Female reproductive system Flashcards
(157 cards)
@# 6. Regarding yolk sac tumours of ovary:
A. Are the most common malignant germ cell tumour of the ovary
B. Account for 5% of all ovarian malignancy
C. Carry a poorer prognosis than any other ovarian germ cell tumour
D. Haemorrhagic change is very rare
E. Are slow growing tumours
C. Carry a poorer prognosis than any other ovarian germ cell tumour
Yolk sac tumours are well-enhanced tumours consisting of mixed solid and cystic tissue with some area of haemorrhage.
A ‘bright dot’ sign is recognised; a well-enhanced dilated vessel on the post-contrast image.
Yolk sac tumours have a poor prognosis.
They account for 1% of ovarian malignancies.
They are the second most common malignant germ cell tumour after dysgerminomas.
- Granulosa cell ovarian tumour is diagnosed following removal of a complex pelvic mass. Which is the single best answer?
A. Account for 15% of ovarian tumours
B. The juvenile subtype is more common
C. Has a rapid rate of growth
D. Recurrent disease is almost always in the frst two years after treatment
E. Variable imaging appearances are recognised from uniloculated cystic masses to solid masses
E. Variable imaging appearances are recognised from uniloculated cystic masses to solid masses
Represent 70% of malignant sex cord stromal tumours, but only 2-5% of all ovarian tumours have an unpredictable and indolent course with relapse occurring up to several years after initial diagnosis. The adult subtype accounts for 95% of all GCTs.
- Involvement of which of the following indicates the poorest prognosis in recurrent endometrial cancer?
A. Spleen
B. Vagina
C. Lung
D. Bladder
E. Well-differentiated tumour at original surgery
A. Spleen
Splenic, liver and multiple sites of disease are independent predictors of poor outcome.
- Regarding endometrial carcinoma on MR:
A. Normal zonal anatomy is best demonstrated on T1
B. Tumour is typically higher signal compared with endometrial lining on T2
C. Tumour is typically higher signal intensity than myometrium
D. Enhances faster than myometrium on dynamic contrast enhancement
E. Usually low SI than brightly enhancing normal myometrial tissue after contrast
E. Usually low SI than brightly enhancing normal myometrial tissue after contrast
Endometrial tumours are usually isointense to myometrium on T1 and lower SI to endometrial lining on T2. Tumours demonstrate slower enhancement on DCE than myometrium. Normal zonal anatomy is clear on T2.
- Which of the following ovarian masses appear more cystic than solid?
A. Arrhenoblastoma
B. Metastases
C. Fibroma
D. Lymphoma
E. Endometriosis
E. Endometriosis
Cystadenocarcinoma, dermoid abscess, endometriosis and ectopic pregnancy are examples of cystic ovarian masses.
- MRI shows two separate normal sized uteri and cervices with a septum extending into the upper vagina. The two uteri are widely separated, with preservation of the endometrial and myometrial widths. What name is given to this abnormality?
A. Uterus didelphys
B. Mullerian agenesis
C. Unicornate uterus
D. Uterus bicornuate
E. Septate uterus
A. Uterus didelphys
When partial fusion of the Müllerian ducts occurs, myometrium forms the dividing septum. This abnormality is known as a bicornuate uterus. A septate uterus arises when there is only partial resorption of the final fbrous septum dividing the two horns of the uterus. The latter defect results in further reproductive comp
- HSG shows small diverticular outpouchings in the isthmic portion of the right fallopian tube with distal tube occlusion. What is the diagnosis?
A. Tubal polyps
B. Salpingitis isthmica nodosa (SIN)
C. Adenomyosis
D. Asherman’s syndrome
E. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Salpingitis isthmica nodosa (SIN)
SIN is associated with pelvic inflammatory disease and a higher risk of ectopic pregnancy
@# 44. Regarding clear cell tumour of the ovary:
A. Are rarely invasive
B. Represents > 20% of ovarian carcinomas
C. Most patients present at stage 2 disease
D. Frequently occurs as a unilocular cyst with mural nodule
E. Has a poorer survival rate compared with other ovarian cancers
D. Frequently occurs as a unilocular cyst with mural nodule
50% of patients have a 5-year survival rate; it presents in stage I in 75% of cases and accounts for up to 10% of all ovarian cancers.
- Regarding mucinous ovarian tumours:
A. Are most commonly mucinous cystadenocarcinomas
B. Account for the most common benign epithelial neoplasias of the ovary
C. Are most common in the post-menopausal population
D. Rupture may lead to pseudomyxoma peritoneii
E. When mucinous, cystadenomas are unilocular cysts with few septa
D. Rupture may lead to pseudomyxoma peritoneii
20 % of ovarian tumours are mucinous.
These are the second most common benign epithelial neoplasm after serous ovarian neoplasias.
