Federal Aviation Regulations Flashcards
(98 cards)
1
Q
What must be in your physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when acting as PIC or as a required flight crewmember?
A
An appropriate pilot certificate and medical certificate, and a photo id.
Logbook endorsed with flight review or pilot proficiency check within the preceding 24 calendar months.
2
Q
To whom must you present your pilot certificate or medical certificate for inspection upon request?
A
The administrator, the NTSB, the TSA, or any federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
3
Q
Which medical certificate must a private pilot have?
A
1st, 2nd or 3rd class.
4
Q
Which medical certificate(s) is/are required for various commercial operations?
A
2nd and 3rd class.
5
Q
How long are medical certificates valid?
A
60 calendar months if issued before age 40, 24 calendar months otherwise.
6
Q
If a first class medical certificate is issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, when will it expire?
A
October 31st, 5 years later.
7
Q
For which aircraft are pilot certificates valid?
A
Only for the category and class of aircraft for which the pilot is rated.
8
Q
To what does “category of aircraft” refer?
A
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air.
9
Q
What is a class of aircraft? What are the classes of airplanes?
A
Class is a subcategory of category.
Single-engine land.
Single-engine sea.
Multiengine land.
Multiengine sea.
10
Q
What is aircraft “type”?
A
A subcategory of class. It refers to the make and model, such as Cessna 172.
11
Q
When is a type rating required?
A
For a PIC of an aircraft with a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds, or turbojet powered.
12
Q
Regarding certification, to what do category and class refer?
A
Category refers to normal, utility, or acrobatic.
Class refers to airplane, helicopter, powered lift, glider, and hot air balloon.
13
Q
Which aircraft documents are required to be on onboard the aircraft during flight?
A
Airworthiness certificate.
Registration certificate.
Operating limitations.
Weight and balance.
14
Q
How long does an airworthiness certificate remain valid?
A
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by the FARs.
15
Q
What is the registration certificate? How often must it be renewed?
A
It shows the owner of the aircraft. It must be renewed every three years.
16
Q
Where are the operating limitations found?
A
In the current FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, placards, or any combination thereof.
17
Q
What are the limitations on a restricted category civil aircraft?
A
Flight over a densely populated area is normally prohibited.
18
Q
What are the limitations on operating an aircraft with an experimental certificate?
A
It cannot be operated along a congested airway, unless specifically authorized otherwise.
19
Q
Where are the operating limitations for experimental or special light-sport airplanes located?
A
They are attached to the airworthiness certificate.
20
Q
What is required of a pilot in order to tow gliders?
A
- At least 100 hours of PIC time in the same category, class, and type of aircraft.
- Within the preceding 12 months, made three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
21
Q
What is a high-performance airplane?
A
An airplane with more than 200 horsepower.
22
Q
What is a complex airplane?
A
One with retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable propeller.
23
Q
What do you need to act as PIC of a complex or high-performance airplane?
A
- You must have received ground and flight training from an authorized flight instructor in a high-performance or complex airplane, as appropriate.
- Your flight instructor must also enter a one-time endorsement in your logbook.
- The training may be taken in an approved flight simulator.
24
Q
What cost-sharing privileges does a private pilot have?
A
- A private pilot may share fuel, oil, airport expenses, and rental fees one a pro-rata basis with passengers.
- A private pilot may carry passengers who pay for the flight if a donation is made to a charitable organization.
25
What do you need to do to be able to carry passengers?
- You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the past 90 days.
- To carry passengers in a tailwheel airplane, the takeoffs and landings must be made in a tailwheel airplane, and to a full stop.
- To carry passengers at night, the takeoffs and landings must be made to a full stop at night.
26
When is nighttime, for the purpose of carrying passengers? When is it otherwise defined?
- For carrying passengers, the period from 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
- Otherwise, from the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
27
Who is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft?
The pilot in command.
28
When can you deviate from the FARs?
During an in-flight emergency that requires immediate action, you can deviate to the extent required to meet the emergency. No written report is required to be sent to the Administrator unless requested.
29
What preflight actions are required by regulations?
- Becoming familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
- Determining runway lengths at airports of intended use.
- Determining an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
- Review the maintenance records to determine an aircraft's airworthiness.
30
What are the fuel requirements for day and night VFR flight?
Enough to fly to the first point of landing, and 30 minutes more at normal cruising speed. At night, 45 minutes.
31
Who is responsible for determining that an aircraft is in a condition for safe flight?
The pilot in command.
32
Who is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in airworthy condition?
The owner/operator.
33
Who is responsible for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records, indicating that the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
The owner/operator.
34
How often must all aircraft be inspected? How long is that inspection good for?
Every 12 months. Good until the end of the 12th calendar month.
35
What must aircraft maintenance records show?
