Feline AI Flashcards
1
Q
What treatment is an alternative to AZT due to the development of anti-IFN-α antibodies?
A
IFN-ω (Feline interferon)
2
Q
What effect does IFN-ω have on viral replication?
A
Inhibits viral replication in vitro
3
Q
What is the ideal protocol for IFN-ω treatment?
A
106IU/kg once daily for 5 consecutive days OR 106IU/kg once daily for 5 days repeated three times on days 0, 14 and 60 in FeLV/FIV coinfected cats
4
Q
What is the relative efficacy of FeLV vaccines in preventing infection?
A
Subject to much debate
5
Q
What is the relationship between artificial suppression of the immune system and vaccines?
A
Difficult to ascertain the actual effect of vaccines in a natural exposure environment
6
Q
Can vaccination protect against FeLV infection in a natural exposure environment?
A
No, it is not considered safe to bring a naive cat into an endemically infected household
7
Q
What is a concern associated with FeLV vaccination?
A
Development of vaccine associated sarcomas
8
Q
If both Rabies and FeLV vaccines are being administered, where should they be given?
A
At distant sites and ideally on the extremities
9
Q
What is FIV?
A
Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
10
Q
How does FIV infection influence host cell function?
A
Integrates proviral DNA into the host cell DNA
11
Q
What is the importance of the envelope gene (Env) in FIV?
A
Determines cell tropism and influences pathogenicity
12
Q
How many subtypes of FIV are recognized?
A
Five (A-E)
13
Q
Does infection with one subtype of FIV protect against infection with another subtype?
A
No, infection with one subtype does not protect against superinfection
14
Q
What is the prevalence of FIV infection in feral cats?
A
Up to 47% in some groups of feral cats
15
Q
What is the prevalence of FIV infection in healthy, owned cats?
A
Reported to be 2-5%
16
Q
Which cats are more likely to be infected with FIV?
A
Adult cats are more likely to be infected than young cats
17
Q
How is FIV primarily transmitted in natural circumstances?
A
Via inoculation of virus present in saliva or blood (cat fight wounds)
18
Q
Is horizontal transmission of FIV in multi-cat households common?
A
Generally considered to be an infrequent event
19
Q
Can FIV DNA positive cats but antibody-negative cats remain asymptomatic?
A
Yes, FIV DNA positive cats can remain asymptomatic
20
Q
What are the three clinical stages of FIV infection?
A
The acute phase, a clinically asymptomatic phase, and a terminal phase of infection
21
Q
What is the predictive value of a positive result in a disease with low prevalence?
A
The predictive value of a positive result is approximately a third or low.
22
Q
Why should positive results in a disease with low prevalence be confirmed with a secondary test?
A
Positive results should be confirmed with a secondary test due to the low positive predictive value.
23
Q
What can be revealed through thoracic imaging in relation to FIP?
A
Thoracic imaging may reveal pleural fluid.
24
Q
What can be revealed through abdominal radiographs in relation to FIP?
A
Abdominal radiographs may reveal effusion, renomegaly, or hepatomegaly.
25
How can ultrasonography be useful in diagnosing FIP?
Ultrasonography can help identify pericardial, pleural, or peritoneal effusion and aid centesis.
26
What can ultrasonography help identify in non-effusive/granulomatous disease?
Ultrasonography can help identify mass lesions.
27
What do lesions identified through ultrasonography indicate in relation to FIP?
Lesions identified through ultrasonography are not diagnostic of FIP.
28
When is advanced imaging like CT or MRI used in FIP cases?
Advanced imaging may be performed if neurological signs are present or to rule out other causes.
29
What inflammatory changes can be seen in imaging if FIP is present?
Inflammatory changes, such as ventricular dilation and ependymal enhancement, can be seen in imaging if FIP is present.
30
What does a negative titre in serum antibody tests for FIP indicate?
A negative titre does not rule out the presence of FIP.
31
What effect can large amounts of virus within a sample have on antibody tests for FIP?
Large amounts of virus within a sample can result in false-negative results or reduced titres in antibody tests for FIP.
32
What can PCR testing assess in relation to FIP?
PCR testing can assess the presence of FCoV RNA within samples.
33
Why is PCR testing theoretically considered superior to serology for FIP detection?
PCR testing detects the virus itself, while serology detects the immune response to the virus.
34
What is the limitation of PCR testing in differentiating FCoV RNA?
PCR testing cannot differentiate mutated from non-mutated FCoV RNA.
35
Why are serology tests preferred over PCR tests for FIP diagnosis?
Serology tests have reported higher sensitivity and specificity compared to PCR tests for FIP.
36
What is alpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AGP) used for in FIP diagnostics?
AGP levels can indicate infectious or inflammatory conditions, although it is non-specific.
37
When do AGP levels rise in a cattery with FIP outbreak?
AGP levels rise just prior to an outbreak of FIP in a cattery.
38
What is the typical appearance of effusive FIP fluid?
Effusive FIP fluid is typically clear to slightly cloudy, straw colored, and mucinous in character.
39
What substances are typically found in high concentrations in effusive FIP fluid?
Effusive FIP fluid typically has a high protein content (>35g/l).
40
What cell types are predominantly present in the effusion of FIP cases?
Macrophages and neutrophils are predominantly present in the effusion of FIP cases.
41
Are elevated antibody levels within effusion a reliable diagnostic indicator for FIP?
Presence of antibodies in the effusion has a sensitivity of 86% and a specificity of 85% for FIP.
42
How is the Rivalta test performed on effusion?
The Rivalta test involves layering the effusion onto a solution of distilled water and acetic acid (98%).
43
How is the Rivalta test interpreted for FIP diagnosis?
If the effusion drop maintains its shape and either stays on the surface or slowly floats to the bottom, the test is positive for FIP.
44
What population of cats is best suited for using this test?
Population of cats with high disease prevalence i.e. cats under 2 years of age, from multi-cat households, with signs consistent with FIP.
45
What are some biochemical abnormalities that can be present in cats with FIP?
Hyperbilirubinaemia, urea, creatinine and occasionally liver enzymes can be increased.
46
What is the role of sensitivity in a diagnostic test?
Sensitivity determines the number of animals with the disease who test positive (true positives).
47
How is specificity defined in a diagnostic test?
Specificity is determined by the number of animals without the disease who test negative (true negatives).
48
What is the positive predictive value of a diagnostic test?
The positive predictive value is high if the disease prevalence is high.
49
How does disease prevalence affect the positive predictive value?
High disease prevalence leads to high positive predictive value.
50
What does a negative test result indicate in a low-risk patient?
A negative test result indicates that the patient is unlikely to have the disease.
51
What is the relationship between prevalence and negative predictive value?
Negative predictive value is low when prevalence is high and high when prevalence is low.
52
What is the effect of low prevalence on positive predictive value?
Positive predictive value is low when prevalence is low.
53
What is the false negative rate?
The false negative rate is the number of false negatives in a test with high sensitivity.
54
What is the false positive rate?
The false positive rate is the number of false positives in a test with low specificity.
55
How many cases of disease would be missed in 100 true cases with a sensitivity of 98%?
2 cases would be missed.
56
How many false positives would be expected in a screening test with 1% prevalence and a sensitivity and specificity of 98%?
2 false positives would be expected.
57
What does a positive test result indicate in a high-risk patient?
A positive test result indicates the presence of disease in a high-risk patient.
58
What is the likely interpretation of a positive test result in a low-risk patient?
A positive test result is not very reassuring in a low-risk patient, as the positive predictive value will be low.
59
What is the recommended number of cats to keep in a stable group?
3-4 cats
60
What is the maximum number of cats that should be kept in a domestic residence without purpose-built cat accommodation?
8-10 cats
61
What is the recommended number of litter boxes per two cats in a household?
One box
62
How often should soiled cat litter be removed?
Daily
63
How often should litter boxes be cleaned with disinfectant?
Once a week
64
What should be used to clean the litter boxes?
A suitable disinfectant
65
What should be cleaned daily in the feeding area?
Feed bowls
66
What should be done with areas of the cat accommodation regularly to reduce virus buildup?
Cleaned
67
What are some examples of organic matter that should be reduced in cat accommodation?
Faeces, fur, spilt food
68
What should people with >10 cats or new kittens consider having dedicated to each group of cats?
Shoes and overalls
69
What should be done between dealing with each group of cats?
Hands should be disinfected
70
What is one of the stress factors that predispose cats to the development of FIP?
Concurrent disease
71
Why is it necessary to enforce quarantine procedures and practice barrier nursing?
To expose as few cats as possible to infectious agents
72
How long should new cats be quarantined in isolation before being introduced to a cattery?
Three weeks
73
What should be tested for during the quarantine period of new cats?
FCoV, FeLV, and FIV
74
What should be suggested for a cattery with recurrent FIP cases?
