FEDERAL LAW QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

What was the first law to prohibit the distribution of food and drugs that are misbranded or adulterated?

A

Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 prohibits the distribution of food and drugs that are contaminated (adulterated) or contain labeling that is misleading or incorrect (misbranded).

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2
Q

What is the system that can be used as an electronic substitute for DEA Form 222 when ordering Schedule II controlled substances?

A

Controlled Substance Ordering System or CSOS is a secure electronic substitute for a physical DEA Form 222 to order Schedule II controlled substances.

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3
Q

What federal agency is responsible for overseeing the federal Controlled Substances Act (CSA)?

A

The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) oversees the federal CSA (Controlled Substances Act).

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4
Q

Which resource determines the bioequivalence of drugs?

A

The Orange Book (Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations) is the primary source for determining the therapeutic equivalence of drugs.

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5
Q

Which resource can be used to determine if biological products are considered biosimilars?

A

The Purple Book provides a list of biological products considered biosimilars and provides interchangeability evaluations for biologics.

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6
Q

When ordering Schedule II controlled substances, who keeps the original DEA Form 222?

A

The purchaser (pharmacy) fills out and submits the DEA Form 222 to order Schedule II controlled substances and submits the original DEA Form 222 to the supplier. The supplier obtains and keeps the original DEA Form 222 for their records. The purchaser makes and retains a copy of the original DEA Form 222 for their records. These records can be physically or electronically retained by the purchaser.

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7
Q

Which DEA form should be completed to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances?

A

DEA Form 106 should be filled out and submitted to the DEA upon discovery of theft or significant loss of controlled substances. A copy of the DEA Form 106 should be retained in pharmacy records. The DEA should be contacted immediately by phone, fax, or brief written message about the theft/loss. Local authorities should also be alerted.

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8
Q

What is the first application that must be submitted to the FDA before a drug can be administered to humans in order to start testing?

A

An IND (Investigational New Drug Application) must be submitted to the FDA before testing can begin in humans. The IND must not have been marketed in the US prior to the application. The FDA has 30 days to approve or reject the application. If approved, human testing can begin for the new drug.

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9
Q

Which phase of clinic drug trials determines efficacy?

A

Phase II

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10
Q

Clinical Drug Trial Phases

A

Clinical Drug Trials are used for new drugs that have not been marketed before. Trials are conducted in 4 phases.

  1. Phase I assesses drug properties like pharmacokinetics and adverse effects. Conducted in a small group of healthy participants.
  2. Phase II assesses the efficacy of the drug compared to current standard of care or placebo.
  3. Phase III provides a more comprehensive understanding of potential risks and benefits of the new drug. Conducted in a larger group of participants.
  4. Phase IV is post-marketing surveillance of the new drug that gathers information about problems and adverse effects with the drug after it has been released and marketed.
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11
Q

Which act regulates the sale and record-keeping requirements of prescription drug samples?

A

The Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 (PDMA):
- regulates the sale and record-keeping requirements for prescription drug samples.
- regulates storage, distribution, and resale of drug samples.
- enforces record-keeping requirements of drug samples.
- prohibits hospitals and other healthcare entities from reselling drugs to other businesses. Hospitals get special rates for drugs.
- regulates state licensure or wholesalers.

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12
Q

What application must be submitted for approval by a drug manufacturer to the FDA if the manufacturer wants to change the way a currently marketed drug is being produced?

A

A Prior Approval Supplement (PAS) must be submitted to the FDA by a drug manufacturer of a currently marketed drug if the manufacturer would like to change the way a drug is produced including:
- location of manufacturing
- processes and procedures of manufacturing
- packaging of drug
- biosynthesis of drug

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13
Q

Scenarios in which Schedule II controlled substances CAN be transferred

A
  • a pharmacy is closing and wants to transfer its C2 inventory to another pharmacy.
  • a pharmacy decides to not renew its DEA registration and decides to transfer its C2 inventory to another pharmacy.
  • a pharmacy orders the wrong C2 controlled substance and would like to transfer the incorrectly ordered C2 to its supplier.
  • a pharmacy would like to transfer X amount of bottles to another pharmacy.
  • researchers authorized to use C2 controlled substances for research purposes only MAY transfer C2 controlled substances to another researcher authorized to use C2 controlled substances for research purposes only
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14
Q

Research and C2 controlled substances

A
  • researchers must be authorized to use C2 controlled substances to conduct research.
  • researchers may transfer C2 CSs to another researcher that is authorized to conduct research with C2 CSs for the purposes of research only.
  • researchers CANNOT dispense C2 CSs to patients or transfer C2 CSs to pharmacies.
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15
Q

A patient is not satisfied with the way a pharmacy filled their prescription the first time it was filled and demands to have the prescription back so they can fill the prescription at another pharmacy. What can the pharmacist do for the patient in this scenario?

