Federal Civ Pro Flashcards

1
Q

federal SMJ requires either

A

diversity jurisdiction OR

federal question jurisdiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

federal courts can only hear questions presented as

A

cases or controversys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

removal requirements - when in time?

A

when plaintiff files a claim in state court
then defendant may remove to federal court only if
diversity/federal question existed at the date of FILING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

solution to lack of SMJ when one of several defendants is non-diverse?

A

dismiss the non-diverse defendant before trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

requirements of standing for case or controversy requirement of Article III

A

(1) injury in fact
(2) fairly traceable to defendants conduct
(3) redressable by a favorable federal court decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

under Strawbridge, _____ diversity requirement means:

A

complete;

every plaintiff party must be diverse from every defendant party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Erie doctrine provides that federal courts apply ___ procedural law and ___ substantive law
BUT only where there is a ____

A

federal procedural law;
state substantive law
BUT only where there is a conflict.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

policy objective of Erie doctrine

A

to ensure that the outcome of federal court adjudication is substantially similar to the outcome of similar litigation in state court
and therefore discourage forum shopping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

are state choice of law statutes substantive or procedural for purposes of Erie?

A

substantive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when a federal procedural rule (ie, FCRP) and a state procedural rule directly conflict

A

then federal rule prevails

even if it would create forum shopping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

corporate state citizenship test

A

(1) any state where incorporated AND

(2) principal place of business as determined by nerve center test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

non-corporate entities citizenship test

A

citizenship of every state where its members are domiciled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

citizenship and suits against insurers under the Direct Action Statute

A

insurer retains own citizenship PLUS is assigned the citizenship of the insured in question

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

type of case where “minimal diversity” is sufficient

A

interpleader

when the stakeholder is diverse from at least two claimants, federal courts have SMJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

diversity in class action suits

A

representative plaintiffs must be diverse from all defendants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

jurisdictional amount rule

A

plaintiffs complaint in federal court must allege
in good faith
that her damages will exceed $75,000, exclusive of interest and costs
note: attorney fees can be included if state statute or contract provides for them during a suit for breach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

jurisdictional amount calculation when installment contract at issue

A

only calculate unpaid amount of installment contract (not forthcoming payments) UNLESS

(1) there is an acceleration clause OR
(2) one party alleges fraud and cancellation of contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

standard for determining that damages meet the threshold is

A

“likely to exceed”
plaintiff is allowed to state specific amount, if allowed by state law OR
federal court can draw reasonable inferences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

if defendant is trying to establish that damages will exceed $75k, usually in a tort suit where plaintiff cannot state specific damages under La law

A

defendant must make a plausible allegation that JA is satisfied
no evidence required

if plaintiff tries to deny, then court will resolve by preponderance of the evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

aggregation rules

A

(1) when one plaintiff and one defendant, allowed for any claims
(2) when one plaintiff and multiple defendants, plaintiff must have JA satisfied with each defendant
(3) multiple plaintiffs vs. one defendant - Ps may aggregate many smaller claims IFF they have a common, undivided interest OR a single title or right is involved in the suit
(4) multiple Ps vs multiple Ds, each P must have $75k in controversy with each D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when must federal question be presented

A

federal question must be present in plaintiff’s well-pleaded complaint

the existence of a definite federal defense does not justify plaintiff’s filing in federal court (ie, bankruptcy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

federal question jurisdiction definition

A

presents a case ARISING UNDER federal statute or the US constitution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

between P1 and D1, what claims can be joined?

A

all claims between single plaintiff and single defendant may be joined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when can multiple Ps join claims against single D
OR
when can multiple Ds be sued together?

A

when
(1) claims arise from same transaction or occurrence
AND
(2) a question of law and fact common to all plaintiffs or defendants (whichever is multiple) will arise during action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

when is party a necessary or required party?