To be closed to new cats for six months
75
What is recommended to halt breeding in a cattery with recurrent FIP cases?
Suggested to halt breeding
76
What are the clinical signs of wet FIP?
The clinical signs of wet FIP include lethargy, failure to thrive, inappetence, weight loss, and fluctuating pyrexia.
77
Where does effusion commonly occur in cats with wet FIP?
Effusion commonly occurs within the peritoneal cavity in 58% of cases.
78
What are the ocular and/or neurological signs seen in FIP?
Ocular and/or neurological signs may be evident in some cats with FIP.
79
What are the typical ocular lesions seen in cats with non-effusive FIP?
Typical ocular lesions include uveitis, keratic precipitates, aqueous flare, and retinal changes.
80
What are the manifestations of FIP affecting the brain or spinal cord?
Manifestations include hyperaesthesia, abnormal mental status, abnormal behavior, cranial nerve deficits, ataxia, nystagmus, and seizures.
81
What abnormalities can be seen in the haematology of cats with FIP?
Abnormalities can include low-grade anemia, lymphopenia, and neutrophilia.
82
What serum biochemistry findings are associated with FIP?
FIP may show an elevated total protein, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperglobulinemia.
83
Which serum test demonstrated better diagnostic utility for FIP?
The albumin to globulin ratio demonstrated better diagnostic utility.
84
What is the prevalence of lymphopenia in cats with FIP?
Lymphopenia occurred around 2 weeks post infection in cats with effusive FIP.
85
What are the two serotypes of Feline Coronavirus in cats?
Type I Feline Coronavirus (FCoV) and type II FCoV.
86
What is the difference in disease outcomes between infection with type I and type II Feline Coronavirus?
Infection with either serotype can result in either a mild enteric disease or a virulent form of disease, Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP).
87
What is the percentage of the general UK cat population with evidence of prior exposure to FCoV?
Up to 40%.
88
In which situations does the figure of prior exposure to FCoV often approach 90%?
In catteries and multi-cat households.
89
How do FCoVs mainly spread among cats?
Primarily via faecal-oral infection, but it can occasionally be shed in respiratory secretions as well.
90
From when can viral shedding of FCoV occur in the faeces?
From 1-week post infection.
91
How long can viral shedding in the faeces continue for?
For 18 months (or longer).
92
How do cats usually demonstrate shedding of FCoV in periods?
Continuous shedding for the first 4-6 months, followed by intermittent shedding.
93
What is the incidence of FIP in the general cat population?
Probably <1%.
94
In which type of households can up to 10% of cats die from FIP?
Larger multi-cat households.
95
What kind of virus is Coronavirus?
A large positive-stranded RNA virus.
96
What is the result of the virus's inability to proof-read as it multiplies?
Readily mutates, leading to the development of quasispecies.
97
Which open reading frame (ORF) deletions have been linked to alterations in pathogenicity?
7b ORF deletion suggested to decrease pathogenicity, while 3c ORF deletion may increase pathogenicity.
98
What triggers the development of FIP within an individual is not yet known, but what are two theories?
Minor de novo mutations within the virus or presence of other factors such as a high dose of virus, genetic susceptibility, or exposure to factors.
99
What are the learning objectives for this module?
1. Explain the pathophysiology of feline infectious peritonitis and coronavirus infections
2. Recognise the clinical signs associated with feline coronavirus and we and dry feline infectious peritonitis
3. Discuss the different diagnostic tests, their validity and how to confirm a diagnosis of feline infectious peritonitis
4. Discuss the treatment options for FIP
5. Identify the ways in which Feline Coronavirus exposure can be minimized
6. Explain the role of FCoV vaccination
7. Discuss the clinical signs and diseases associated with FeLV and FIV infections
8. Explain the different tests and validity of results for FeLV and FIV
9. Recognize which cars are at risk and where vaccination for these infections should be used
100
What are the clinical signs during the acute phase of FIV infection?
Clinical signs during the acute phase of FIV infection can include lethargy, pyrexia, stomatitis, dermatitis, conjunctivitis, respiratory tract disease, or generalised lymphadenopathy.
101
How long can the asymptomatic phase of FIV infection last?
The asymptomatic phase of FIV infection can last for a prolonged period of time, with reported periods of up to 8 years.
102
What clinical signs are associated with the terminal phase of FIV infection?
The terminal phase of FIV infection is marked by clinical signs associated with opportunistic infections, neoplasia, myelosuppression, and neurological disease.
103
What are the concurrent infections reported with FIV infection?
Concurrent infections reported with FIV infection include FeLV, FCV, FeSFV, Poxvirus, Papilloma virus, Haemotrophic mycoplasmas, Mycoplasma infections, Dermatophytes, Cryptococcus, Toxoplasma gondii, and Cryptosporidium.
104
What neoplasms are associated with FIV infection?
Neoplasms associated with FIV infection include lymphomas, leukaemias, myeloproliferative diseases, squamous cell carcinomas, mammary gland adenomas, mast cell tumours, and bronchoalveolar carcinomas.
105
What are the reported neurological signs in FIV positive cats?
Reported neurological signs in FIV positive cats include behavioural changes, seizures, paresis, multifocal motor abnormalities, impaired learning, and disrupted sleep patterns.
106
What is FIV related wasting syndrome?
FIV related wasting syndrome is a terminal wasting syndrome occurring 6-8 weeks post-inoculation with certain strains of FIV.
107
What factors influence the outcome following inoculation with FIV virus?
The outcome following inoculation with FIV virus is influenced by factors such as the age of the cat, properties of the viral isolate, route of infection, viral load, and association with cells or free virus.
108
In which organs does viral replication take place during FIV infection?
Viral replication takes place in macrophage-rich organs such as the thymus, spleen, or lymph nodes during FIV infection.
109
What happens to CD4+ cells in the immune system during FIV infection?
During FIV infection, CD4+ cells in the immune system decrease in number and proportion, leading to immune dysfunction.
110
What are the three theories on why cats succumb to FIP?
The three theories are compromised immune system, overwhelmed immune system by viral quasispecies, and a combination of immune system strength, viral strain, and replication rate.
111
What factors determine an individual cat's response to FCoV infection?
An individual cat's response is determined by the strength of its immune system, the nature of the viral strain, and the rate of viral replication within the cat's macrophages.
112
What are the potential factors involved in the development of FIP?
Host response, environmental factors, and the presence of feline enteric coronavirus (FECV) in monocytes and phagocyte rich organs may be involved.
113
Which cats are most commonly affected by FIP?
Cats with poor immunity, such as young or very old cats, cats with immunosuppressive diseases, or stressed cats (e.g. due to overcrowding or re-homing) are most commonly affected.
114
Which cat breeds are more likely to develop FIP?
Persian, Birman, Siamese, Burmese, and possibly Bengal cats are more likely to develop FIP.
115
What is the role of the cat's initial immune response in FIP?
The type and strength of the cat's initial immune response determine the outcome of the infection, with strong immune responses containing the virus, weak cell mediated immunity leading to the wet form of FIP, and partial cell mediated immunity leading to the dry form.
116
How does FIP cause disease?
FIP causes disease by inducing an immune-mediated vasculitis, leading to inflammation of blood vessels, accumulation of neutrophils and macrophages, increased vascular permeability, and leakage of protein-rich plasma (wet FIP) or development of pyogranulomatous nodules (dry FIP).
117
What are the clinical signs and lesions associated with FIP?
Clinical signs include fluid accumulation in the peritoneal and/or pleural cavities (wet FIP), small focal lesions in various organs, involvement of the eyes, and potential central nervous system involvement.
118
How is FIP usually diagnosed?
FIP is usually diagnosed based on the clinical signs, multi-cat household history, and a preceding stressful experience.
119
What is the purpose of confirmatory tests in the context of the disease?
To validate the results of the screening test and confirm the presence of the disease.
120
What does a positive result in Direct Fluorescent Antibody Testing indicate?
It indicates the presence of viral infection but does not provide information about current illness or predict mortality or morbidity.
121
What does PCR detect in the context of viral infections?
PCR detects viral nucleic acid sequences, including proviral DNA integrated into the cellular genome.
122
What is the significance of discordant results in ELISA testing?
If 2 ELISA tests vary, performing direct FA can help determine persistent viraemia and true positive status.
123
What should be done in the case of negative FeLV results in cats under 12 weeks of age?
Retesting should be done in 4-6 weeks to ensure accuracy of the initial negative result.
124
What should be done if a cat has a negative ELISA but a positive direct FA for FeLV?
Repeat the assay in 6-8 weeks to determine if the positive result is a false positive on ELISA.
125
What is the recommended course of action if a cat has a positive ELISA and direct FA for FeLV?