A
  • the original pharmacy that filled the prescription at the first fill MUST retain the original hard copy as once it is filled and dispensed, the original pharmacy legally owns the prescription.
  • the original pharmacy may transfer the remainder of the prescription to another pharmacy if it is allowed (RX has refills remaining, state transfer laws allow it to be transferred, etc.).
  • the original pharmacy may provide a photocopy of the original prescription to the patient or provider if requested (this is not a valid prescription for the patient to give to another pharmacy, it is merely a photocopy of a prescription).
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16
Q

What does it mean when a drug is considered adulterated?

A

Adulteration of a drug refers to the composition and integrity of the drug. If a drug’s composition or integrity is compromised, it is adulterated.

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17
Q

What are some examples of adulteration?

A
  • a drug is stored in unsanitary conditions
  • a drug is not manufactured according to required manufacturing standards
  • a drug contains an unapproved color additive
  • a substance from the drug container leaches into the drug itself
  • a drug contains less active ingredient than is listed on the product or is not pure
  • a drug that contains a decomposed substance
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18
Q

What was the first law enacted that required all new drugs to be proven safe before being marketed?

A

The Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938 (FDCA) was the first law that required all new drugs to be PROVEN SAFE for their labeled use before being marketed to patients.

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19
Q

What set of regulations specify the minimum manufacturing standards for pharmaceutical products in the US?

A

GMP (Good Manufacturing Practice) specifies the minimum manufacturing standards for pharmaceutical products in the US. The purpose of GMP is to uphold and maintain the safety and quality of drug products.

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20
Q

NDC

A

NDC stands for National Drug Code and is listed on pharmaceutical products. NDCs contain a set of 3 numbers.

For example: XXXX - YYYY - ZZ
- X = the first set of numbers contain 4 to 5 digits that indicate the manufacturer of the drug product
- Y = the second set of numbers contain 4 digits that indicate the specific drug product (active pharmaceutical ingredient)
- Z = the third set of numbers contain 2 digits that indicate the amount of drug in package / package size

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21
Q

Schedule II (C2) controlled substance (CS) drug classes

A

C2 CSs are highly regulated due to their potential for abuse and misuse. Examples of C2 drug classes include but not limited to:

  • amphetamines and dextroamphetamine salts
  • methylphenidate and derivatives
  • opioids and opiates
  • PENTObarbital
  • SECObarbital
  • phencyclidine
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22
Q

Federally, how many times can a prescription for lorazepam be refilled in a 6 month period?

A

On a federal level, C3 and C4 prescriptions can be refilled a maximum of 5 times within a 6 month period from the date written on the prescription hard copy.

Some states apply this rule to C5 prescription refills.

NYS DOES NOT ALLOW REFILLS ON BENZODIAZEPINES!!!

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23
Q

Labeling Requirements for Manufacturer Drug/Product containers

A

Labeling requirements for manufacturer containers of drugs include:

  • name and address of manufacturer, packer or distributor
  • name of drug or product
  • net quantity contained in package
  • weights for each active ingredient
  • route of administration (ROA) directions for NON-ORAL meds
  • ROA DIRECTIONS ARE NOT REQUIRED ON MFR CONTAINER LABELING FOR ORAL MEDS!
  • expiration date
  • LOT # / MFR control #
  • special storage instructions if necessary
  • Federal Legend: ‘RX only’
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24
Q

Maximum BUD (beyond-use date) for compounded products

A
  • Water-containing ORAL formulations when stored in the refrigerator have a max BUD of 14 days
  • Non-water containing formulations have a max BUD of 6 months
  • Water-containing topical, dermal, mucosal liquid and semisolid compounds have a max BUD of 30 days

Drugs or chemicals known to be labile to decomposition will require shorter BUDs.

The max BUD on ANY compounded product cannot exceed the expiration date of the API (active pharmaceutical ingredient) or any other component in the product.

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25
Q

Midlevel Practitioners

A

Midlevel practitioners are individual practitioners that are NOT physicians (including ophthalmologists), veterinarians, dentists or podiatrists.

Midlevel practitioners include, but not limited to:

  • nurse practitioners (NP)
  • physician assistants (PA)
  • nurse midwives
  • nurse anesthetists
  • clinical nurse specialists
  • optometrists (ophthalmologists are physicians)
  • registered pharmacists (RPh)
  • chiropractors
  • homeopathic physicians
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26
Q

Standards for DME (durable medical equipment)

A
  • long-term use
  • maintain integrity with repeated use
  • may be used at home
  • primarily used for medical purposes

Examples of DME: wheelchairs, prosthetics, canes, crutches, oxygen, ventilation, hospital beds, etc.

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27
Q

What is the CSRPA (Controlled Substances Registrant Protection Act of 1984)?

A

CSRPA protects DEA registrants from certain crimes and provides federal investigation if any of the following are met:

  • theft/loss of CSs is $500 or more
  • an employee is seriously injured or killed during theft/loss
  • interstate or foreign commerce is involved in execution of theft/loss

If found guilty, perpetrators may be subject to fines or imprisonment.