A

(1) when complete relief cannot be accorded among those who are already parties;
OR
(2) when absent party claims an interest in subject matter and disposition in their absence may leave present parties at risk for double or inconsistent liability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

can case proceed without joinder of necessary party?

A

consider

(1) prejudice to absentee and present parties
(2) adequacy of judgment
(3) ability to shape relief to avoid prejudice
(4) availability of alternatives to absent party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

claim brought by defendant against plaintiff

A

counterclaim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

claim brought by defendant against co-defendant

A

cross-claim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

claim brought by defendant against non-party alleging that the non-party is responsible for some of all of original plaintiff’s liability

A

impleader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

timing of impleader

A

within 14 days of serving original answer or with leave of court

31
Q

when non-party wants to join the suit (2 types)

A

intervention

intervenor of right: when person claims an interest relating to the property or transaction subject to federal action, and proceeding without her would impede her ability to protect that interest

permissive intervenor: same as above but interests are adequately represented by present parties OR when common question of law or fact exists between existing parties and intervenor’s claim

32
Q

when someone holds property and multiple people want it, the property holder files

A

interpleader

stakeholder deposits property with court, and claimants are haled in as co-defendants

statutory interpleader requires minimal diversity & $500
rule interpleader requires complete diversity & $75k

33
Q

class action requirements

A

(1) numerosity AND
(2) common questions AND
(3) typicality of claims of representatives AND
(4) fair and adequate representation of class by representatives

AND one of the following

(1) risk of inconsistent results OR
(2) injunctive or declaratory relief appropriate OR
(3) common questions predominate

34
Q

diversity in class actions

A

all representatives must be diverse from all defendants

35
Q

jurisdictional amounts in class actions

A

when one class member has a claim exceeding $75k, all class members may proceed in federal court

36
Q

supplemental jurisdiction basic standard

A

additional state law claims that arise from a
“common nucleus of operative fact”
may be joined to original claim giving federal court SMJ

37
Q

federal court may decline to exercise supplemental jurisdiction when (4):

A

(1) when supplemental claim presents a novel or complex issue of state law
(2) when claim substantially predominates over the claims over which the federal court has original SMJ
(3) when court has dismissed all claims providing original SMJ
(4) in exceptional circumstances

38
Q

supplemental jurisdiction is preferred when original jurisdiction is

A

federal question.

if the original jurisdiction is conferred by a diversity claim, then lack of complete diversity in supplemental claims will bar their joinder (ie, in diversity, all claims must meet 1332 diversity requirements), but lack of JA is fine

39
Q

supplemental jurisdiction is always available for (5):

A

(1) compulsory counterclaims (ie, claim against original P arising out of same transaction or occurrence as original claim)
(2) crossclaims (ie, claims between original Ds arising out of same transaction or occurrence as original claim)
(3) impleader by defendant (ie, original D’s claim against non-party claiming that 3rd party is liable to D for some or all of P’s claim)
(4) claim by impleaded 3rd party defendant against original plaintiff (ie, claim by 3rd party D vs P arising out of same transaction or occurrence as original claim)
(5) defendant-intervenor by right’s claim against plaintiff (claim by defendant-interest-aligned intervenor vs P whose claim arises out of same transaction or occurrence as original claim)

40
Q

supplemental jurisdiction not available when original SMJ is based on diversity jurisdiction for these (2) claims

A

(1) plaintiff-intervenors of right when their claim against defendant lacks absolute diversity or JA
AND
(2) original plaintiff’s claim against a 3rd party impleaded defendant, if that claim would lack original 1332 SMJ

41
Q

removal process

A

(1) defendant must file timely notice of removal in federal district court
(2) within 30 days of service of the state suit (ie, service of petition and citation)
(3) if suit becomes removable after original filing, then D must file notice of removal within 30 days of receiving paper from which it is ascertainable that the suit is now removable
(4) if there are multiple Ds, all Ds must join together to file notice of removal and either sign notice of removal OR provide written consent therefor
(5) Ds must provide short and plain statement of reason for removability of suit - ie, why fed court has SMJ
(6) Ds sign the notice and attach a copy of all state court processes, pleadings, and orders
(7) Ds file the notice and attachments in federal court and serve on plaintiff
(8) Ds take notice and file documents in state court

note: D only has 1 year from original date of FILING to remove suit, unless P concealed/deceived D about removability (amt in controversy) for more than that time
(9) P then has 30 days to file motion to remand if he wishes to object to removal

