Fetal Face and Neck Flashcards

(36 cards)

1
Q

What are the three facial prominences that begin to evolve by 6 menstrual weeks?

A

Frontonasal, Maxillary, Mandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What structures develop from the pharyngeal pouches?

A
  • Pharyngotympanic tube
  • Middle ear cavity
  • Palatine tonsil
  • Thymus
  • Four parathyroid glands
  • Ultimobranchial bodies of the thyroid gland
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do pharyngeal arches produce?

A
  • Cartilage
  • Bone
  • Nerves
  • Muscles
  • Glands
  • Connective tissue of the face and neck
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

At what menstrual weeks does the bony structure of the face begin to form?

A

6-7 menstrual weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When does ossification of the mandible, maxilla, and orbits begin?

A

8-9 menstrual weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

At what stage can sonographically see the bony structures of the face?

A

11-12 menstrual weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

By what menstrual weeks is the face well defined?

A

14-16 menstrual weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What structures develop by the 12th menstrual week?

A
  • Pharyngeal arches and grooves into face, nasal cavities, mouth, tongue, larynx, pharynx, neck fascia
  • Salivary and thyroid glands
  • Skeletal, neural, muscular and vascular neck structures
  • Somites into muscle, cartilage, tendons endothelial cells, dermis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can be consistently identified from 12 weeks of gestation during a sono exam?

A
  • Forehead
  • Orbits
  • Nose
  • Lips
  • Ears
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What planes are useful for evaluating normal and abnormal anatomy in a sono exam?

A
  • Sagittal
  • Transverse
  • Coronal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the primary palate?

A

Formed as the prominences fuse and becomes the premaxillary portion of the maxilla which holds the incisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the secondary palate?

A

Forms the hard and soft plates. Grow horizontally to form the roof of the oral cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is formed by the merging of the nasal prominences?

A

Philtrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What marks the completion of full facial development?

A

Palate development is complete by the end of the first trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the difference between the soft and hard palate?

A

The soft palate is at the back while the hard palate is the bony part closer to the teeth. Functions of soft palate include aiding speech, swallowing, and breathing.

The soft palate and hard palate form the roof of the mouth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the term facial cleft refer to?

A

A wide spectrum of clefting defects usually involving the upper lip, the palate, or both

17
Q

What are the prevalence statistics for facial clefts?

A
  • 1 in 700 births
  • 50% both lip and palate affected
  • 25% only lip affected
  • 25% only palate affected
  • Unilateral in 75% of cases
  • Craniofacial anomalies have constituted approximately 1/3 of all congenital defects
18
Q

What are the anterior cleft palate anomalies?

A
  • Upper lip with premaxillary cleft
  • Complete unilateral cleft lip
  • Complete bilateral cleft lip
19
Q

What are the posterior cleft palate anomalies?

A
  • Simple cleft palate
  • Unilateral cleft lip and palate
  • Complete (bilateral) cleft palate extending to the incisive fossa
20
Q

How are normal orbits characterized in imaging?

A

Reasonable size and equal distance

  • Binocular distance is always measured outer canthi of the eyes.
  • Interorbital distance is measurement between the orbits.
21
Q

What is microphthalmia?

A

Decreased size of the eyeball

Microphthalmia / anophthalmia, which is either unilateral or bilateral, is usually associated with one of about 25 genetic syndromes

22
Q

What is anophthalmia?

A

Absence of the eye, including optic nerves, chiasma, and tracts

Microphthalmia / anophthalmia, which is either unilateral or bilateral, is usually associated with one of about 25 genetic syndromes

23
Q

What is hypotelorism?

A

Decreased interorbital distance, often associated with severe anomalies

24
Q

What is holoprosencephaly?

A

Abnormality of brain development where the brain doesn’t properly divide into hemispheres

25
What defines hypertelorism?
Orbits placed far apart with inter- and biocular distance at or above the 95th percentile
26
What is cyclopia?
*** Single palpebral fissure & single midline orbit** * Rare congenital abnormality * Severe embryologic defect *Commonly associated with:* * Alobar holoprosencephaly * **Proboscis** (soft tissue appendage projecting from just below the forehead) * Median facial clefting * Trisomy 13, Meckel-Gruber, CHARGE Caused by genetic or environmental factors
27
What is micrognathia?
Mandibular hypoplasia causing a receding chin * prevalence: about 1 in 1,000 births * Associated with **methotrexate** a teratogenic drug * Diagnosed: receding chin and short mandible in mid-sagittal facial view
28
Which syndromes are commonly associated with micrognathia?
Treacher-Collins, Robin, and Robert syndromes.
29
Which chromosomal abnormalities are linked to micrognathia?
Trisomy 18 and triploidy
30
What is otocephaly?
A rare, lethal condition with severe mandibular hypoplasia and midline defects like holoprosencephaly and cyclopia
31
What complication is associated with severe micrognathia and why?
Polyhydramnios, due to glossoptosis preventing fetal swallowing.
32
What characterizes macroglossia?
Abnormally large tongue extending beyond the lips; tongue remains out regardless of fetal swallowing * **US findings:** tongue persistently or repeatedly protrudes beyond fetal lips * **Complication:** Polyhydramnios due to impaired swallowing ***Associated disorders:*** * Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome * Acromegaly * Primary amyloidosis * Congenital hypothyroidism * Down syndrome * Apert syndrome
33
What are the two types of neck cysts?
* **Branchial Cleft cysts:** occur laterally between the sternocleidomastoid muscle and pharynx * **Thyroglossal Duct cysts:** located midline around the hyoid bone
34
What are neck teratomas?
Encapsulated tumors containing tissue from all three embryonic germ cell layers * **Appearance:** Complex cystic/solid tumor * **May contain:** Calcifications * **Possible finding:** Polyhydramnios ***Type matters:*** * **Immature** = more suspicious * **Mature** = likely benign
35
What is epignathus teratoma?
Rare tumor arising from the oral cavity or pharynx, can cause airway obstruction * Can fill oral/nasal cavity and invade intracranial space * May contain complex components (like other teratomas) * Risk of **airway obstruction** → postnatal asphyxia * **Ultrasound:** Complex mass from fetal mouth/neck * **Polyhydramnios** may be present
36
What is cystic hygroma?
Benign lymphatic anomaly characterized by cystic areas within the neck's soft tissues * **Associated with:** Chromosomal abnormalities * **Ultrasound:** Cystic mass near chest wall or behind fetal head/neck * May also see **ascites, edema, placentomegaly**