The IAS decreases, whereas there is a nose-down pitch and the aircraft is descending. ‐ An abnormal behavior of the AP/FD and/or the A/THR, ‐ The STALL warning triggers, the OVERSPEED warning triggers, or the FLAP RELIEF message appears on the E/WD, and this is in contradiction with the indicated airspeeds. ‐ The barometric altitude is not consistent with the Radio Altimeter (RA) height (when the RA is displayed), ‐ The aerodynamic noise reduces whereas the indicated airspeed increases, or vice versa, ‐ In approach, it is not possible to extend the landing gear using the normal landing gear system.

Answer 336

* Rely on the STALL warning. Erroneous airspeed data does not affect the STALL warning, because the STALL warning is based on angle of attack (AOA) data, * Depending on the situation, the OVERSPEED warning may be false or justified. When the OVERSPEED VFE warning triggers, the appearance of aircraft buffet is a symptom that the airspeed is indeed excessive.

Answer 337

In all cases, the initial actions are to disconnect the automations. This prevents the Flight Guidance to use erroneous data for the computation of the aircraft guidance. Initial disconnection of the automation can prevent: ‐ Erroneous orders, if AP/FD are engaged ‐ Erroneous thrust change, if A/THR is engaged.

Answer 338

If the A/THR automatically disconnects, the Thrust Lock function activates. The thrust is locked at its level at the moment of the disconnection until the flight crew moves the levers.

Answer 339

The flight crew should level off the aircraft: ‐ Use the Pitch and Thrust tables of the QRH ‐ Keep the flight path stabilized. The GPS altitude remains available on the MCDU GPS MONITOR page. GPS altitude can be used to confirm that the aircraft is maintaining level flight. Note: A difference may exist between the barometric altitude and the GPS altitude.

Answer 340

In order to identify and isolate the faulty ADR(s), the flight crew must crosscheck speed and altitude indications on CAPT PFD, F/O PFD and STBY instruments. To help the identification of the affected ADR(s), the flight crew can use: ‐ The Pitch and Thrust tables of the QRH procedure The Pitch and Thrust tables provide the resulting speed for a given aircraft weight and flight level. When one indication differs from the others, the flight crew may be tempted to reject the outlier information. However, they should be aware that two or even all three ADRs can provide identical but erroneous data.

Answer 341

When the flight crew has identified the affected ADR(s), they must turn off the affected ADR(s). As a consequence this triggers the corresponding ECAM alerts. The flight crew must apply the associated procedures to address all the consequences on the various aircraft systems. ‐ If the flight crew identifies at least one ADR to be reliable: the flight crew must use it and turn off affected ADR(s), ‐ If the flight crew cannot identify the affected ADR(s) or if all speed indications remain unreliable, the flight crew must: • Above FL 250, turn two ADRs off to prevent the flight control laws from using two consistent but unreliable ADR data. The flight crew must keep one ADR on. For flight continuation, the flight crew uses pitch and thrust tables of the QRH. • Below FL 250, turn off all ADRs then use the BUSS for the flight continuation.

Answer 342

When flying the aircraft with unreliable speed and/or altitude indications, it is recommended to change only one flight parameter at a time (i.e. speed, altitude or configuration). If the FPV is reliable (i.e. barometric altitude is reliable), or with the GPS altitude information: ‐ Maintain level flight (FPV on the horizon or constant GPS altitude), ‐ Adjust thrust, ‐ Observe the resulting pitch attitude, and compare it with the recommended pitch target in the table: • If the pitch necessary to maintain level flight is above the pitch target of the table, the aircraft is slow. Then increase the thrust. • If the pitch necessary to maintain level flight is below the pitch target of the table, the aircraft is fast. Then decrease the thrust. When the conditions are stabilized, the resulting thrust should be close to the value provided in the table. This technique enables a fast stabilization of the speed while maintaining level flight. If the FPV is not reliable and the GPS altitude information is not available (no means to ensure level flight): Adjust pitch and thrust according to QRH tables, and wait for speed stabilization. Expect a significant time to stabilize the flight path and important altitude variations during the stabilization.

Answer 343

When the BUSS is active: ‐ The AP/FD and A/THR must be disconnected, ‐ The F/CTL Laws are in Alternate law, ‐ The STALL warning remains operative, ‐ Cabin pressure must be controlled manually, ‐ Depending on the ADIRS standard, the FPV can be available on one or both PFDs as soon as the flight crew switch off all ADRs, The flight crew adjusts the pitch and thrust to fly green area of the speed scale. The BUSS is directly based on the current Angle-Of-Attack (AOA). Any longitudinal input on the stick will induce an AOA change, and therefore will cause the BUSS to move. If not, the flight crew must disregard the BUSS and use pitch and thrust tables. When the flight crew turns off all ADRs, the NAV ADR 1+2+3 FAULT ECAM alert triggers. The flight crew apply the associated procedure then, as requested by the ECAM, apply the “ALL ADR OFF” QRH procedure. This QRH procedure provides guidance to: ‐ Manually control the cabin pressure, ‐ Prepare the approach and landing.