Mucinous cystadenomas account for 80% and are multiloculated cysts with numerous septae, occurring in the third to fifth decades.
- Regarding ovarian fbromas:
A. Demonstrate rapid enhancement on CECT
B. Commonly present as Meigs’ syndrome
C. Are usually bilateral
D. Usually hyperechoic on ultrasound
E. Low on T1 and T2, less or equal to myometrium
E. Low on T1 and T2, less or equal to myometrium
Well-defned solid masses in patients > 40.
Low SI on T1+T2, with poor delayed contrast enhancement.
Bilateral in 4-8% and associated with Meigs’ syndrome in 1%.
Meigs syndrome is defined as the triad of benign ovarian tumor with ascites and pleural effusion that resolves after resection of the tumor
3) A 30-year-old woman has a well-circumscribed, cystic, adnexal mass with areas of dense focal calcification, small enhancing soft-tissue elements, fluid–fluid levels and bright regions on T1W MRI that become dark on fat-saturated sequences. Which of the following pathologies is most likely?
a. ovarian cyst with proteinaceous contents
b. endometrioma
c. mature cystic teratoma of the ovary
d. ovarian cyst adenofibroma
e. ovarian adenocarcinoma
c. mature cystic teratoma of the ovary
The main differentials for an ovarian mature cystic teratoma (dermoid cyst) are endometriomas and proteinaceous ovarian cysts, which can also have fluid–fluid levels.
Fat is frequently demonstrated in a dermoid cyst, but not in these differentials.
Fat can be proven by a significant negative attenuation value on CT, or on MRI with chemical shift artefact in the frequency-encoding direction, a gradient echo sequence in which fat and water are in opposite phase or frequency-selective fat saturation sequences.
Mature cystic teratoma contains mature tissues of germ cell (pleuripotent) origin. At least two of the three germlines should be represented.
Mean patient age is 30 years, younger than for epithelial ovarian neoplasms, and it is the commonest ovarian mass in children.
Usually asymptomatic, they can cause abdominal pain or other nonspecific symptoms. They are bilateral in 10% of cases
8) A general practitioner performs a vaginal examination prior to intended removal of an intrauterine contraceptive device. The locator device cannot be seen or palpated. What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?
a. abdominal radiograph
b. pelvic ultrasound scan
c. pelvic CT
d. pelvic MRI
e. hysteroscopy
b. pelvic ultrasound scan
The device should be seen within the endometrial cavity on ultrasound scan as an echo-bright structure casting an acoustic shadow. If it is not identified in the uterus on ultrasound scan, then a plain abdominal film is indicated to exclude perforation and migration.
12) A 40-year-old woman with a history of prior pelvic radiotherapy for cervical cancer has an ultrasound scan for cyclical pelvic pain. The endometrium is distended by predominantly echo-poor material, and both ovaries have moderately large cysts containing low-level echoes. On MRI, the cervix returns low T2 signal and the ovarian cysts return high signal on fat-suppressed T1W sequences. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. recurrent cervical tumour with bilateral ovarian metastases
b. recurrent cervical tumour and synchronous bilateral ovarian teratomas
c. cervical stenosis and bilateral endometriomas
d. cervical stenosis and bilateral ovarian cystadenocarcinomas
e. new primary endometrial carcinoma with bilateral ovarian secondaries
c. cervical stenosis and bilateral endometriomas
Cervical stenosis can be congenital or acquired. When it is acquired, causes include cervical (after the menopause) or endometrial (before the menopause) carcinoma.
Radiation and curettage can also produce cervical stenosis.
On imaging, the endometrial cavity is distended by secretions and blood products.
Reflux endometriosis can complicate cervical stenosis
@# 13) A postmenopausal patient has a hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for bilateral ovarian masses. Histological examination confirms bilateral ovarian tumours and reveals concomitant endometrial adenocarcinoma. What is the most likely histological diagnosis of the ovarian lesions?
a. benign serous cystadenoma
b. benign mucinous cystadenoma
c. malignant serous cystadenocarcinoma
d. malignant mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
e. endometrioid tumour
e. endometrioid tumour
Benign serous cystadenoma is bilateral in 20% of cases, benign mucinous cystadenoma in 5%, malignant serous cystadenocarcinoma in 50% and malignant mucinous cystadenocarcinoma in 25%. However, not only are endometrioid ovarian tumours frequently bilateral (30–50%) but they are also often (30%) found with concomitant endometrial adenocarcinoma.