It suggests a very low likelihood of transient viraemia and most likely indicates persistently infected status.
126
What is the recommended management of FeLV-infected cats in a household?
All cats in the household should be tested, and infected cats should be isolated or separated from other cats. Vaccination and separate feeding bowls are advised.
127
What precautions should be taken when introducing new cats to a household with FeLV-infected cats?
New cats should not be introduced to avoid the risk of infection to them and to protect the existing cats.
128
Is there a known treatment for FeLV infection?
No, there is no known treatment for FeLV infection.
129
What is the role of antiviral therapy in FeLV treatment?
Antivirals have not been very effective in eliminating the virus in vivo due to toxic doses required. AZT showed limited efficacy if initiated early.
130
What has been shown to inhibit in vitro replication of FeLV?
Interferon-α has been shown to inhibit in vitro replication of FeLV.
131
What is the purpose of the Rivalta test?
To determine the protein content in fluid when full testing is not possible.
132
What was the sensitivity and specificity of the Rivalta test reported in one study?
Sensitivity of 91.3% and specificity of 65.5%
133
What factors can alter the significance of a positive Rivalta test result?
Disease prevalence and the cat's background.
134
What is required for a definitive diagnosis of FIP using immunohistochemistry?
Demonstration of virus infected macrophages within tissue sections.
135
What is the diagnostic sensitivity of Tru-cut biopsies in diagnosing FIP?
64% for liver and 39% for kidney.
136
What is the diagnostic sensitivity of fine needle aspirate biopsy (FNAB) in diagnosing FIP?
82% for liver and 42% for kidney.
137
What is the purpose of direct immunofluorescence (DIF) testing in FIP diagnosis?
To detect the virus within macrophages in effusion specimens.
138
What is the reported specificity of DIF testing?
100%
139
What are some possible reasons for false positive results in DIF testing?
Sample contamination or incubation of FIP without clinical onset.
140
When is exploratory laparotomy with biopsy of lesions and immunohistochemistry recommended for FIP diagnosis?
When a definitive diagnosis is desired or when clinical signs are atypical.
141
What is the recommended treatment for FIP?
Symptomatic therapy, immune modulation, and anti-inflammatory or anti-oxidant agents.
142
Why should caution be applied when interpreting treatment protocols for FIP?
FIP is notoriously difficult to diagnose.
143
What kind of diseases prompted the emergence of treatment protocols for FIP?
Exotic diseases such as Ebola, Middle East respiratory syndrome, and severe acute respiratory syndrome.
144
What is FIP?
FIP is a feline infectious disease caused by a coronavirus.
145
How can one reduce the risk of FIP?
Breeding from less susceptible stock and implementing an isolation breeding and early weaning policy.
146
What is the recommended age for removing kittens from their mother to prevent FIP?
Kittens should be removed from their mother at 5-6 weeks of age.
147
What is the survival time of FCoV in dry conditions?
FCoV can survive for 7 weeks in dry conditions.
148
How can FCoV be inactivated?
FCoV can be inactivated by using detergents, including a 1:32 dilution of bleach.
149
What should be done in a single cat household after an FIP diagnosis?
Clean all surfaces thoroughly, wait for 3 months before getting another (unrelated) cat, and ideally provide outside access.
150
What is the risk of developing FIP for cats in a multicat household?
The risk is low unless the cats are stressed (approximately 1%), but higher in young/old cats or genetically related cats (approximately 5%).
151
What was the initial identification of feline leukemia virus (FeLV) based on?
The identification was based on virus particles budding from lymphoblasts in a cat with lymphoma.
152
What was the estimated impact of FeLV infection on cancer-related deaths in cats?
At its peak, FeLV was estimated to be responsible for approximately one-third of all cancer-related deaths in cats.
153
What type of virus is FeLV?
FeLV is a γ retrovirus.
154
Why should the potential disadvantages of vaccination be balanced against its benefits in affected cats?
To assess the overall impact of vaccination on immune function in cats.
155
What subtypes does the commercially available FIV vaccine target?
Subtypes A & D.
156
Does the FIV vaccine provide 100% protection against infection?
No, it does not provide 100% protection.
157
Does the FIV vaccine provide cross-subtype protection?
No, it only provides limited protection against subtypes A & D.
158
Can vaccinated cats still become infected with other FIV subtypes?
Yes, they can still become infected with other subtypes.
159
Do vaccinated cats still require testing for FIV infection?
Yes, they still require testing for FIV infection.
160
How do vaccinated cats produce antibodies similar to those produced by natural infection?
They respond to immunisation by producing antibodies that are indistinguishable.
161
What are the possible methodologies to assess FIV infection in vaccinated cats?
ELISA's, Western blot, or Immunofluorescent antibody testing.
162
What happens when nursing kittens receive antibodies via colostrum from vaccinated mothers?
They can also test positive for FIV.
163
How can positive results in nursing kittens be confirmed?
Using either FIV PCR or viral isolation.
164
What are some proposed mechanisms for age-related resistance in cats?
Maturation of macrophage function is one proposed mechanism for age-related resistance.
165
Is age-related resistance an absolute phenomenon?
No, there is an increased rate of viraemia in cats housed in endemically infected environments.
166
What is the risk of an adult cat becoming persistently infected after one short contact with a viraemic cat?
The risk is very low.
167
How does FeLV infection most commonly occur?
FeLV infection most commonly occurs via the oronasal route.
168
What happens when FeLV replicates in local lymphoid tissue?
In many cats, virus replication is halted by cell mediated immunity and the virus is eliminated from the body.
169
What are regressor cats?
Regressor cats are cats in which the virus never spreads systemically and they have a high level of neutralising antibodies and build a good level of immunity.
170
What are some clinical signs of the initial viraemic period in cats?
Lethargy, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy can be clinical signs of the initial viraemic period.
171
How long does the transient viraemia typically last in cats?
The transient viraemia typically lasts for 3-6 weeks.
172
What happens in cats with bone marrow involvement during FeLV infection?
Haematopoietic precursor cells produce infected granulocytes and platelets, leading to a high level of viraemia.
173
What are latently infected cats?
Latently infected cats are cats that have cleared viraemia but still have the virus in their bone marrow.
174
What is the name of the drug that was shown to be effective against epidemic and zoonotic coronaviruses?
GS-5734
175
What is the parent nucleoside of GS-5734?
GS-441524
176
What is the mechanism of action of GS-5734 and GS-441524 against FIPV?
They act as an alternative substrate and RNA-chain terminator of viral RNA dependent RNA polymerase.
177
What were the findings of the trial conducted on 10 laboratory cats with experimentally induced abdominal effusive FIP?
Rapid reversal of clinical signs and return to normality within 2 weeks of treatment
178
What is the dose and duration of treatment in the trial assessing the efficacy of GS-441524 in the treatment of naturally occurring FIP?
2.0mg/kg s/c for 12 weeks
179
Are there currently commercially available treatments for FIP?
No
180
Why is the use of GS-441524 and GC-374 for FIP treatment considered technically illegal?
Because they are being marketed and used without proper authorization
181
What might be a potential issue with the black-market sales of GS-441524 and GC-374?
The biological activity and purity of these preparations is not tested, so their efficacy may not be equivalent to that in the peer-reviewed literature
182
What is Primucell FIP?
It is a vaccine against FIP
183
Where is Primucell FIP currently available?
Throughout much of Europe and North America
184
What is the mode of administration for Primucell FIP vaccine?
It is intranasal
185
What is the controversy surrounding the use of Primucell FIP vaccine?
It has caused accelerated disease in certain circumstances and should not be given to cats with FCoV antibodies
186
What is the protection rate of Primucell FIP vaccine in field trials?
0-80%
187
What is the structure of the virus that causes FeLV?
Protein core with single-stranded RNA protected by an envelope.
188
Where can the FeLV virus replicate in the cat's body?
In many tissues including bone marrow, salivary glands, and respiratory epithelium.
189
What enzyme is used by the FeLV virus to transcribe its RNA into DNA?
Reverse transcriptase (RT).
190
What happens to the viral DNA once it is transcribed from RNA?
It is inserted randomly into the host DNA.
191
Which subgroup of FeLV is infectious and transmissible from cat to cat?
FeLV-A.
192
What can increase the pathogenicity of subgroup A FeLV infection?
Mutation and recombination of the virus with cellular genes or endogenous retroviral genes.
193
What is the primary route of FeLV transmission between cats?
Through close contact, primarily through the saliva.
194
Apart from saliva, what are other potential routes of FeLV infection in cats?
Iatrogenic infection, fleas, and vertical transmission from queens to kittens.
195
What is the prevalence of FeLV infection in healthy cats?
Reported to be between 1% and 8%.
196
What factor has contributed to the decrease in FeLV prevalence?
An effective removal and isolation policy introduced in catteries and shelters.