Answer 344

CAUTION When flying with the BUSS, do not use the speed brakes. Flying with speed brakes extended affects the relationship between the speed and AOA, and therefore the BUSS may provide erroneous data.

Answer 345

For approach, the flight crew should perform a stabilized approach. The flight crew should change the aircraft configuration with level wings. To retract or to extend flaps, apply the following technique: ‐ Before retracting the next flaps configuration, fly the upper part of the green band, ‐ Before extending the next flaps configuration, fly the lower part of the green band. This technique limits the excursion in the amber zones when changing the flaps configuration.

Answer 346

The Radio Altimeters (RAs) provide inputs to a number of systems, including the GPWS and FWC for auto-callouts. They also supply information to the AP and A/THR modes, plus inputs to switch flight control laws at various stages.

Answer 347

Although the ECAM procedure for a RA 1 + 2 FAULT is straightforward, the consequences of the failure on the aircraft operation require consideration. Instead of using RA information, the flight control system uses inputs from the LGCIU to determine mode switching. Consequently, mode switching is as follows: ‐ On approach, flare law becomes active when the L/G is selected down and provided AP is disconnected. At this point, "USE MAN PITCH TRIM" is displayed on the PFD. ‐ After landing, ground law becomes active when the MLG is compressed and the pitch attitude becomes less than 2.5 °. - It is not possible to capture the ILS using the APPR pb and the approach must be flown to CAT 1 limits only. However, it is possible to capture the localiser using the LOC pb. - The final stages of the approach should be flown using raw data - As the AP gains are no longer updated with the radio altimeter signal, the AP/FD behaviour may be unsatisfactory when approaching the ground. - There will be no auto-callouts on approach, - No "RETARD" call in the flare - GPWS/EGPWS will be inoperative; therefore terrain awareness becomes very important. - "SPEED, SPEED, SPEED" low energy warning is also inoperative, again requiring increased awareness.

Answer 348

The smoke will be identified either by an ECAM warning, or by the crew without any ECAM warning. If the smoke is detected by the crew, without any ECAM warning, the flight crew will refer directly to the QRH SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS SMOKE procedure. If the "AVIONICS SMOKE" ECAM caution is activated, the flight crew can refer directly to the QRH SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS SMOKE procedure, or apply first the ECAM actions, before entering the QRH. The AVIONICS SMOKE ECAM procedure should be applied only IF SMOKE IS PERCEPTIBLE. The smoke is perceptible if the flight crew can confirm it visually or by smell. If smoke is not perceptible, the flight crew should consider a spurious warning and therefore stop the AVIONICS SMOKE procedure. If another ECAM SMOKE warning (e.g. LAVATORY SMOKE) is triggered, the flight crew must apply the ECAM procedure. If any doubt exists about the smoke origin, the flight crew will than refer to the QRH SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS SMOKE procedure.

Answer 349

The SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS SMOKE QRH procedure implements a global philosophy that is applicable to both cabin and cockpit smoke cases. This philosophy includes the following main steps: ‐ Diversion to be anticipated ‐ Immediate actions If smoke source not immediately isolated: ‐ Diversion initiation ‐ Smoke origin identification and fighting Furthermore, at any time during the procedure application, if smoke/fumes becomes the greatest threat, the boxed items will be completed.

Answer 350

IMMEDIATE ACTIONS These actions are common to all cases of smoke and fumes, whatever the source. Their objectives are: ‐ Flight crew protection, ‐ Avoiding any further contamination of the cockpit/cabin, ‐ Communication with cabin crew.

Answer 351

The crew tries to identify the smoke source by isolating systems. ‐ If smoke initially comes out of the cockpit's ventilation outlets, or if smoke is detected in the cabin, the crew may suspect an AIR COND SMOKE. In addition, very shortly thereafter, several SMOKE warnings (cargo, lavatory, avionics) will be triggered. The displayed ECAM procedures must therefore be applied. ‐ Following an identified ENG or APU failure, smoke may emanate from the faulty item through the bleed system and be perceptible in the cockpit or the cabin. In that case, it will be re-circulated throughout the aircraft, until it completely disappears from the air conditioning system. ‐ If only the AVIONICS SMOKE warning is triggered, the crew may suspect an AVIONICS SMOKE. ‐ If smoke is detected, while an equipment is declared faulty, the crew may suspect that smoke is coming from this equipment.