Completion of the annual inspection, the date of the annual, and the return to service of the aircraft.
36
What additional inspections are required for rental aircraft?
In addition to the annual, a 100-hour inspection is also required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction.
37
An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tach read 1247.2. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
1347.2.
38
Can the 100-hour inspection limit be exceeded?
Yes, by not more than 10 hours, if necessary to reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess hours are deducted from the next inspection time.
39
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3301.4. It was actually done at 3501.4. When is the next inspection due?
3401.4.
40
What is an airworthiness directive?
A regulatory notice issued by the FAA, and sent to registered owners of aircraft. It contains information about the discovery of some adverse condition that causes an aircraft to be unairworthy.
41
Are airworthiness directives mandatory?
Yes. The owner/operator is responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is in compliance with all applicable ADs.
42
May a pilot operate an aircraft if it is not compliant with an Airworthiness Directive?
Yes, if allowed by the AD.
43
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, what must occur?
The aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot (at least private pilot), and approved for return to service prior to carrying passengers.
44
Under what conditions can an owner/operator perform maintenance on his airplane?
- He is at least a private pilot.
- It's preventive maintenance. Preventive maintenance is defined as simple or preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations.
- After the preventive maintenance has been performed, the signature, certificate number, kind of certificate held by the person performing the work, and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
45
What is required in Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace?
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter.
46
How often does an ATC transponder need to be inspected?
Every 24 calendar months.
47
Who has right-of-way over all other aircraft?
An aircraft in distress.
48
When two aircraft are approaching head-on, what should they do?
Each give way to the right.
49
If a glider and an airplane approach each other head-on, who should give way?
Both.
50
When two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on, who gives way?
The aircraft on the left (the aircraft on the right has the right of way).
51
If two aircraft are in different categories, who has the right-of-way in a conflict?
The least maneuverable.
52
Who has right-of-way over engine-driven aircraft?
Aircraft towing or refueling.
53
Who has right-of-way over aircraft towing or refueling?
A glider.
54
What must an aircraft do when being operated at night?
It must display position lights from sunset to sunrise (except in Alaska).
55
How are aircraft lights arranged?
RIGHT WINGTIP: green light
LEFT WINGTIP: red light
TAIL: white light
BELLY OR TOP: flashing red light
56
When two or more aircraft are approaching to land, who has the right of way?
The airplane at the lower altitude (but you can't take advantage of this rule by diving below another plane).
57
A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. The motorboat is to the left of the seaplane. Who has the right of way?
The seaplane, because it's on the right.
58
What must you do when departing an uncontrolled airport?
Comply with any FAA traffic patterns established for the airport.
59
What should you do prior to starting a maneuver?
Visually scan the area for collision avoidance.
60
What should you do when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
Make gentle banks left and right for continuous scanning of the airspace.
61
When is formation flight allowed?
By prior arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft.
62
What does an ATC clearance provide?
An authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace (but not separation or priority over other aircraft).
63
What happens when an FSS and an control tower are on the same airport, and the tower closes for the night?
The FSS provides Airport Advisory Service.
64
Can you enter or cross a runway without a specific clearance?
No.
65
What must you acknowledge if you are instructed to hold short?
The name of the runway.
66
When should you contact ground control after landing?
Only when told to do so by tower.
67
When can you deviate from an ATC clearance?
- You receive an amended clearance.
- You have an emergency.
- You are responding to a TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) alert.
68
If you deviate from an ATC clearance because of an emergency, must you submit a report?
Only if asked to do so.
69
If you deviate from an ATC clearance and are given priority, must you submit a report?
Only if asked to by the chief of the ATC facility. Then it must be submitted within 48 hours, even if no rule has been violated.
70
What should you do if your radio fails when landing at a controlled airport?
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower. You can also squawk 7600.
71
What do the following light signals mean on the ground?
- Flashing white light
- Flashing green light
- Flashing white light: return to the starting point on the airport.
- Flashing green light: cleared to taxi.
72
What do the following light signals mean in the air:
- Steady green light
- Steady red light
- Flashing red light
- Alternating red and green lights
- Steady green light: cleared to land.
- Steady red light: give way to other aircraft, and continue circling.
- Flashing red light: airport is unsafe for landing.
- Alternating red and green lights: exercise extreme caution.
73
When flying at 18,000' MSL or above, what should the altimeter be set to?
29.92"Hg
74
What should the altimeter be set to prior to takeoff?
The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
75
What are the appropriate VFR cruising altitudes?
When flying VFR in level flight more than 3,000' AGL, on a magnetic course of 0° through 179°, it's odd thousands plus 500. 180° through 359°, even.
76
What are the 5 speed limits, in maximum indicated airspeed?
- Below 10,000' MSL: 250 knots.