Loss of CSs during drug transport to pharmacy are NOT protected under CSRPA.

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28
Q

What act requires that patients are offered counseling on dispensed medications?

A

OBRA 90 (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990) REQUIRES patients to be offered counseling on dispensed medications. Patients may refuse the offer of counseling, but must always be offered counseling on dispensed medications.

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29
Q

Isotretinoin

A

Isotretinoin is used to treat severe acne. It is known to cause birth defects in pregnant individuals. Because of this, Isotretinoin dispensing is regulated through a REMS program (Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy) called iPledge.

  • Physicians must be registered with iPledge to prescribe isotretinoin.
  • Patients must be registered with iPledge to receive Isotretinoin.
  • Pharmacies must be registered with iPledge to dispense Isotretinoin.
  • Prescriptions for isotretinoin cannot have refills and can only be dispensed for a maximum of 30 day supplies.
  • Patients that can get pregnant must use at least 2 effective forms of birth control 1 month before, during and 1 month after treatment and take pregnancy tests every month that show they are not pregnant during treatment.
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30
Q

Drug compounding rules

A

Compounded drugs:

  • cannot be compounded, provided or sold to pharmacies, healthcare entities or other third parties.
  • cannot be commercially available. In this case, you would be able to order the compounded drug as is because it is commercially available.
  • must meet national standards.
  • must be made at a reasonable quantity that reflects current or anticipated prescriptions.
  • distribution cannot exceed 5% of the pharmacy’s total prescriptions filled per year.
  • can be used to customize a medication pursuant to a valid prescription, such as modifying the strength of a drug, removing an allergic component, changing the dosage form, or adding flavoring to a medication.
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31
Q

What form is required to purchase or transfer C2 CSs?

A

DEA Form 222 is required to PURCHASE or TRANSFER C2 CSs.

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32
Q

Can CS prescriptions be mailed to patients?

A

Yes, CS prescriptions can be mailed to patients as long as the following criteria are met:

  • must be in a package that has an inner package that contains the prescription with appropriate labeling.
  • the outer package must be plain that does not contain any information about the contents of the package.
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33
Q

What are NTI (narrow therapeutic index) drugs?

A

NTI drugs are drugs where a small change in dose or blood concentration may lead to serious adverse reactions or treatment failure.

NTI drugs require careful titration and/or careful monitoring to ensure safe and effective use.

The FDA recommends that NTI drugs’ potency have a variability limit of 90% - 105% when manufactured.

Examples of NTI drugs include phenytoin, warfarin, levothyroxine, lithium carbonate, digoxin, cyclosporine.

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34
Q

What act requires that prescription drugs, nonprescription drugs and hazardous household items have a child-resistant closure?

A

The Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) requires that prescription drugs, nonprescription drugs and hazardous household items have a child-resistant closure to prevent accidental ingestion or exposure to children under 5 years of age. Patients may request that their prescription bottles NOT have a child-resistant closure.

Some drugs are exempt from PPPA including: SL nitroglycerin tablets, SL or chewable isosorbide dinitrate, oral contraceptives in mnemonic packaging, medications in dose packs like Medrol and ZPaks.

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35
Q

Drug Recalls

A

There are 3 classes of drug recalls:

  1. Class I drug recalls occur when a product is likely to cause serious or irreversible adverse effects including death.
  2. Class II drug recalls occur when a product is likely to cause temporary or reversible adverse effects where the potential for serious adverse effects is low.
  3. Class III drug recalls are voluntary drug recalls by the manufacturer where the potential for adverse effects from the product is low or nonexistent but contain issues with labeling, etc.
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36
Q

Clinical Trials

A

Clinical trials are conducted in 4 phases:

  1. Phase I clinical trials are conducted in a small group of participants without the disease. The goal of Phase I is to study drug properties like adverse effects and pharmacokinetics, and determine safety of drug.
  2. Phase II clinical trials are conducted in a larger group of participants with the disease. The goal of Phase II is to determine the effectiveness/efficacy of the drug and further study drug safety and properties.
  3. Phase III clinical trials are conducted in a larger group (100s to 1000s) of participants with the disease. The goal of Phase III is to determine dosing of the drug and further study safety and efficacy of the drug. If a drug passes Phase III, the FDA can approve the drug.
  4. Phase IV clinical trials are post-marketing surveillance. The goal of Phase IV is to study the long-term efficacy and safety of the drug.
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37
Q

Reimportation of drugs back into the US

A

Reimportation of drugs back into the US is ONLY permitted by the ORIGINAL MANUFACTURER. Reimportation of drugs back into the US is only permitted for the purposes of emergency medical care. Otherwise, Reimportation of drugs back into the US is never allowed.

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38
Q

What law required drugs to be proven safe and effective before the drug is approved and marketed?

A

The Kefauver Harris Amendment required manufacturers to prove their drug was both safe and effective before drug approval and marketing.

Before, the FDCA only required manufacturers to prove drug safety before drug approval and marketing.