197
According to the American Association of Feline Practitioner (AAFP) and the Academy of Feline Medicine Advisory Panel Report, what is the recommendation regarding the use of the FIP vaccine?
The vaccine does not induce clinically relevant protection, so its use is not recommended.
198
How can the spread of FIP in cats be controlled?
One way is to eradicate FCoV infection by testing cats every 3-6 months and separating them into negative and positive groups.
199
How long does it typically take for cats in closed households to eliminate FCoV infection?
It may take months to years for cats in closed households to stop shedding the virus and their antibody titres to decline towards zero.
200
What is the method recommended for identifying carrier cats that continue to shed FCoV despite being removed from reinfection sources?
Carrier cats can be identified by putting them into individual isolation rooms and repeatedly testing their faeces by RT-PCR.
201
Why is maintaining a low stocking density recommended to reduce the risk of FIP in cats?
FIP is more likely to occur in large groups or overcrowded conditions due to increased chances of FCoV introduction, contamination, and stress.
202
What are the main ways in which FCoV is spread?
FCoV is mainly spread faeco-orally, through the shedding of the virus in faeces and saliva, and possibly through inhalation of virus droplets.
203
What are the common presentations of FeLV infection in older cats?
Anaemia or immune suppression.
204
What are the recognized syndromes associated with FeLV infection?
Reproductive disorders, neuropathies, and fading kitten syndrome.
205
What are the tumours induced by FeLV?
Lymphomas, lymphoid leukemias, fibrosarcoma, multiple osteochondromas, and olfactory neuroblastomas.
206
How does FeLV infection result in anaemia?
By inducing immune suppression or haemolysis.
207
What immune-mediated diseases are cats with FeLV infection prone to?
Haemolytic anaemia, glomerulonephropathies, uveitis, and polyarthritis.
208
What are the other syndromes recognized in FeLV infected cats?
FeLV-Associated Enteritis, reproductive disorders, hepatopathies, and neuropathies.
209
What is the most effective way of preventing the spread of FeLV infection?
Testing for FeLV and preventing exposure to infected cats.
210
What are the general indications for testing FeLV?
General health screening, illness, adoption, and potential exposure.
211
What tests are available for FeLV diagnosis?
ELISA, direct fluorescent antibody tests, and PCR.
212
What does a positive ELISA test result for FeLV indicate?
The cat is viraemic.
213
What are some immunological abnormalities that occur with FIV infection?
Altered lymphocyte function, impaired T cell priming, disrupted cytokine production
214
What is the recommended method for serological testing for FIV?
ELISA kits
215
Why should cats with a positive ELISA result be re-tested using PCR?
To confirm the diagnosis due to variability in sensitivity and specificity
216
Why are antibody tests not reliable in kittens under 6 months of age?
They may have passively acquired anti-FIV antibodies from their mothers without being infected
217
What can result in a positive FIV test result?
Vaccination
218
What is the recommended management for FIV-infected cats?
Confinement indoors, high-quality diet, regular check-ups, neutering
219
What is the role of AZT in managing FIV infection?
It inhibits infection of new cells but does not stop virus replication
220
What are the potential side effects of AZT in cats?
Non-regenerative anemia
221
What is the recommended vaccination approach for FIV-positive cats?
Inactivated boosters, not modified live vaccines
222
What is the value of bacteriology in diagnosing respiratory disease in cats?
Bacteriology is generally of little value unless specific agents are being looked for.
223
When should the diagnostic laboratory be contacted prior to collecting samples?
The laboratory should be contacted before collecting samples to discuss specific transport media requirements.
224
What can serology determine in cats regarding FCV and FHV-1?
Serology can determine whether a cat has been previously exposed to FCV or FHV-1.
225
What is the limitation of serology in diagnosing respiratory disease in cats?
Serology is of limited value since most cats have usually been vaccinated.
226
What type of cats may show a rising titre against C. felis in serology?
Unvaccinated cats may show a rising titre against C. felis in serology.
227
How can C. felis be detected in cats around 7 days post infection?
C. felis can be detected as intranuclear inclusion bodies in Giemsa-stained conjunctival smears.
228
What is the recommended duration of antibiotic treatment for respiratory disease in cats?
Antibiotics should be given for 2-3 weeks.
229
What type of antibiotic should be given if specific organisms are not detected?
A broad-spectrum antibiotic active against bacteria commonly found in the feline oropharynx should be given.
230
What are the recommended antibiotics for cats with detected B. bronchiseptica, Mycoplasma spp., or C. felis?
Doxycycline or oxytetracycline, plus an ophthalmic tetracycline ointment, should be given.
231
Why should oral tetracycline not be used in kittens?
Oral tetracycline should not be used in kittens as it will discolour the teeth.
232
What nutritional support can be given to cats with respiratory disease?
Intravenous fluids and the placing of a feeding tube can be given to provide nutritional support.
233
Why are oesophageal feeding tubes preferred over naso-oesophageal tubes for cats with respiratory disease?
Oesophageal feeding tubes are preferred to avoid discomfort caused by inflammation of the nasal turbinates.
234
How can appetite be stimulated in cats with respiratory disease?
Appetite stimulants such as mirtazapine may be useful in some cases.
235
What is the importance of keeping the cat's eyes, nose, and coat clean in respiratory disease?
It is important to keep the cat's eyes and nose clean and its coat groomed for supportive nursing care.
236
What can supplementation of multivitamins help prevent in cats with respiratory disease?
Supplementation of multivitamins can help prevent a lack of certain vitamins, especially B12.
237
When should ocular anti-inflammatory drugs be used in cats with respiratory disease?
Ocular anti-inflammatory drugs should be used when significant pain and/or inflammation is caused by ocular signs.
238
What is the effect of ocular anti-inflammatory drugs on corneal ulcers in cats?
Ocular anti-inflammatory drugs can slow the healing of corneal ulcers.
239
How can steam or nebulised water help cats with respiratory disease?
Steam or nebulised water can help clear mucus and hydrate the airway in cats with respiratory disease.
240
What is the recommended use of nebulisation in cats with respiratory disease?
Nebulisation of antibiotics or disinfectant solutions is not recommended in cats with respiratory disease.
241
What antiviral is commonly used to decrease morbidity in cats with FHV-1 infection?
Famciclovir is commonly used to decrease morbidity in cats with FHV-1 infection.
242
What additional treatment option may be considered for severe cases of FHV-1 infection in cats?
Oral high dose L-lysine may be added to reduce clinical signs in severe cases of FHV-1 infection.
243
What is the recommended action to reduce respiratory disease within a group of cats?
To reduce respiratory disease, it is necessary to address infectious and non-infectious causes.
244
What measures can be taken to reduce respiratory disease in a group of cats?
Measures include introducing a suitable vaccination program, decreasing stocking density, increasing air flow, and improving overall hygiene.
245
What is the recommended duration for quarantining incoming cats in respiratory disease control?
All incoming cats should be quarantined for 3 weeks in respiratory disease control.
246
What precaution should be taken for colonies known to be free of infection?
In colonies known to be free of infection, use inactivated vaccines only and introduce cats that have been tested to be free of infection.
247
What is the topic of Lesson 4?
Lesson 4 is about vaccines and VSD (vaccine surveillance data).
248
What factors are considered when making decisions in practice every day?
The risk-benefit ratio is considered when making decisions in practice every day.
249
What are some of the measures taken to reduce the risk of respiratory disease in cats?
Measures include suitable vaccination programs, isolation, antibacterial treatment, ventilation improvement, and reducing over-crowding.
250
What is the recommended disinfectant for overall hygiene to reduce respiratory disease?
Ideally, a 1:32 bleach solution should be used as a suitable disinfectant for overall hygiene.
251
Why should kittens not be bred in colonies known to have respiratory disease?
Kittens are most susceptible to infection, so breeding should be stopped in colonies known to have respiratory disease.
252
How do Giardia trophozoites attach to the brush border of the villous epithelium?
Via their ventral adhesive discs.
253
How do Giardia trophozoites move from one attachment site to another?
Using their flagellae.
254
Where have Giardia trophozoites been found in cats?
Throughout the intestinal tract.
255
What stimulates the encystation of Giardia trophozoites?
Bile salts and fatty acids at a slightly alkaline pH.
256
What is the prepatent period of Giardia infection?
Ranges from 5-16 days, with an average of 10 days.
257
What is the reported prevalence of Giardia infection?
Between 1.4% and 11%, with an overall average of approximately 2.5%.
258
When does clinical disease from Giardia typically occur?
In immune suppressed cats or cats housed in large groups.
259
Do clinical signs of Giardia infection precede or follow oocyst shedding?
Precede oocyst shedding by 1-2 days.
260
What can Giardia cause in people?