- Under Class B airspace: 200 knots.
- In a VFR corridor through Class B airspace: 200 knots.
- In Class C or D airspace, within 4NM of the primary airport, at or below 2,500 AGL: 200 knots.
- In Class B airspace, at and above 10,000' MSL, there is no speed limit. If within Class B airspace and below 10,000' MSL, the general limit of 250 knots applies. This includes airspace at or below 2,500' AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport of Class B airspace.
77
Name 4 rules surrounding safety belts and harnesses.
- Safety belts must be properly secured about the passengers during taxi, takeoff, and landings.
- The PIC must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts, and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landings.
- Flight crewmembers must keep safety belts fastened during takeoff and landing, and while at their stations en route.
- Flight crewmembers must keep shoulder harnesses fastened during takeoff and landing.
78
What are the rules surrounding oxygen use?
- No person may operate an unpressurized civil aircraft of U.S. registry above 15,000' MSL, unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen.
- When above 12,500' MSL, up to and including 14,000' MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used if operating for more than 30 minutes.
- Above 14,000' MSL, the flight crew must use oxygen the entire time at or above that altitude.
79
What are the minimum safe altitudes?
- Anywhere: an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
- Congested areas: 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet.
- Open water or sparsely populated area: 500 feet from any person, structure, vehicle, or vessel.
- Over other than congested areas: an altitude of 500 feet AGL.
80
Where is acrobatic flight prohibited?
- Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D, and E airspace designated for an airport.
- On a federal airway.
- Below 1,500' AGL.
- With less than 3 miles visibility.
- Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
- Over an open air assembly of persons.
81
What are the rules surrounding use of parachutes?
- When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down at least 30°, each occupant must wear an approved parachute.
- A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding 180 days.
82
On what frequencies does an ELT transmit on?
121.5 and 243.0 MHz.
83
How do the newer digital ELTs work?
- They transmit on 121.5 and 406 MHz, which is monitored by satellite.
- They can transmit information about the aircraft, its owner, and its location.
84
How can you ensure that the ELT has not been activated?
Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.
85
When must ELT batteries be replaced?
They must be replaced (or recharged, if rechargeable) when 50% of their useful life expires, or when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
86
When can you do operational tests of the ELT?
Only during the first five minutes of every hour. However, digital 406 MHz ELTs should only be tested by an approved technician.
87
Who monitors 121.5?
ATC, and overflying aircraft.
88
When must you immediately notify the nearest NTSB field office?
- An accident with substantial damage to the aircraft, regardless of whether there were injuries to the occupants.
- An overdue aircraft believed to be involved in an accident.
- Inability of any required crewmember to perform normal flight duties due to in-flight injury or illness.
- Flight control system malfunction or failure.
- In-flight fire (not a ground fire).
- Separation (release) of all or a portion of a propeller blade in flight (unless it was a ground strike).
- Loss of information from more than 50% of the electronic displays (not including flickering, unless it is so severe that it makes the display unusable).
- Failure of any internal turbine engine component that results in escape of debris other than out the exhaust.
- More than $25K in damage to property other than the aircraft.
- An aircraft has an ACAS (Airborne Collision and Avoidance System), and a resolution advisory is issued to an aircraft operating in Class A airspace, or an aircraft is being operated on an instrument flight plan and compliance with the advisory is necessary to avert a substantial risk of collision between two or more aircraft.
89
Can you drop objects from an aircraft?
Yes, if precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
90
If you change your permanent mailing address, what must you do?
Notify the FAA airmen certification branch within 30 days.
91
What can cause your certificate, rating, authorization, or application to be suspended, revoked, or denied?
- Violating any federal or state law relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs.
- Operating an aircraft as a crewmember under the influence of alcohol, or using drugs that affect your faculties.
92
What are the rules surrounding reporting convictions to the FAA?
A written report to the FAA civil aviation security must be made no later than 60 days after conviction, if convicted of:
- Operating or driving a motor vehicle (car, boat, motorcycle, etc.) while intoxicated, impaired, or under the influence of alcohol or drugs.
- A motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs.
93
Can you allow a person obviously under the influence aboard a plane?
Only if the person is a medical patient under proper care or in an emergency.
94
What is the blood alcohol limit for acting as a crewmember of an aircraft?
0.04 percent.
95
Within how long must you not have consumed alcoholic beverages before acting as a crewmember of an aircraft?
8 hours.
96
What constitutes one alcoholic drink? How long can it be detected?
One bottle of beer, one ounce of liquor, or four ounces of wine. Can be detected in the blood and breath for at least 3 hours.
97
Can aircraft wreckage be moved before the NTSB takes custody of it?
Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
98
For what must a report be submitted to the NTSB within 10 days?
Accidents - at all times.
| Incidents - only if requested.