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39
Q

DEA Form 222

A

Used by pharmacies to order and transfer CI and CII CSs.

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40
Q

DEA Form 106

A

Used by DEA registrants to report theft/loss of CSs.

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41
Q

DEA Form 224

A

Used by pharmacies to register with DEA to be able to possess and dispense CSs.

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42
Q

DEA Form 225

A

Used by manufacturers, distributors, exporters, importers and researchers to register with DEA to conduct business with CSs.

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43
Q

DEA Form 363

A

Used by Narcotic Treatment Programs to register with DEA to conduct business with CSs.

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44
Q

What information is required in transaction reports when drugs are sold by manufacturers and received by pharmacies?

A

Information required in a transaction report is transaction history, transaction information, and a transaction statement (THIS).

The Drug Supply Chain Security Act requires manufacturers to provide a transaction report to pharmacies for every product sold.

Pharmacies are required to retain the transaction report and pass it along if the drug is further distributed in order to track the drug.

The transaction report must contain 3 parts: transaction history, transaction information and a transaction statement. (THIS)

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45
Q

Class I Drug Recall

A

Drug is likely to cause serious adverse effects or health consequences including death.

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46
Q

Class II Drug Recall

A

Drug has a low likelihood of causing serious adverse effects or health consequences but may cause temporary or reversible adverse effects or health consequences.

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47
Q

Class III Drug Recall

A

Drug is not likely to cause adverse effects or health consequences.

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48
Q

What act requires healthcare facilities to report patient deaths or injuries caused by or suspected to be caused by a medical device?

A

The Safe Medical Device Act (SMDA) of 1990 requires healthcare facilities to report death or injury caused by or believed to be caused by a medical device. The purpose of this is to track the medical device and possibly recall the product to prevent further death and injury.

49
Q

What is misbranding?

A

Misbranding occurs when there is inaccurate labeling on the drug container such as information is missing, untrue or inaccurate.

50
Q

What are some examples of misbranding?

A

False or misleading information.
Unreadable material.
Omitting a medication guide.
Inadequate directions or warnings.
Omitting required information.

51
Q

Methadone dispensing

A
  • Retail pharmacies can stock and dispense methadone ONLY if it is prescribed for analgesia.
  • Registered narcotic treatment programs can stock and dispense methadone ONLY if it is prescribed for maintenance or narcotic detoxification. Dispensing at a narcotic treatment program can be for short-term detoxification (up to 30 days) or long-term detoxification (30 to 180 days).
52
Q

Orphan drugs

A

According to the FDA, an orphan drug is a drug that is intended to cure or treat rare diseases or conditions that affect less than 200,000 people.

Manufacturers can achieve orphan drug designations if the cost to research, study and develop the drug is not expected to be regained by sale of the drug.

53
Q

Ingredients that have special labeling requirements

A

The following ingredients have special labeling requirements because they have an increased likelihood of cause adverse events like allergic reactions.

FD&C yellow no. 5 (tartrazine - color additive), wintergreen oil, mineral oil, alcohol, salicylates, aspartame, sulfites, ipecac syrup.

54
Q

FAXED C2 prescriptions

A

Faxed C2 prescriptions are never allowed except in the following cases where faxed C2 prescriptions are permitted and serve as the original prescription:

  1. Patient is in a LTCF (long-term care facility)
  2. Patient is in hospice
  3. Drug is to be compounded for direct patient administration via parenteral, IM, IV, SC, intraspinal infusion (including home infusion therapy)
55
Q

Voluntary Adverse Event Reporting Systems

A

FAERS (FDA Adverse Event Reporting System) is a voluntary database to report adverse events caused by medications to provide post-marketing surveillance.

VAERS (Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System) is a national vaccine safety surveillance program run by the CDC and FDA to report adverse events caused by vaccines.

56
Q

Oral (Telephone/Called-In) C2 Prescriptions

A

Telephoned in C2 prescriptions are allowed in emergency situations only.

The pharmacist must immediately reduce the order to writing. The quantity should be enough to cover the emergency.

A hard copy from the provider that authorized the emergency order must be received by the pharmacy within 7 days of the emergency telephone order. Hard copies postmarked within the 7 day period are allowed.

Once the hard copy is received, the pharmacist must write on the front ”AUTHORIZATION FOR EMERGENCY DISPENSING” and the date of the oral telephone order.

If a hard copy is not received within 7 days, the pharmacy must report the provider to the DEA.

57
Q

Orange Book

A

The Orange Book provides information about therapeutic equivalency and interchangeability ratings between drugs that are not biologics.

58
Q

Purple Book

A

The Purple Book provides information about bioequivalence and interchangeability ratings between biologics.

59
Q

Red Book

A

The Red Book provides information about drug pricing and packaging information.

60
Q

Yellow Book

A

The Yellow Book provides information about international travel health concerns like vaccines, diseases and health risks when traveling.