Malabsorption of vitamin B12, folate, iron, triglycerides, lactose, and sucrose.
261
What is the pathogenesis of Giardia infection?
Rapid sloughing of intestinal epithelial cells, resulting in failure of new epithelial crypt cells to fully differentiate.
262
What is the result of blunting of the intestinal villi and microvilli in Giardia infection?
A decreased absorptive surface.
263
What are the clinical findings of Giardia infection in cats?
Most infections are asymptomatic, but very young cats or those with concurrent diseases can demonstrate diarrhea, pale steatorrheic malodorous faeces, weight loss, and inappetence.
264
How can trophozoites of Giardia be identified?
On a wet prep by mixing 1 drop of feces with 1-2 drops of saline and examining by light microscopy.
265
What is the recommended number of fecal samples to examine for Giardia?
3 samples over 3-5 days.
266
What other tests are available for the detection of Giardia?
Commercial ELISA tests for giardia antigens or immunofluorescence tests.
267
What is the treatment for Giardia in cats?
Fenbendazole at a dose of 50mg/kg once daily for 5 days or metronidazole at a dose of 10-25mg/kg once to twice daily for 5-7 days.
268
Where is Tritrichomonas foetus traditionally identified as a cause of reproductive disease?
Cattle (infertility, abortion, and endometritis).
269
What has led to the virtual elimination of Tritrichomonas foetus in breeding cattle populations?
The widespread use of artificial insemination.
270
Where has Tritrichomonas foetus been found all over the world?
In many countries including the UK and much of Europe.
271
What is recommended if Tritrichomonas foetus infection exists in animal shelters, breeding catteries, or boarding facilities?
Establish a 'clean' area, move affected animals out, treat them, steam clean the contaminated zone, disinfect with a quaternary ammonium compound, allow the kennels to dry thoroughly, bathe affected animals, treat them again, and repopulate the original area.
272
What are some clinical signs of Helicobacter gastritis in cats?
vomiting, weight loss, emaciation, diarrhea
273
How is Helicobacter infection typically diagnosed?
Cytological evaluation, histological specimens with modified Giemsa or Silver stain, culture and isolation of specific species
274
What is the recommended treatment for helicobacter organisms in cats?
Combination of 2 antibiotics and an antacid, such as Metronidazole with Amoxicillin or Amoxicillin with Clarithromycin
275
What are the potential routes of transmission for Helicobacter organisms?
Faecal-oral, oral-oral, improper disinfection of pH probes and endoscopic equipment
276
What are the epidemiological findings related to Helicobacter infections in cats?
Significant IgG response, presence in dental plaque, oral tissues, vomitus, saliva, gastric secretions, faeces, and water supplies
277
What are the public health considerations associated with Helicobacter infections?
Zoonotic infections, H. heilmannii and H. felis isolated in people with gastritis, role of pets as sentinels, and association with MALT lymphoma and gastric adenocarcinoma
278
What family do E coli belong to?
Enterobacteriaceae
279
What is the normal habitat of E coli?
Intestinal microflora
280
How would you describe the morphology of E coli?
Pleomorphic Gram-negative, non-spore forming rods
281
What are the potential clinical signs of Helicobacter gastritis in cats?
vomiting, weight loss, emaciation, diarrhea
282
How can Helicobacter organisms be identified in biopsy samples?
Cytological evaluation, histological specimens stained with modified Giemsa or Silver stain
283
What is the mechanism of transmission for Helicobacter organisms?
Poorly understood, hypothesized faecal-oral and oral-oral routes, possible transmission through improper disinfection of pH probes and endoscopic equipment
284
What is the recommended treatment for cats with Helicobacter organisms?
Combination of 2 antibiotics and an antacid, such as Metronidazole with Amoxicillin or Amoxicillin with Clarithromycin
285
What are the potential sources of Helicobacter organisms?
Faeces, water supplies, dental plaque, oral tissues, vomitus, saliva, gastric secretions
286
What are the epidemiological findings related to Helicobacter infections?
Significant IgG response, association with high numbers of Helicobacter organisms in older cats, presence in dental plaque, oral tissues, vomitus, saliva, gastric secretions, faeces, and water supplies
287
What are the public health considerations associated with Helicobacter infections?
Zoonotic infections, H. heilmannii and H. felis isolated in people with gastritis, role of pets as sentinels, association with MALT lymphoma and gastric adenocarcinoma
288
What family do E coli belong to?
Enterobacteriaceae
289
What is the normal habitat of E coli?
Intestinal microflora
290
How would you describe the morphology of E coli?
Pleomorphic Gram-negative, non-spore forming rods
291
Does faecal CPV antigen cross-react with FPV?
Yes, faecal CPV antigen does cross-react with FPV.
292
Can faecal antigen be used to detect CPV in cats?
Yes, faecal antigen can be used to detect CPV in cats.
293
How long is faecal antigen detectable after infection?
Faecal antigen is detectable only for a short time after infection.
294
Are false-negative results common in faecal antigen testing?
Yes, false-negative results are common in faecal antigen testing.
295
Can positive results be obtained in recently vaccinated animals?
Yes, positive results may be obtained in recently vaccinated animals.
296
What can aid in the confirmation of feline panleukopenia in outbreak situations with fatalities?
Post mortem examination may aid in the confirmation of the disease.
297
What are the reported changes in the bowel during feline panleukopenia?
Reported changes include serosal and mucosal hyperaemia of the bowel with petechiae, and thickened, dilated bowel loops.
298
How do the mesenteric lymph nodes appear in feline panleukopenia?
The mesenteric lymph nodes may be haemorrhagic and swollen.
299
What changes may be observed in the cerebellum if cerebellar hypoplasia is present in feline panleukopenia?
The cerebellum may appear small.
300
What additional changes are reported in feline panleukopenia?
Oral and oesophageal ulceration have been reported.
301
What are the typical findings in the histopathology of feline panleukopenia?
Swollen intestinal epithelial crypts filled with debris, short fused villi, lymphocyte depletion within the lymphoid tissues and bone marrow, eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions, and hypoplasia of the external granular layer if cerebellar hypoplasia is present.
302
What is the initial treatment for acute cases of feline panleukopenia?
Acute cases require vigorous fluid therapy and supportive nursing care.
303
What precautions should be taken with cats infected with feline panleukopenia?
Cats should be placed in isolation and strict hygiene should be adhered to.
304
What is the foundation of therapy for feline panleukopenia?
Intravenous fluid replacement and maintenance with a balanced isotonic crystalloid solution.
305
Which antibiotics are commonly used in the treatment of feline panleukopenia?
Amoxicillin and metronidazole are frequently used.
306
When is anti-emetic therapy indicated in feline panleukopenia treatment?
Anti-emetic therapy may be indicated if vomiting or nausea are present.
307
What are some examples of anti-emetic drugs used in feline panleukopenia treatment?
Maropitant, metoclopramide, ondansetron.
308
What should be considered in the treatment of feline panleukopenia to improve outcome?
Recombinant feline interferon omega (rFeIFN) should be considered.
309
What additional treatment may be considered in severely neutropenic cases of feline panleukopenia?
Granulocyte colony stimulating factor (Filgrastim) may be considered.
310
Can high antibody titres be achieved with modified-live virus (MLV) vaccines?
Yes, high antibody titres are present much earlier when MLV vaccinations are used.
311
Should MLV vaccinations be used in immunocompromised or sick cats, pregnant queens, or very young kittens?
No, MLV vaccinations should not be used in these cases.
312
What are some protozoal agents that infect the gastrointestinal tract of cats?
Giardia spp, Cryptosporidium spp, Isospora spp, Sarcocystis spp, Besnoitia spp, Hommondi spp, Toxoplasma gondii, Entamoeba histolytica, and Tritrichomonas foetus.
313
What are the different stages of Giardia spp and T. foetus?
Giardia spp has both trophozoite and cyst stages, while T. foetus has only a trophozoite stage.
314
What is FCV?
FCV stands for Feline Calicivirus.
315
What can immunohistochemistry detect in tissue biopsies?
Immunohistochemistry can detect the presence of FCV within tissue biopsies.
316
What are the possible reasons for cats being ill?
Cats may be ill due to reasons other than FCV, but they may be shedding either a normal field or vaccine strain of FCV.
317
What kind of environments may contain high levels of viral biodiversity?
Crowded high-stress environments, such as shelters, may contain high levels of viral biodiversity.
318
What can lead to sequential re-infection and rare persistently FCV-infected cats?
Many different FCV strains may be present, which can lead to sequential re-infection and rare persistently FCV-infected cats.
319
What is the possible result of cats being infected with more than one FCV strain?
Cats infected with more than one FCV strain raise the possibility of viral recombination.
320
What factors may select for highly contagious and virulent viral strains?