42
Q

Caterpillar rule:

when a non-diverse party is present in removed federal suit, exception barring remand when

A

(1) a complete diversity SMJ defect existed at date of filing but was cured before the beginning of trial
OR
(2) if the plaintiff fraudulently joined a non-diverse party to defeat removal. if diverse D removes anyway, federal court may allow case to remain in federal court if there is no reasonable possibility for P’s recovery against non-diverse D

43
Q

when D in diversity suit is a citizen of forum state, then during removal

A

removal is defeated even if complete diversity exists between parties

44
Q

evidence of plaintiff’s bad faith in defeating removal

A

(1) failure to describe seriousness of injuries in state complaint
(2) intentional failure to serve defendant until last possible day
(3) providing vague answer to interrogatories about injuries or damages
(4) failure to supply records revealing severity of injuries until after 1-year deadline
(5) requesting numerous extensions of time for discovery

45
Q

personal jurisdiction definition

A

ability of the court to exercise power over a particular defendant or item of property

46
Q

general vs. specific personal jurisdiction

A

specific jurisdiction encompasses suits that arise out of or relate to the defendant’s contacts with the forum

general exists for suits that do not arise out of or relate to the defendants minimum contacts with the forum – ie, all-purpose jurisdiction

47
Q

factors for minimum contacts for specific jurisdiction (3)

A

(1) purposeful availment
note: stream of commerce PJ requires placing object in stream of commerce PLUS some other intent factor, like marketing, special help line, exclusive vendor, etc

(2) foreseeability: knew or reasonable should have anticipated that her activities in the form made it foreseeable that she may be haled into court there

AND

(3) fair play and substantial justice

48
Q

standard for general jurisdiction

A

defendant’s contacts with the forum state are so consistent and pervasive as to render the defendant essentially at home in the forum state

49
Q

fair play and substantial justice specific jurisdiction requirements

A

(1) degree of burden - is forum so gravely difficult and inconvenient that it puts defendant at severe disadvantage?
(2) plaintiff’s interest in obtaining convenient and effective relief
(3) interest of X state forum in exercising jurisdiction over plaintiff’s claim
(4) interstate efficiency, considering the location of witnesses and evidence
(5) advancement of social policy considering the availability of alternate forums

50
Q

interactive website jurisdiction (Zippo test)

A

operating website may constitute purposeful availment when

(1) nonresident defendant operates an interactive website that solicits customers to place a commercial order and transacts in goods and services in the forum location where customers reside –> PJ exists
(2) passive website simply providing information to any browsing user –> no PJ

factors to analyze = interactivity and quality of commercial activity
limiting factors =
website must target louisiana customers or
focus on the louisiana market through targeted advertising

51
Q

venue

A

(1) where defendant resides if one D // if all Ds are citizens of same state, then any fed district in that state where one D resides
OR
(2) where substantial part of events or omissions giving rise to the claim occurred
OR
(3) where a substantial part of property that is the subject of the action is situated
OR if none of the above (ie, international event)
(4) any district where any defendant is subject to PJ
OR
(5) by consent of defendants

52
Q

if improper venue, D should

A

motion to transfer to proper district court
OR
motion to dismiss, plaintiff may refile in appropriate venue: note, P then subject to SOL running

53
Q

if D wishes to transfer to another proper venue from P’s choice of proper venue

A

motion to transfer, court should weigh factors of

(1) convenience of witnesses and
(2) interest of justice

54
Q

service requirements

A

Ds must be served within 90 days of filing complaint

must be served by person over 18 and no a party

if service received at place of abode, must be received by person who lives there and is of suitable age and discretion