61
Q

Pink Book

A

The Pink Book provides information about immunizations like vaccine safety, vaccine-preventable diseases, etc.

62
Q

Exact Inventory Counts

A

Exact inventory counts are required when:

  • all CI and CII CSs
  • any CS in a bottle that contains 1000 or more tablets/capsules
  • any unopened/sealed CS stock bottle
63
Q

Who is responsible for the scheduling for controlled substances?

A

At a federal level, the US Attorney General (as the US AG is the head of the US DOJ which the DEA is part of), is responsible for adding, deleting and rescheduling CSs with recommendations from the FDA.

64
Q

DEA number verification

A

AB1234567

  1. Add the 1st, 3rd and 5th digits in the DEA number.
  2. Add the 2nd, 4th and 6th digits in the DEA number. Then, multiply this number by 2.
  3. Add together the products from steps 1 and 2. ((1st+3rd+5th)+((2nd+4th+6th)x2))
  4. If the DEA number is valid, the last digit from step 3 should be the 7th digit in the DEA number.

The first letter indicates the type of DEA registrant and the second letter indicates the first letter of the DEA registrant’s last name/first letter of healthcare facility.

65
Q

Who is authorized to sign and execute a DEA 222 form in a community pharmacy?

A

In a community pharmacy, the most recent signer of the DEA registration, or DEA registration renewal, is authorized to sign, date and execute a DEA 222 form (usually a pharmacist or the pharmacy manager) to order C2 CSs.

This person may grant power of attorney (POA) to others so they can also sign, date and execute 222 forms.

The most recent signer of the DEA registration renewal grants POA to others by signing the POA themselves, the person being granted POA signing, and 2 witnesses.

66
Q

Who regulates advertising of OTC drugs?

A

The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) regulates OTC drug advertising.

67
Q

Who regulates advertising of RX drugs?

A

The FDA regulates advertising of RX drugs.

68
Q

What records may be kept at a central location that is not the address registered with the DEA?

A

Shipping and financial data records for CSs may be kept at a central location that is not the location listed on the pharmacy’s DEA registration only after notifying the local DEA Diversion Field Office.

69
Q

What records must be retained at the location that is registered with the DEA (not at a central location that is not on the DEA registration)?

A

The following records must be retained by the pharmacy (location on DEA registration) and NOT at a central location:

CS inventories
CS prescriptions
Executed DEA Form 222 orders

70
Q

A patient is hospitalized and does not remember the medications they are currently taking. A hospital nurse calls the patient’s local pharmacy to obtain a medication list. Does this violate HIPAA?

A

No. PHI (protected health information) may be shared among people directly involved in the patient’s care without receiving verbal or written consent from the patient.

71
Q

The warning ”Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed” is required on labels of which prescriptions?

A

The Federal Transfer Warning is required only on C2, C3 and C4 prescription labels.

Most pharmacies affix this warning to all prescription labels (C5 and non-control prescription labels also), but is only required on C2, C3 and C4 prescription labels.

72
Q

What can pharmacies that register with FDA as an outsourcing facility do?

A

Pharmacies that register with the FDA as an outsourcing facility (503B entity) can compound sterile products without a patient-specific prescription order from a prescriber.

Outsourcing facilities are regulated by the FDA and must follow current good manufacturing practices.

Products compounded at OSFs can only be distributed to healthcare facilities or directly to a patient or prescriber.

Products compounded at OSFs cannot be sold to wholesalers for redistribution.

73
Q

According to Federal law, how can paper prescriptions be filed?

A

Federal law allows 3 ways to file paper prescriptions:

  1. C2 paper RX file, C3-C5 paper RX file, C6 paper RX file
  2. C2-C5 paper RX file with red ‘C’ markings on C3-C5 prescriptions, C6 paper RX file
  3. C2 paper RX file, C3-6 paper RX file with red ‘C’ markings on C3-C5 prescriptions

Follow state paper prescription filing laws if they are stricter.

Electronic prescriptions may be stored electronically and be readily retrievable.

74
Q

What is the purpose of USP chapters?

A

USP chapters detail the requirements for compounding including responsibilities of personnel, training, facility management, storage of compounds, environmental monitoring and testing.

75
Q

USP 795

A

USP 795 details requirements for nonsterile compounding.

76
Q

USP 797

A

USP 797 details requirements for sterile compounding.

77
Q

USP 800

A

USP 800 details requirements for the safe handling of hazardous drugs.

78
Q

Who is required to register with the DEA?

A

Any person or entity that is involved in distributing, dispensing or manufacturing CSs must register with the DEA. (Manufacturers, physicians, pharmacies, distributors, etc.)

Pharmacists do not need to register with the DEA as the pharmacy is registered with the DEA.

79
Q

Clozapine REMS Program

A

Clozapine can cause severe neutropenia which can lead to fatal infections and death. There is a REMS program for clozapine to ensure patients receiving clozapine are not neutropenic and are taking the drug safely.