High levels of non-neutralizing immunity and crowded high-stress environments may select for highly contagious and virulent viral strains.
321
What can cause systemic vascular compromise, multi-organ failure, and death in FCV-VSD?
Altered viral pathogenicity, altered cell tropism, and altered host cytokine response can cause systemic vascular compromise, multi-organ failure, and death in FCV-VSD.
322
What is the recommended treatment for FCV-VSD cases?
Treatment for FCV-VSD cases is predominantly supportive care, providing fluids, antibiotics, analgesia, and nutrition.
323
How can the infection of FCV spread?
The infection can be easily spread by cat handlers and fomites - oro-nasal secretions, skin-ooze, faeces, and urine.
324
Do routine FCV vaccinations provide significant protection against FCV-VSD?
Routine FCV vaccinations offer little protection against FCV-VSD, although recently vaccinated cats may be slightly less likely to become ill.
325
What limitations exist for the vaccine generated against a FCV-VSD strain?
The variation between different FCV-VSD strains means that protection against other FCV-VSD strains cannot be assumed.
326
What are the coccidians that produce oocysts?
spp, Isospora spp, Sarcocystis spp, Besnoitia spp, Hommondi spp, and Toxoplasma gondii.
327
What type of protozoan is E. histolytica?
Amoeba with both trophozoite and cyst stages.
328
How is infection with E. histolytica transmitted?
Through the fecal-oral route.
329
Which protozoal cysts are immediately infectious?
Cryptosporidium.
330
Which protozoal cysts sporulate outside the host before becoming infectious?
T. gondii and Isospora.
331
Which organisms can result in infection if ingested within tissue cysts?
Isospora spp, Besnoitia spp, Hammondia spp, and T. gondii.
332
What is the typical coccidial lifestyle?
It involves a sexual and an asexual phase.
333
What are oocysts passed in?
Faeces.
334
What happens to oocysts after exposure to warmth and moisture?
They sporulate and form two sporocysts, each containing four sporozoites.
335
What do sporozoites do once an oocyst is ingested?
They can excyst and form schizonts.
336
What do schizonts divide to form?
Merozoites.
337
What can merozoites undergo?
A second cycle of asexual reproduction or transform to form microgamonts and macrogamonts.
338
What fertilizes the macrogamont to form an oocyst?
The macrogamont.
339
What is the pathogenesis of enteric protozoans?
It is not known for all, but some replicate within intestinal cells, leading to cell rupture and clinical illness.
340
What are the most common presenting complaints for cats with enteric protozoal diseases?
Vomiting, inappetence, or diarrhea.
341
Which protozoal infections result in signs of small intestinal disease?
Giardia spp, Cryptosporidium spp, and T. gondii infections.
342
Which protozoal infections are more likely to lead to signs of large intestinal disease?
Isospora spp and T. foetus infections.
343
How are protozoal cysts or oocysts best seen?
After faecal concentration with either Sheather’s sugar centrifugation or zinc sulphate centrifugation.
344
What staining methods are recommended for Cryptosporidium spp oocysts?
Acid-fast staining or monoclonal antibody staining of a thin faecal smear.
345
What are the treatment options for T. gondii?
Clindamycin or azithromycin.
346
What are the treatment options for Giardia?
Metronidazole or fenbendazole.
347
What are the treatment options for Cryptosporidium?
Toltrazuril.
348
What are the treatment options for T. foetus?
Ronidazole.
349
What is the characteristic appearance of Giardia trophozoite under light microscopy?
A 'smiley face' formed by two nuclei, axonemes, and median bodies.
350
What is the second form of Giardia responsible for transmission?
The cyst, which contains two trophozoites.
351
How long can Giardia cysts survive outside the host?
Several months in wet, cold conditions.
352
How does infection of Giardia occur?
Via the fecal-oral route, typically through faecally contaminated food or water.
353
What happens to Giardia cysts after being ingested?
They become exposed to gastric acid and pancreatic secretions, then excyst within the duodenum.
354
How many trophozoites are released from a Giardia cyst?
Two.
355
What type of motility does Giardia trophozoite exhibit?
A 'falling leaf' type motility.
356
What is the zoonotic potential of treatment with metronidazole in infected cats?
Owners should be warned about the potential hazard.
357
What is the most important viral disease to rule in/out in cats?
Feline panleukopenia virus (FPV).
358
What is FPV?
Feline panleukopenia virus, a highly contagious and often fatal viral disease of cats.
359
What is FPV closely related to?
Mink enteritis virus and the type 2 canine parvoviruses (CPV).
360
Where are CPV strains reported to rival FPV as the major cause of feline panleukopenia?
Some parts of the world, like Asia.
361
How is FPV usually transmitted to cats?
By oronasal exposure to infected animals, their faeces, secretions, or contaminated fomites.
362
How long can FPV persist in the environment?
Up to one-year at room temperature, if protected in organic material.
363
Which disinfectants can destroy FPV?
A 1:32 dilution of household bleach, Peroxygen disinfectants, 4% formaldehyde, and 1% glutaraldehyde.
364
Which cells does FPV infect and destroy in the body?
Actively dividing cells in the bone marrow, lymphoid tissues, intestinal epithelium, and in very young animals, the cerebellum and retina.
365
What can FPV cause in pregnant queens?
Embryonic resorption, foetal mummification, abortion, or stillbirth.
366
What can FPV infection in perinatal kittens lead to?
Cerebellar hypoplasia, incoordination, and tremor.
367
What are the clinical signs of FPV infection in young kittens?
Abortion if infected before 21 days gestation, cerebellar hypoplasia if infected after, sudden death.
368
What are the clinical signs of FPV infection in older kittens and cats?
Severe gastroenteritis, panleukopenia, hyperthermia, anorexia, vomiting, watery-haemorrhagic diarrhoea.
369
What can be a fatal complication of FPV?
Secondary bacteraemia.
370
What is the mortality rate in kittens if they don't receive treatment for FPV?
Over 90%.
371
What do CBC findings typically show in cats with FPV?
Leukopenia (frequently neutropenia, but other lines can be affected) and thrombocytopenia. Anaemia may also be present.
372
Why is serology generally not recommended for diagnosing FPV?
It cannot differentiate between vaccine-induced antibodies and infection.
373
What tests can be used to detect FPV antigen within the faeces?
In-house tests.
374
What are the important considerations when administering metronidazole to infected cats?
Barrier nursing of affected cases and warning owners about the potential hazard.
375
What is the common name for Feline panleukopenia virus?
FPV.
376
What are some self-limiting enteric viral and protozoal diseases in cats?
FCoV, FeLV, FIV, and Rotavirus.
377
What is the most consistent feature of FCV infection?
Oral ulceration
378
How long does it generally take for healing of FCV ulcers?
2-3 weeks
379
What are the rare pulmonary lesions that can occur in FCV infection?
Focal alveolitis resulting in proliferative interstitial pneumonia
380
What are the clinical signs of FHV-1 infection?
Local necrosis of mucosa, serous and mucopurulent discharge
381
How long does it typically take for acute FHV-1 lesions to resolve?
2-3 weeks
382
Which age group is mostly affected by cat flu?
Young cats
383
What are the initial clinical signs of cat flu?
Depression, pyrexia, and sneezing
384
What can cause the eyelids to become 'sticky' in cat flu?
Conjunctivitis
385
What can lead to a total loss of olfaction and mouth breathing in cat flu?
Blocked nose
386
Which virus is more commonly associated with oral ulceration?
FCV
387
Which virus tends to cause more severe disease in cat flu?
FHV-1
388
How long should clinical signs of cat flu resolve?
1-3 weeks
389
What is the term for chronic cat flu disease?
Chronic rhinitis or 'snufflers'
390
What type of diagnosis can be made based on typical clinical signs and possible exposure?
Presumptive diagnosis
391
What should be taken for isolation and culture or PCR in cat flu diagnosis?
Nasal or oropharyngeal swabs
392
What should be considered when interpreting PCR results in cat flu diagnosis?
FHV-1 shedding intermittently, FCV shedding from different strains or vaccines
393
What are the pathological findings associated with Campylobacter infection in neonates?
Fluid-filled colon, thickening and congestion of the mucosa, decreased height of epithelial cells, decreased brush borders, decreased numbers of goblet cells
394
What are the pathological findings associated with Campylobacter infection in adults?
Stunting of intestinal villi, infiltration of laminar propria, hyperplasia of Peyer's patches, mucosal hyperplasia, immature hyperchromic hyperplastic epithelial cells, increased mitotic index, deep irregular crypts
395
What is the recommended drug of choice for treating C. jejuni infection?
Erythromycin
396
What alternative therapies can be used to treat C. jejuni infection?
Chloramphenicol, a combination of 2nd generation cephalosporins and Erythromycin in severe cases with cholecystitis
397
What are the symptoms of Campylobacter infection in humans?