25) A 65-year-old female with biopsy-proven ovarian cancer has a staging CT scan. It reveals a left basal pleural effusion that after aspiration contains no malignant cytology. There is a large, complex, abdominopelvic mass, with ascites and peritoneal deposits outside the pelvis measuring over 2 cm in diameter. Pelvic and para-aortic lymph nodes are enlarged. There are liver surface and parenchymal deposits. Which of the described features results in a classification of stage IV disease?
a. ascites
b. pleural effusion
c. liver surface deposits
d. liver parenchymal deposits
e. 2 cm deposits outside the pelvis
d. liver parenchymal deposits
Liver capsule deposits are stage T3/III. The pleural effusion cannot be regarded as M1/IV, because it requires positive cytology for this. Any involved regional nodes give stage IIIc and include obturator, common, internal and external iliac, laterosacral, inguinal and para-aortic.
28) An imaging request is received with the clinical information, ‘biopsy-proven adenocarcinoma of the cervix, for local staging’. Which of the following is the most appropriate technique?
a. transvaginal ultrasound scan
b. endoanal ultrasound scan
c. CT abdomen and pelvis with intravenous and oral contrast
d. MRI with pelvic phased-array coil
e. 18FDG PET
d. MRI with pelvic phased-array coil
MRI is the technique of choice for local staging of cancer of the uterine cervix. CT is less useful for staging of the primary tumour but has value in detecting involved lymph nodes and distant metastases. 18FDG PET may be useful in some cases for detection of distant metastases or the identification of recurrent disease. Its value will vary with the histological diagnosis on account of varying radiotracer avidity, with squamous cell carcinomas typically being avid
32) A 23-year-old nulliparous woman is examined for dyspareunia. Biopsy confirms a clinically small but malignant-looking cervical lesion to be adenosquamous carcinoma. In such cases, local imaging staging must indicate which of the following?
a. tumour size and distance from the internal os plus the cervix length
b. tumour size and distance from the external os plus the uterine length
c. tumour size and distance from the vaginal introitus plus length of the vagina
d. tumour size and vascularity
e. ovarian position
a. tumour size and distance from the internal os plus the cervix length
Trachelectomy may be considered to conserve the uterus and preserve fertility in young women with small tumours.
Tumour size, distance from the internal os, cervix length and size of the uterus are required from the imaging.
Surgery, radiation and chemotherapy are treatment options for cervical cancer dependent on stage.
From 85% to 90% of cervical carcinomas have squamous cell histology, the remainder being mostly adenocarcinoma or adenosquamous.
33) A patient has a squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva. An MRI is performed for locoregional staging. There are significantly enlarged inguinal lymph nodes ipsilateral to the primary tumour, but none contralaterally. A short axis, ipsilateral, 1.2 cm external iliac node is also identified that has signal characteristics identical to the primary tumour throughout. Which of the following is the most accurate nodal staging?
a. Nx
b. N0
c. N1
d. N2
e. N3
c. N1
NX is used when regional nodes cannot be assessed, and N0 when there are no involved regional nodes.
N1 denotes ipsilateral involved femoral or inguinal lymph nodes.
N2 signifies bilateral regional nodal involvement.
All intrapelvic nodes are regarded as metastases and therefore do not influence the N stage.
There is no N3 for vulval cancer
35) A patient with endometrial cancer previously treated with surgery has an 18FDG PET scan to look for recurrence. A false-negative result could be caused by which of the following scenarios?
a. peritoneal deposits smaller than 1 cm
b. bladder diverticulum
c. post-surgical inflammation
d. abscess
e. bowel avidity
a. peritoneal deposits smaller than 1 cm
False positives can occur with PET because 18FDG is a metabolic tracer, and activity is seen in normal bowel, ovaries (cyclical), endometrium (cyclical), blood vessels, bone marrow and skeletal muscle. 18FDG is renally excreted; hence, focal accumulation can be seen in ureters, bladder diverticula, pelvic kidneys and urinary diversions. Benign processes can also take up this tracer, including abscesses, uterine fibroids, endometriosis, post-surgical inflammation, post-radiotherapy inflammation and sacral fractures. Fusion of the PETwith a CT scan can reduce these common pitfalls. However, using CT for attenuation correction can introduce other artefacts, such as apparently increased activity around metal prostheses. The PET acquisition is considerably longer than the CT one, allowing movement of bowel or bladder wall (with distension over time) and hence misregistration of PETactivity on the anatomical CT data. False-negative PET scans can be caused by small tumour deposits close to the urinary bladder, where they cannot be resolved from each other
43) A 45-year-old female has imaging to stage a cervical carcinoma. The primary tumour is 5 cm in longest dimension, is seen to involve the uterine corpus, and has small-volume parametrial spread that does not reach the pelvic side wall. Parametrial lymph nodes are significantly enlarged. There is no hydronephrosis. Vaginal involvement is also seen, with the caudal extent of the tumour being below the level of the urethral orifice into the bladder base. Which of the described features causes the local stage to be T3a?
a. size over 4 cm
b. uterine corpus invasion
c. parametrial spread
d. vaginal invasion
e. parametrial nodal involvement
d. vaginal invasion
The urethra is used as a landmark for the lower third of the vagina.