Prescribers must be certified in the Clozapine REMS Program to prescribe clozapine.

Pharmacies must be certified in the Clozapine REMS Program to dispense clozapine.

80
Q

What is DEA Form 41 used for?

A

DEA Form 41 is used to document the destruction of CSs.

Oftentimes, pharmacies will transfer CSs they would like to destroy to an authorized reverse distributor. In this case, the authorized reverse distributor will fill out the DEA Form 41 to document the destruction of CSs.

81
Q

What act set the requirements for tamper-evident packaging on some OTC products?

A

The Federal Anti-Tampering Act requires some OTC products and cosmetics to have tamper-evident packaging to avoid contamination of the product and minimize access. With this, if a product has been tampered with, it would be obvious with the tamper-evident packaging.

Examples of tamper-evident packaging include tamper-evident closure caps, tape, linings.

82
Q

Schedule I CSs

A

Schedule I CSs currently have no accepted medical use and have a high potential for abuse and dependence.

Examples include heroin, LSD, mescaline, methaqualone, etc.

83
Q

Required information on OTC product container labeling

A

Information that is required to be on OTC product container labeling by Federal Law:
identity of product (active ingredient)
inactive ingredients
purpose
uses
directions
warnings
storage information

Information that is usually on OTC labeling but not required by Federal Law:
• net quantity of ingredients
• name/address of manufacturer/packager/distributor
• lot #/batch code
expiration date is not required to be on OTC product labeling
• instructions in case of overdose
Poison Control Center phone number is not required on OTC labeling

84
Q

Patient Package Inserts (PPIs)

A

PPIs are required for patients in acute care settings and LTCFs prior to first administration and every 30 days thereafter.

PPIs are required for oral contraceptives and estrogen-containing products.

85
Q

How long are DEA registrations to possess CSs valid?

A

DEA registrations to possess CSs are valid for 36 months (pharmacies, distributors, manufacturers, importers, exporters, researchers).

Renewal notices are sent out by DEA 60 days prior to expiration.

86
Q

DEA Form 222 Rules and Procedures

A
  • Executed copies of DEA Form 222 must be maintained separately from all other records per record keeping requirements. If copies of executed DEA Form 222 are filed electronically, these electronic copies are deemed separate if they are readily retrievable from all other records.
  • Defective DEA Form 222 / DEA Form 222s with errors cannot be corrected and must be replaced with a new DEA Form 222 in order to place an order for C2 CSs.
  • When filling out a DEA Form 222, only 1 item may be entered per numbered line.
87
Q

What does HIPAA stand for?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

88
Q

If a pharmacy would like to mail refill reminder communications to patients for a fee of $2/month, would this be a violation of HIPAA?

A

No. Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, a communication to an individual is not considered marketing if it is for treatment of the patient. Therefore, a refill reminder for a medication a patient is currently taking (or a medication that has not lapsed over 90 days) is NOT considered marketing and is NOT a violation of HIPAA.

Patients may be charged a fee for this service if the fee charged to the patient is a reasonable amount for the pharmacy to cover the cost for this service.

Mailed and electronic communications such as refill reminders or anything related to the treatment of a patient is NOT a violation of HIPAA.

The HIPAA Privacy Rule defines *marketing* as a communication about a product or service that encourages the recipient of the communication to PURCHASE the product or service. An entity would need to get authorization from an individual to send out marketing communications.

89
Q

What do prospective DURs (Drug Utilization Reviews) consist of?

A

A prospective DUR consists of reviewing a prescription for adverse effects, therapeutic duplication, drug-disease interactions and contraindications, drug dosing and regimen, drug allergies, clinical misuse or abuse, drug interactions, medication appropriateness, overutilization, underutilization and pregnancy/lactation alerts. Compliance with prescription labeling requirements is not part of a prospective DUR.

90
Q

Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA)

A

FHSA was enacted to protect consumers from hazardous or toxic household products and certain OTC drugs. FHSA requires the precautionary statement ”Keep out of reach of children” to be on the immediate packaging of hazardous household products and certain OTC drugs like Tylenol. This precautionary statement is only required on certain OTC drugs and not FDA regulated RX drugs.

91
Q

What is the 5% Rule?

A

The 5% Rule states that a pharmacy does not need to register with the DEA as a distributor if the total quantity of CSs distributed in a 12 month period does not exceed 5% of the pharmacy’s total amount of CSs dispensed or distributed.

92
Q

What is OSHA (Occupational and Safety Health Administration)?

A

OSHA requires that employers meet the Hazardous Communication Standard which includes having a Hazardous Communication Plan that lists all of the hazardous chemicals in the workplace and ensuring all hazardous chemicals are appropriately labeled and have a Safety Data Sheet.

OSHA also requires that employees are trained on the hazards of chemicals, appropriate protective measures and where to find more information.

OSHA is meant to protect employees.

93
Q

Which agency administers the PPPA (Poison Prevention Packaging Act) which requires certain RX and non-RX drugs to have child-resistant containers?