Diarrhea, vomiting, fever, and abdominal pain
398
What percentage of cases of Campylobacter infection in humans were linked to exposure to diarrheic kittens?
6%
399
What percentage of cases of Campylobacter infection in veterinary students were linked to asymptomatic cats?
30%
400
What type of organisms are Salmonella?
Motile, non-spore forming, gram-negative bacilli
401
How can Salmonella be transmitted to humans?
Contaminated food, water, or fomites
402
What are the common sources of Salmonella infection?
Contact with contaminated food, water, or fomites
403
What is the prevalence of Salmonella isolation from hospitalised cats?
Ranges from 1-18%
404
Where in the digestive system do Salmonella organisms colonize?
Mid-ileum, where they attach to the tips of the villi
405
What structures facilitate the insertion of Salmonella bacteria into epithelial cells?
Pili-like projections
406
How long is the typical shedding period in animals with Salmonellosis?
3-6 weeks
407
Which cells can harbor Salmonella organisms persistently?
Phagocytic cells within the intestinal lymph nodes, liver, or spleen
408
What conditions can lead to reactivation of Salmonella shedding?
Stress
409
What type of injury is more common with Salmonella infection compared to other forms of bacterial diarrhea?
Mucosal injury and inflammatory response
410
What is thought to stimulate fluid secretion in the intestines in cases of Salmonella infection?
Heat labile enterotoxins produced by some strains of salmonella
411
What are the clinical signs of Salmonellosis?
Varies depending on infective organisms, immune status, and complicating factors
412
What can cause several syndromes as a result of Salmonella infection?
Infection with Salmonella
413
What are the clinical signs of Salmonella gastroenteritis?
The clinical signs of Salmonella gastroenteritis are highly variable and may include pyrexia, malaise, anorexia, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, ptyalism, weight loss, dehydration, pale mucous membranes, weakness, cardiovascular collapse, shock, icterus, hyperexcitability, incoordination, posterior paresis, blindness, convulsions, coughing, dyspnoea, and epistaxis.
414
When do acute episodes of Salmonella gastroenteritis typically occur?
Acute episodes of Salmonella gastroenteritis typically occur 3-5 days after exposure.
415
Who are particularly at risk of Salmonella gastroenteritis?
Very young or old patients are particularly at risk of Salmonella gastroenteritis.
416
What are the possible complications of Salmonella infection?
Possible complications of Salmonella infection include bacteraemia, endotoxaemia, pneumonia, metastatic infection, and abortion, stillbirth or weak kittens in cases of in utero infection.
417
What are the laboratory findings associated with Salmonellosis?
Laboratory findings associated with Salmonellosis may include nonregenerative hypochromic anaemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia with a left shift and toxic changes within the neutrophils, neutrophilia in chronic infections, prolonged coagulation times in severe cases, hypoalbuminaemia, hypoglycaemia, and azotaemia (prerenal).
418
How can acute Salmonella infection be confirmed?
Acute Salmonella infection can be confirmed if Salmonella is isolated from normally sterile fluids (blood, urine, CSF, pleural or peritoneal fluids, BAL, synovial fluid) or from tissue (liver, spleen, mesenteric lymph nodes, intestine, bone marrow).
419
What are the possible pathological findings in severe cases of Salmonella infection?
Pathological findings in severe cases of Salmonella infection may include pale mucous membranes, dehydration, diffuse mucoid to haemorrhagic enteritis, catarrhal inflammation to mucosal sloughing within the intestine, serosanguinous peritoneal fluid, petechial or ecchymotic haemorrhages throughout the organs, oedema or consolidation in the lungs, and enlarged and haemorrhagic lymph nodes.
420
What is the recommended treatment for acute salmonellosis?
Acute salmonellosis often results in dehydration, therefore parenteral polyionated isotonic fluids are recommended. Routine antibiotic therapy is not advocated in uncomplicated Salmonella gastroenteritis, but is recommended in animals with signs of systemic infection or which are immune suppressed. Chloramphenicol, TMPS, and amoxicillin are all reported to be effective against Salmonella.
421
How can Salmonella infection be prevented in kennels and food dishes?
Infected animals should be barrier nursed and kennels/food dishes etc thoroughly cleaned using a 1:32 solution of bleach or phenol-based disinfectant (care should be taken as phenols are toxic to cats).
422
What are the common clinical signs of salmonellosis in companion animals?
The common clinical signs of salmonellosis in companion animals include vomiting, diarrhea, lethargy, abdominal tenderness, headache, myalgia, and dehydration.
423
What are the most common sources of human infection with salmonellosis?
The most common sources of human infection with salmonellosis are contaminated food or water.
424
How can pets serve as a sentinel for human infection with salmonellosis?
Pets can serve as a sentinel for human infection, indicating a potential risk of transmission.
425
What is Tyzzer's disease?
Tyzzer's disease is a condition caused by Clostridium piliforme, a bacterium found in rodents and their feces.
426
What are the clinical findings of Tyzzer's disease in cats?
The clinical findings of Tyzzer's disease in cats include lethargy, depression, anorexia, abdominal pain, icterus, hepatomegaly, abdominal distension, and hypothermia.
427
How is Tyzzer's disease transmitted to cats?
Cats can contract Tyzzer's disease by coming into contact with rodents or rodent feces.
428
What are Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium difficile commonly associated with?
Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium difficile are commonly associated with diarrhea.
429
What are the clinical signs of Clostridium perfringens-associated diarrhea in cats?
Clinical signs of Clostridium perfringens-associated diarrhea in cats include increased faecal mucus, increased defaecation, tenesmus, haematochezia, and inflammation of the intestinal mucosa.
430
What triggers the development of Clostridium perfringens-associated diarrhea in cats?
Clostridium perfringens-associated diarrhea in cats can be triggered by a change in diet, anorexia, or antibiotic administration.
431
What are the recommended antibiotics for treating Clostridium perfringens-associated diarrhea in cats?
Recommended antibiotics for treating Clostridium perfringens-associated diarrhea in cats include ampicillin, erythromycin, metronidazole, and tylosin.
432
What are the three toxins associated with Clostridium difficile infection?
The three toxins associated with Clostridium difficile infection are toxin A (an enterotoxin), toxin B (a cytotoxin), and C. difficile toxin (CDT, an ADP-ribosyltransferase).
433
What diseases have been associated with Clostridium difficile infection?
Clostridium difficile infection has been associated with pseudomembranous colitis in people and acute necrotising haemorrhagic enterocolitis in foals.
434
What are the clinical signs of Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea in cats?
Clinical signs of Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea in cats include acute anorexia, watery diarrhea, pyrexia, and vomiting.
435
How is Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea in cats diagnosed?
Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea in cats is diagnosed through culture and faecal toxin detection by ELISA or molecular techniques.
436
Why are kittens at risk of infection prior to vaccination?
Kittens are at risk of infection prior to vaccination because of the presence of herpes recrudescence within the queen, which can be caused by parturition.
437
What is the impact of maternally derived antibodies on vaccination?
Maternally derived antibodies can affect vaccination by lasting for up to 16-20 weeks and varying in amount between kittens, preventing appropriate immune stimulation and lived immunity.
438
What are the new primary vaccination guidelines for at-risk kittens?
The new guidelines advise at-risk kittens to receive 3 vaccinations at 3-4-week intervals between 6-8 weeks of age and 16 weeks of age.
439
Why can't earlier use of combination vaccines provide better protection against FHV?
Modified-live virus FPV vaccination in younger kittens can lead to cerebellar hypoplasia, which is why earlier use of combination vaccines is not recommended.
440
What are the concerns regarding live versus inactivated vaccines?
Concerns include live vaccines potentially causing clinical signs of disease and persistence of live vaccine virus within a cat colony, which can mutate and become pathogenic.
441
Which type of vaccine is more likely to require an adjuvant?
Inactivated vaccines are more likely to require the incorporation of an adjuvant, which raises concerns about the development of injection-site sarcomas.
442
What did studies reveal about the antibody response to MLV and inactivated FPV vaccines?
Studies revealed that MLV FPV vaccine administered leads to a more rapid increase in antibody titres, while inactivated FPV vaccine response is slower.
443
Why is it generally considered safer to use an inactivated vaccine for FCV?
Using an inactivated vaccine for FCV is considered safer due to the risks of causing disease with MLV FCV.
444
What did studies find about the antibody response to herpes vaccination?
Multiple studies found that the rise in antibodies is faster after vaccination with an inactivated vaccine compared to a MLV vaccine, although the exact reason is unknown.
445
How frequently should core-vaccines be given?
Core-vaccines should be given every 3 years after an appropriate initial course and a 16-month booster because immunity remains elevated for several years.