55
Q

waiver of service procedure

A

(1) plaintiff sends by first class mail to defendant:
(a) copy of petition
(b) request for waiver of service
(c) two copies of waiver
(d) prepaid means of returning waiver to plaintiff
(2) defendant has 30 days from mailing by plaintiff to return
(3) if D waives service, then he has 60 days from when P sent waiver to file answer
(4) P should file returned waiver in court as proof of substitute service

56
Q

if D refuses to waive service, then

A

(1) must file answer in 21 days
(2) must pay costs of private process server
(3) pay reasonable attorneys fee to cover motion for costs
(4) pay court costs for that motion

57
Q

jury demand

A

plaintiff may make in complaint
defendant may make in answer
if not until after answer, then P has 14 days from SERVICE of answer to request.

58
Q

timing of pre-answer motions

A

lack of SMJ at any time
lack/insufficiency of PJ, venue, process, or service of process – must be raised in answer or waived
12b6 or failure to join necessary party - raise any time before or during trial.

59
Q

rule 11 sanctions grounds

A

(1) pleading filed for improper purpose such as harassment or delay
(2) claims not warranted by existing law or non-frivolous argument for extension or reversal
OR
(3) evidentiary support for claim does not exist nor is likely to exist after discovery

60
Q

origiinal jurisdiction encompassess

A

1331 & 1332 & other federal statutes granting original jurisdiction

61
Q

under all federal jurisdictional theories, Section 1367 supplemental subject matter jurisdiction requires the original claim and the supplemental claim to

A

The claim must share a common nucleus of operative facts

62
Q

In federal court, for the exercise of personal jurisdiction over an out-of-state defendant to be proper:

A

The exercise must be authorized by the state’s long arm statute, and the exercise of personal jurisdiction must be constitutional.

63
Q

How can the Eleventh Amendment (state immunity from suit in federal court) be abrogated?

A

Congress can use only the Fourteenth Amendment to impose statutory liability.

64
Q

two requirements for federal court abstention under the Pullman doctrine are

A

a federal constitutional question involved,
and
there must be an unclear issue of state law, that, if resolved, would resolve the federal constitutional question.

65
Q

six types of pleadings permitted by the FCRP are

A

complaint,
answer,
reply to counterclaim,
answer to cross-claim (if cross-claim is filed),
third party complaint, and
third party answer (if third party complaint is served).

66
Q

when requesting rule 60 relief from a judgment,

A

any grounds are allowable

67
Q

amending a pleading

A

one amendment allowed within 21 days as a matter of course. thereafter, by leave of court.

court shall grant leave as long as there is no prejudice to other parties.

68
Q

relation back rule in amending pleading

A

adding a new claim arising from the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence as that complained of in the original pleading is allowed because it relates back to the original pleading

adding a new party or changing the party follows the same rules

69
Q

12b6 motion shall be granted if

A

(1) claim not cognizable as a matter of law OR

(2) failure to allege sufficient facts to raise a plausible claim

70
Q

initial disclosure requires

A

(1) name address and phone number of individuals likely to have discoverable information, and the subjects of that information unless that use would be solely for impeachment
(2) copy or description of all documents and things the party has in its possession, custody, or control
(3) insurance agreement if its policy would be use to satisfy a judgment in the case
(4) computation of damages claimed by the disclosing party

71
Q

is there a continuing duty to disclose?

A

yes if the original disclosure was incomplete or incorrect

72
Q

timing of initial disclosure

A

made at or within 14 days of the Rule 26 discovery conference

73
Q

pretrial disclosoures

A

30 days before trial:
must disclose witnesses who maybe called
witness testimony to be presented via deposition
documents or exhibits to be used at trial

74
Q

expert testimony disclosure

A

must be disclosed 90 days before trial
expert must be available for deposition
report must be provided which contains all opinions the witness will express and the bases and reasons for them