Cervical cancer involvement of the upper two-thirds of the vagina is T2a.
When the lower third is involved, it becomes T3a.
T3b disease denotes disease that reaches the pelvic side wall or has caused hydronephrosis.
Extension of disease into bladder or rectal mucosa is T4, as is disease extending out of the true pelvis.
Extension into the corpus only is disregarded.
T1b1 disease and T1b2 disease differ in being less or greater than 4cm respectively.
Parametrial lymph nodes are regional nodes and represent N1 disease; they do not influence the T stage
@# 47) A postmenopausal patient is investigated for ascites. Cytology from the ascites reveals cells in keeping with an epithelial ovarian malignancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate staging investigation?
a. CT of the abdomen and pelvis with oral and intravenous contrast
b. CT of the chest, abdomen and pelvis with oral and intravenous contrast
c. MRI of the pelvis
d. 18FDG PET
e. PET/CT
a. CT of the abdomen and pelvis with oral and intravenous contrast
Plain chest radiograph may be added to this as a routine, but chest CT would be requested only with an additional reason to do so. MRI of the ovaries can be helpful in characterizing ovarian masses where ultrasound scan and CA-125 are equivocal. There may be a role for PET/CT in defining disease extent, but cystic tumour deposits, particularly when they may be on or close to bowel or associated with ascites, present a challenge for this technique.
55) Lymphatic drainage from the lower third of the vagina is normally first to which of the following LN groups?
a. obturator
b. internal iliac
c. external iliac
d. inguinal
e. retroperitoneal
d. inguinal
The upper two-thirds of the vagina drain to the pelvic nodes, which is of relevance when imaging vaginal cancer. This cancer is uncommon, representing 1–2% of gynaecological malignancy. Eighty-five per cent of cases of vaginal cancer are squamous and 15% are adenocarcinoma. Clear-cell carcinoma is a rare form of adenocarcinoma found in young patients with in utero diethylstilbestrol exposure. Even less common are melanoma, sarcoma and adenosquamous carcinoma occurring as vaginal primaries. The two commonest cell types have different natural histories. Adenocarcinoma tends to involve pelvic and is more likely to involve supraclavicular lymph nodes, while squamous carcinomas are more likely to give rise to liver metastases. They are equally likely to metastasize to the lungs.
59) A 25-year-old female undergoes ultrasound scan of the pelvis for low abdominal pain. A gas reflection is seen within the uterine cavity. Which of the following is the likely cause of the pain?
a. endometriosis
b. adenomyosis
c. endometritis
d. endometrial carcinoma
e. tubo-ovarian abscess
c. endometritis
Endometritis is the commonest cause of gas in the uterus. Gas is also seen in the uterus when a submucosal fibroid becomes infected, when necrotic neoplastic tissue is metabolized by bacteria, because of fistula to the gastrointestinal tract, in pyometra secondary to cervix obstruction by cancer, or in cases of gas gangrene due to clostridial infection following septic abortion. Ovarian gas can be seen with infection within an ovarian neoplasm. Numerous gas-filled spaces in the vaginal submucosa and exocervix can occur in pregnancy; this is termed ‘vaginitis emphysematosa’.
@# 60) MRI is performed for locoregional staging of vaginal cancer. Which of the following descriptions is the most likely appearance on a T2W sequence, given a small primary tumour confined to the vagina?
a. central high signal within the vagina; focal homogeneous, low-signal mass not breaching the surrounding ring of intermediate-signal vaginal wall
b. central high signal within the vagina; focal homogeneous, high-signal mass not breaching the surrounding low-signal vaginal wall
c. central high signal within the vagina; focal homogeneous, intermediate-signal mass breaching the surrounding low-signal vaginal wall
d. central high signal within the vagina; focal homogeneous, intermediate-signal mass not breaching the surrounding low-signal vaginal wall
e. central intermediate signal; focal homogeneous, high-signal mass contained by low-signal vaginal wall
d. central high signal within the vagina; focal homogeneous, intermediate-signal mass not breaching the surrounding low-signal vaginal wall
The vaginal epithelial layer and mucus are bright on T2W images. This is normally surrounded by low-signal (fibromuscular) vaginal wall. Tumours are typically intermediate signal on T2W images. If gadolinium is used, cancers often have early phase enhancement. Large tumours may have central necrosis.
T1 tumours do not breach the low-T2-signal vaginal wall,
whereas T2 tumours do and extend into the paracolpal fat.
T3 tumours reach the pelvic side wall
while T4 tumours extend beyond the true pelvis or involve bladder or rectal mucosa