Answer 352

According to the source suspected, the crew will enter one of the 3 paragraphs: 1. IF AIR COND SMOKE SUSPECTED… 2. IF CAB EQUIPMENT SMOKE SUSPECTED… 3. IF AVNCS/COCKPIT SMOKE SUSPECTED… Since electrical fire is the most critical case, the Pilot will also enter paragraph 3 if he doesn't know the source of the smoke, or if the application of paragraph 1 and/or 2 has been unsuccessful. In this part of the procedure, the flight crew must consider setting the Emergency Electrical Configuration, to shed as much equipment as possible. This is in order to attempt to isolate the smoke source.

Answer 353

If the flight crew sets the electrical emergency configuration following a smoke detection in the avionic compartment ("AVIONICS SMOKE" ECAM caution triggered), the ECAM does not display the same procedure as the one displayed following the loss of main generators. In fact in this case, the ECAM displays a specific procedure that takes into account the smoke detection: As the flight crew has voluntarily set the electrical emergency configuration, the purpose of the ELEC EMER CONFIG ECAM procedure is not to try to restore the generators, but to remain in electrical emergency configuration, and restore generators before landing to perform the landing in normal electrical configuration.

Answer 354

BOXED ITEMS These items (applying REMOVAL of SMOKE/FUMES procedure, setting electrical emergency configuration, or considering immediate landing) may be applied at any time, in the procedure (but not before the immediate actions). Once the first step of the REMOVAL of SMOKE/FUMES procedure have been applied, the flight crew will come back to the SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS SMOKE procedure, to apply the appropriate steps, depending on the suspected smoke source while descending to FL 100. Reaching FL 100, the REMOVAL of SMOKE/FUMES procedure will be completed.

Answer 355

Several electronic devices contain lithium batteries, for example: ‐ Laptop computers, ‐ Mobile phones, ‐ Portable electronic tablets, etc. Fire or smoke from lithium battery is due to thermal runaway in the battery cells. It is important to know that halon extinguishers are efficient on flames but cannot stop thermal runaway. The treatment for thermal runaway of lithium battery is to cool the battery by pouring water or non-alcoholic liquid on the device. Transfer control to the flight crew member seated on the opposite side of the fire. The Pilot Flying (PF) contacts the cabin crew "Safety unit to cockpit". Here the cabin crew must fill a container with water and must immerse the device in it. If there are flames, the PM must use the halon extinguisher. Before discharging the halon extinguisher, it is important to protect the flight crew respiratory system: the PF must wear the oxygen mask and the PM must wear the smoke hood .

Answer 356

The crew should be aware that, even after successful operation of the cargo fire bottle, the CARGO SMOKE warning might persist due to the smoke detectors being sensitive to the extinguishing agent. On the ground, the crew should instruct the ground crew not to open the cargo door until the passengers have disembarked and fire services are present. If SMOKE warning is displayed on ground with the cargo compartment door open, do not initiate an AGENT DISCHARGE. Request the ground crew to investigate and eliminate the smoke source. On ground, the warning may be triggered due to a high level of humidity.

Answer 357

PIR - Possible damage to aircraft ‐ In-flight loss of the fan cowl doors ‐ Structural damage to the aircraft ‐ Danger to people on ground.

Answer 358

PIR - Navigation may be affected The flight crew awareness of the weather and the terrain will be reduced in flight.

Answer 359

PIR - The handling or the control of the aircraft may be affected. Climb or descent does not stop.

Answer 360

PIR - Possibility of injury to passengers. If the QNH is not correct, the Cabin Pressure Controller (CPC) computes erroneous cabin pressurization segment, that may trigger pressurization related ECAM alert and lead to undue emergency descent.

Answer 361

PIR - Navigation may be affected Pressing the EO CLR key on the MCDU is an irreversible action that leads to the loss of single engine computation (discrepancy between the computation and real aircraft status).

Answer 362

PIR - Possible damage to aircraft At takeoff: When slats/flaps are locked and if the flight crew does not select the current speed, the aircraft continues to accelerate and possibly exceeds Max Speed. PIR - The handling or the control of the aircraft may be affected. In approach: When slats/flaps are locked and if the flight crew does not select the current speed, the aircraft continues to decelerate down to a speed that is not consistent with the current aircraft configuration.

Answer 363

PIR - Navigation may be affected Irreversible loss of redundancy. The associated IR is lost, and cannot be recovered until the end of the flight.

Answer 364

PIR - The handling or the control of the aircraft may be affected. The autothrust mode may remain in THR CLB or THR DES, whereas it must be in SPEED mode. This may lead to the activation of the high speed/AOA protection.

FCTM Flashcards

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