A

The Consumer Product Safety Commission is responsible for administering PPPA.

94
Q

If a pharmacy were to order bulk bottles of ibuprofen to compound ibuprofen suppositories and sell the ibuprofen suppositories to pharmacies that need to fill ibuprofen suppository prescriptions but do not have the ability to make them, what would the original pharmacy be considered?

A

The pharmacy compounding ibuprofen suppositories in bulk quantities and selling the product to other pharmacies without a patient-specific prescription would be considered MANUFACTURING which is regulated by the FDA.

This would be considered COMPOUNDING if the pharmacy was making ibuprofen suppositories pursuant to a patient-specific prescription and only compounding enough product to satisfy the need for that prescription (not in large quantities). Compounding pharmacies are regulated by state boards of pharmacy.

95
Q

Purchasing and Selling Prescription Drug Samples

A

The PDMA (Prescription Drug Marketing Act) bans most pharmacies from purchasing, trading, selling or possessing prescription drug samples.

The only exception to this ban is for pharmacies that are run by a charitable organization or a city, county or state government that is part of a healthcare entity that provides care to indigent or low-income patients at reduced or no cost. These pharmacies may provide prescription drug samples to patients at no cost.

96
Q

Is there a DEA form needed for a pharmacy to order C3-C5 CSs?

A

No. Ordering of C3-C5 CSs does not require a DEA form. C3-C5 CSs may be purchased via the pharmacy’s drug supplier (in no way different than how a pharmacy would order non-CS prescription drugs). The pharmacy would acknowledge the receipt and quantities of C3-C5 CSs received on the supplier’s invoice for the pharmacy’s order.

97
Q

DEA Form 222

A

DEA Form 222 is required by pharmacies to order and transfer C2 CSs.

98
Q

DEA Form 224

A

DEA Form 224 is required by pharmacies to dispense CSs.

99
Q

Which OTC drug products do NOT require tamper-evident packaging?

A

Most OTC drugs require tamper-evident packaging. Exceptions to the anti-tampering evident packaging for OTC drugs are dermatologic and dental products, insulin and lozenges.

100
Q

Changes that CAN BE made to C2 prescriptions

A

With verbal authorization from the prescriber, a pharmacist may change the drug quantity, drug strength, directions for use and drug form to a C2 prescription with an annotation on the original prescription.

101
Q

Changes that CAN NOT be made to C2 Prescriptions

A

A pharmacist CAN NOT CHANGE patient name, drug name or prescriber name on a C2 prescription even with a prescriber’s verbal authorization.

102
Q

How much time does a pharmacy have to complete a patient’s request for their PHI (like pharmacy records)?

A

A pharmacy has 30 days to complete a patient’s request for their PHI (like pharmacy records).

If a pharmacy cannot complete the patient’s request within 30 days, the pharmacy must notify the patient of the delay and reason for the delay and are able to have an additional 30 days to complete the request.

Most pharmacies are able to provide PHI to patients (like pharmacy records) at the time of the request.

103
Q

Thalidomide

A

Thalidomide is an immunomodulatory and chemotherapy drug that can cause a high frequency of birth defects in pregnant female patients. Thalidomide has a REMS program to ensure safe use and monitoring.

104
Q

Which law requires new drugs to be proven both safe and effective before approval?

A

The Kefauver-Harris Amendment requires that new drugs be proven both safe and effective before approval.

This amendment is also known as the Drug Efficacy Amendment.

105
Q

Kefauver-Harris Amendment

A

The Kefauver-Harris Amendment:
- requires that new drugs be proven both safe and effective before drug approval
- AKA ‘Drug Efficacy Amendment’
- allows FDA to establish GMP (good manufacturing practices)
- gives FDA control of prescription drug advertising that must include accurate information regarding a drug’s side effects
- controls marketing of generic drugs so they are not sold under a different trade name for more money $$$$

106
Q

Anabolic steroids are classified under which CS schedule under Federal Law?

A

Anabolic steroids like testosterone under Federal Law are C3 CSs.

107
Q

What is the Durham-Humphrey Amendment?

A

The Durham-Humphrey Amendment separated drugs into prescription (legend) and OTC drugs.

Prescription drugs require a prescription and can only be dispensed under medical supervision.

OTC drugs do NOT require a prescription or medical supervision.

108
Q

FDA Bioequivalence Rating System

A

The FDA Orange Book uses a 2-letter coding system to indicate the bioequivalence and interchangeability between 2 drug products. The first letter is key in interpreting the bioequivalence and interchangeability of 2 drugs.

If the first letter is ‘A’, the 2 drug products are considered to be pharmaceuticals and therapeutically equivalent and can be interchanged.

If the first letter is ‘B’, the 2 drug products are NOT equivalent and therefore should *NOT* be interchanged.

The second letter indicates the dosage form. For example, a rating of AT is a topical product that is therapeutically equivalent and interchangeable with the drug it is being compared to.