446
What is the recommendation regarding annual vaccinations?
Annual vaccinations are no longer advised according to the new vaccination guidelines.
447
What are the learning objectives of this module?
The learning objectives of this module include discussing bacterial enteropathies, identifying appropriate diagnostics for investigation, explaining the treatment for bacterial enteropathies, explaining the pathogenesis of viral and protozoal enteropathies, recognizing the presentation of infectious enteropathies, selecting diagnostic tests for common infections, identifying how to treat infectious enteropathies, explaining the shedding and control of Feline Herpes and Calicivirus, identifying the presenting features of feline upper respiratory tract infections and the clinical signs that may aid in differentiation, understanding diagnostic tests for upper respiratory tract infections, knowing the recommended treatments for upper respiratory tract infections, explaining changes in vaccination protocols, discussing types of vaccination and their advantages and disadvantages, and being familiar with new-variant Calici infection and its risks and treatment options.
448
What is the first lesson in this module about?
The first lesson in this module is about bacterial gastroenteropathies.
449
What clinical signs may cats with gastrointestinal disease present?
Cats with gastrointestinal disease may present with severe vomiting and diarrhea, mild weight loss, and/or inappetence.
450
What is the recommended approach for investigation in cats with a chronic history of GI abnormalities?
For cats with a chronic history of GI abnormalities, a logical, step-wise investigation is advised, ruling out systemic, parasitic, and infectious causes.
451
Which infectious diseases can affect the GI tract in cats?
Infectious diseases that can affect the GI tract in cats include Campylobacter, Salmonella, Clostridium, E. coli, Helicobacter, Cryptosporidium, Giardia, Tritrichomonas, Coccidia, GI parasites (e.g. helminths), Toxoplasmosis, FeLV, FIV, FCoV, and FPV.
452
What is the prevalence of Helicobacter organisms in clinically healthy colony cats kept in high-density populations?
In clinically healthy colony cats kept in high-density populations, the prevalence of Helicobacter organisms was 100%.
453
What is the most common helicobacter species recognized in people?
The most common helicobacter species recognized in people is H. pylori.
454
What are the potential consequences of Helicobacter infection in people?
Helicobacter infection in people has been associated with persistent active gastritis, peptic ulcers, and a predisposition to the development of gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma.
455
What is a common feature of helicobacter organisms?
A common feature of helicobacter organisms is a high level of urease activity, allowing them to survive in the acid environment within the stomach.
456
What is the basis behind vaccination?
The basis behind vaccination is to protect against infectious or potentially fatal diseases.
457
What are the potential risks of vaccination in cats?
The potential risks of vaccination in cats include rare vaccine reactions, such as local irritation, pyrexia, joint pain, and in extreme cases, anaphylactic reactions.
458
What is the prevalence of feline injection site sarcoma (FISS) in vaccinated cats?
The prevalence of FISS in vaccinated cats is estimated to be 1 in every 5,000 to 12,500.
459
Why is random vaccination not warranted?
Random vaccination is not warranted because vaccination should be given based on risk, balancing the chance of complications with the chance of disease.
460
What were the changes in feline vaccination guidelines?
Feline vaccination guidelines underwent changes based on the need to see a significant decrease in the prevalence of FCV and FHV, determining the safest and most efficacious vaccines, the necessity of annual booster vaccinations, and the effectiveness of vaccines in providing immunity.
461
Why has there been little change in the overall prevalence of FCV infection despite vaccination?
There has been little change in the overall prevalence of FCV infection because vaccination fails to produce sterilizing immunity and only protects against the development of clinical signs of disease, not against infection itself.
462
Why do vaccine companies look for cross-reactivity with different strains of calicivirus?
Vaccine companies look for cross-reactivity to ensure a wider range of neutralization of calici field strains, as calicivirus mutates and develops over time.
463
When should cats be vaccinated?
Cats should be vaccinated when their maternally derived antibody has dropped to a level where they can respond to the vaccine, and again 2-4 weeks later to re-trigger the immune response.
464
At what age can the maternally derived antibody against herpes virus wane?
The maternally derived antibody against herpes virus can wane as early as 2 weeks.
465
What are the possible short-term risks of vaccination?
The possible short-term risks of vaccination include local irritation, pyrexia, joint pain, and in extreme cases, anaphylactic reactions.
466
What should be considered when titres are low after vaccination?
Caution should be exercised when titres are low after vaccination.
467
Is lack of antibodies a sign that a cat is at risk for FHV?
No, a lack of antibodies does not mean that a cat is at risk for FHV.
468
What type of vaccines are used to protect against Chlamydophila felis?
Attenuated live and inactivated vaccines are used to protect against Chlamydophila felis.
469
When should the initial vaccination for Chlamydophila felis be administered?
The initial vaccination for Chlamydophila felis should start at 8-9 weeks of age.
470
What are the signs of infection that may occur after vaccination with live vaccines for Chlamydophila felis?
Mild signs of infection may occur 7 days post vaccination when using live vaccines for Chlamydophila felis.
471
Should pregnant queens be vaccinated against Chlamydophila felis?
No, pregnant queens should not be vaccinated against Chlamydophila felis.
472
When is vaccination against Bordetella bronchiseptica recommended?
Vaccination against Bordetella bronchiseptica is usually considered when a unit has an identified B. bronchiseptica problem.
473
What type of vaccine is used for Bordetella bronchiseptica and how is it administered?
A live attenuated vaccine is used for Bordetella bronchiseptica and it is administered intranasally.
474
When should the initial vaccination for Bordetella bronchiseptica be administered?
The initial vaccination for Bordetella bronchiseptica should start at 8-9 weeks of age.
475
What are the signs of infection that may occur after vaccination with live vaccines for Bordetella bronchiseptica?
Mild signs of infection may occur post vaccination with live vaccines for Bordetella bronchiseptica.
476
What determines the virulence of E.coli associated with gastroenteritis?
The presence of virulent factors and the local or systemic immunity.
477
What are the distinct forms of diarrheagenic E.coli?
Enteropathogenic E.coli (EPEC), enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC), enterohemorrhagic E.coli (EHEC), necrotoxigenic E.coli (NTEC), enteroinvasive E.coli (EIEC), enteroaggregative E.coli (EAEC) and adherent-invasive E.coli (AIEC).
478
What pathology is AIEC associated with in Boxer dogs and Feline Granulomatous Colitis?
Granulomatous colitis
479
What diagnostic method is used to identify AIEC in Boxer dogs?
Fluorescent in-situ hybridisation (FISH)
480
What type of E.coli infection can be treated with fluoroquinolone antibiosis?
AIEC (adherent-invasive E.coli)
481
What is the recommended treatment for cats with diarrhoea and positive E.coli faecal PCR?
Suitable antibiotic treatment (ideally based on culture results) alongside standard supportive care.
482
What is the prevalence of C. jejuni in the normal cat population?
Approximately 4%
483
What is the principle route of Campylobacter infection in cats and dogs?
Faecal oral spread from food/water borne pathogens.
484
How do asymptomatic carriers of Campylobacter shed the organism?
In their faeces for prolonged periods of time
485
What factors can exacerbate the severity of Campylobacter infection?
Environmental, physiological, and surgical stressors; co-infection with other enteric pathogens.
486
What microscopy technique can be used to demonstrate curved, motile Campylobacter bacteria?
Dark field or phase contrast microscopy
487
What is the typical morphology of Campylobacter bacteria when stained with gram stain?
Gull-wing shaped
488
What is the optimal environment for isolating Campylobacter organisms in culture?
Blood agar plates and a microaerophilic environment
489
What is the recommended diagnostic technique for demonstrating rising antibody titres against Campylobacter?
Serology
490
How can the organism T. foetus be examined in cats?
By inserting a cotton swab into the anus and rotating it over the colonic mucosa.
491
What should be done after withdrawing the cotton swab from the cat's anus?
A smear should be made on a microscope slide, which is diluted with saline and examined.
492
How can T. foetus be distinguished from Giardia?
T. foetus trophozoites exhibit forward motion, while Giardia trophozoites do not.
493
What can suppress the number of T. foetus trophozoites and make the diagnosis more difficult?
Recent antibiotic therapy in the cat.
494
What are two more sensitive and specific diagnostic tests for T. foetus?
Culture from fecal samples using the 'In Pouch TF test' and PCR (polymerase chain reaction) test.
495
How long should a 2-week wash-out period be advised before performing a PCR test on cats that recently received antibiotics?
2 weeks.
496
What anti-protozoal drugs are T. foetus resistant to in cats?
Fenbendazole and metronidazole.
497
Which antimicrobial drug has good efficacy against T. foetus infection in cats?
Ronidazole.
498
What are the potential side effects of ronidazole in cats?
Teratogenicity, neurological signs (e.g. twitching, seizures).