A rating of ’AB’ indicates there are known or potential equivalency issues but there is adequate scientific data to support the safe and appropriate interchangeability between the products being compared.

109
Q

If a bottle’s labeling states loratadine 10mg tablets but there are loratadine 5mg tablets inside the bottle, is this product considered adulterated, misbranded or both?

A

Both adulterated and misbranded.

An adulterated product is any product that’s strength or quality differs from what it represents. (The bottle states 10mg tablets are inside the bottle but there are actually 5mg tablets inside the bottle. The strength differs from what it says is in the bottle and what is actually in the bottle, therefore this is adulterated.)

A misbranded product is a product that’s labeling is false or misleading. (The bottle’s labeling states 10mg tablets are inside but there are actually 5mg tablets inside the bottle which is both false and misleading, therefore this is also misbranded.)

110
Q

Easy Open Cap Requests on Prescription Bottles

A

Only patients can provide a blanket request that all their prescription bottle have an easy open cap. If a patient makes this request, the pharmacy should document it in case an issue arises later.

Providers can also make a verbal or written request that a prescription have easy open caps on a patient’s behalf, but a provider’s request that a patient’s prescription is ONLY VALID FOR THAT SINGLE PRESCRIPTION - PROVIDERS CANNOT MAKE A BLANKET REQUEST FOR EASY OPEN CAPS on a patient’s behalf.

111
Q

What is the purpose of REMS?

A

REMS (Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies) are strategies to manage known or potential serious risks associated with a drug.

REMS has nothing to do with the affordability of a drug.

112
Q

What is the maximum amount of tablets allowed in OTC 81 mg ASA chewable tablets (1.25 grain)?

A

36 tablets of 81mg (1.25 grain) ASA chewable tablets is the maximum amount of tablets that can be in an OTC bottle as 36 tablets is the maximum amount that a child could accidentally ingest and it would be considered nontoxic.

Federal regulations require labeling on OTC aspirin and other salicylate products of the potential of Reye’s Syndrome in children and warnings like “Keep out of reach of children. In case of overdose, get medical help, or contact a Poison Control Center right away.

113
Q

DEA Registration Number Letters

A

DEA Registration numbers start with 2 letters.

The first letter indicates practitioner status. For example, a first letter of A or B is a physician, and a first letter of M is a mid level practitioner.

The second letter is the first letter of the practitioner’s last name, the first letter of the pharmacy name or the first letter of the hospital name.

How to verify 7 digits in a DEA number:

  1. Add first, third and fifth digits.
  2. Add second, fourth and sixth digits. Multiply this product by 2.
  3. Add products of step 1 and step 2 (step 2 being multiplied by 2).
  4. The second digit of the product of step 3 should be the seventh digit in the DEA number if it is valid.
114
Q

The FDA requires Medication Guides (Med Guides) are provided with certain prescription drugs and biologics for what reasons?

A

The FDA requires Med Guides for certain prescription drugs and biologics are provided if they determine that:

  • a drug has has serious risks over benefits
  • patient adherence is crucial to the effectiveness of a drug
  • there are known serious side effects of a drug
  • providing information about a drug can prevent serious adverse effects

FDA Med Guides do not replace pharmacist counseling of a drug.

115
Q

What information can be gathered from an NDC number?

A

NDC numbers are comprised of 3 sets of numbers:

The first set of numbers indicates the drug manufacturer.

The second set of numbers indicates the specific drug.

The third set of numbers indicates the packaging/package type/package size.

116
Q

Drugs that are exempt from child-resistant packaging requirements

A

sublingual nitroglycerin tablets
methylprednisolone containing no more than 84mg per package (Medrol dose packs = 4mg x 21 tablets per dose pack)
preparations in containers intended for inhalation (inhalers)
prednisone containing no more than 105mg per package
effervescent ASA or APAP tablets (ASA and APAP tablets that are not effervescent are not exempt from child-resistant packaging)

117
Q

According to Federal Law, how long must prescription records be kept for?

A

Federal law requires that prescription records be kept for a minimum of 2 years.

If state law requires that prescription records be kept longer than 2 years, follow state law.

118
Q

What is the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule?

A

The HIPAA Breach Notification Rule is part of the HITECH Act (Health Information Technology and for Economic and Clinical Health Act) which promotes health information technology to advance healthcare, especially electronic health records.

The HIPAA Breach Notification Rule requires entities to notify affected individuals of health information breaches with no reasonable delay and no later than 60 days after the discovery of the breach.

Breaches of 500 or more records must be reported to the US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) within 60 days of discovery of the breach and a notification to prominent media outlets in the state or jurisdiction in which the breach occurred.

Smaller breaches of 500 records or less require the HHS to be notified within 60 days of the end of the calendar year in which the breach occurred.

119
Q

How often must pharmacists perform DURs on long term care patients to comply with CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services) requirements?

A

To comply with CMS requirements, pharmacist must perform DURs on long term care patients at least once a month.